广东广州市黄埔区石化中学2025-2026学年第二学期七年级英语期末质量检测

2025-2026学年第二学期七年级英语期末质量检测 班级______________ 学号_______________ 姓名_______________ 座号_______________ 本训练共五大题，10页，满分110分 时长：100分钟 注意事项： 1．答题前，学生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的学生号、姓名；并将自己的条形码粘贴在答题卡的“条形码粘贴处”。 2．选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；答案不能写在训练卷上。 3．非选择题答案必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔写在答题卡各题目指定区域内的相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，改动后的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 4．学生必须保持答题卡的整洁，训练完成时，将本训练卷和答题卡一并交回。 一、语音知识（共二节，满分10分） 第一节 选出画线部分读音与其他三个读音不同的选项。 ( ) 1. A. spring B. splash C. sprout D. spread ( ) 2. A. clear B. crop C. cry D. cross ( ) 3. A. eager B. spread C. team D. weak ( ) 4. A. guest B. guard C. huge D. goods ( ) 5. A. quiet B. quickly C. queen D. twin 第二节 看音标写单词。 6. /rʌʃ/ _________ 7. /ded/_________ 8. /əˈlaʊ/_________ 9. /əˈbɪləti/ _________ 10. /mætʃ/_________ 二、语法选择（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从11-20各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。 Li Jiaying is a great Chinese astronaut (宇航员). She is 11 space hero from Hong Kong. She loves space so much that she dreams of exploring space for our country. She was born in Hong Kong. From an early age, Li was very 12 in stars and the sky. She studied at the University of Hong Kong and 13 a lot about computer science and technology. After university, many of her classmates took easy jobs, 14 being an astronaut was always her dream. 15 she passed the exam, Li joined China’s national astronaut team in 2024. Her story encourages 16 young people to follow their dreams. China’s space project grows quickly. Li and her team finished lots of difficult tasks. 17 good ideas and hard work made her the first female astronaut from Hong Kong to go into space. Li is not only a great astronaut but also a kind person. She helps young students love science by 18 talks in schools. She believes everyone should have a chance to learn about the beautiful universe. Li’s story is inspiring. She shows that people 19 achieve their dreams with hard work. She hopes more young people will keep loving science. 20 great woman she is! ( ) 11. A. a B. an C. the D. / ( ) 12. A. interest B. interests C. interested D. interesting ( ) 13. A. learns B. will learn C. was learning D. learned ( ) 14. A. and B. so C. but D. or ( ) 15. A. While B. Before C. Till D. After ( ) 16. A. much B. many C. little D. few ( ) 17. A. They B. Them C. Their D. Themselves ( ) 18. A. give B. gives C. gave D. giving ( ) 19. A. can B. need C. must D. should ( ) 20. A. What B. What a C. How D. How a 三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从21~30各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。 Amy’s best friend is Max. Max is Amy’s service dog, and he helps her with a lot of things. Amy cannot 21 , so she has to use a wheelchair (轮椅). She can use her arms and hands, but many things are still quite difficult. 22 , Max is always there. In the morning, it is easier for Amy to get 23 because Max can help Amy get her clothes. Then, Max fetches (去取来) the newspaper for her so she can 24 it when she eats breakfast. If Amy drops something on the floor, Max 25 and gives it to her. The milkman is Max’s friend. At noon, when the milkman comes, Max always waits by the milk box. The milkman puts the milk and 26 in a box on Max’s back, and Max carries them to Amy. Amy often finds it 27 to open and close doors. So, when they go outside, Max opens and closes the door for her. Max also helps Amy when she goes 28 . Amy just points at things in the supermarket and says, “Fetch that one!” Then Max runs over and gets it. Max is a 29 dog, and he really makes her life easier. Amy 30 her dog, and Max likes his owner too! ( ) 21. A. see B. hear C. walk D. touch ( ) 22. A. Quickly B. Luckily C. Finally D. Happily ( ) 23. A. paid B. lost C. worried D. dressed ( ) 24. A. read B. write C. buy D. hide ( ) 25. A. picks it up B. puts it out C. throws it away D. gets it down ( ) 26. A. service B. yogurt C. trade D. product ( ) 27. A. interesting B. important C. difficult D. convenient ( ) 28. A. camping B. climbing C. dancing D. shopping ( ) 29. A. helpful B. strange C. scared D. dangerous ( ) 30. A. loves B. reaches C. inspires D. hugs 四、阅读（共二节，满分35分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项。 (A) Are you looking for a fun way to spend your free time and learn something new? If you love animals and plants, we have two amazing camps for you to experience the joy of getting close to nature. Camp A ◆ Pick fruit ◆ Grow vegetables ◆ Make leaf paintings Dates: November 14-15, 2026 Camp B ◆ Feed animals ◆ Milk cows ◆ Learn cooking Dates: December 12-13, 2026 Prices of each camp: Adults: 88 yuan Kids (3-10 years old): 58 yuan Kids (11-18 years old): 68 yuan Place: Dongfeng Farm Time: 10:00 a.m.~5:00 p.m. Things you should know: ★ Both camps will be delayed (推迟) by two days if the weather is terrible. ★ You can get an application form (申请表) from the website www.happyfarming.com ★ If you want to get more information, please call Mr. Li at 521-6789014 or email your questions to farming@163.com. ★ Each camp includes a delicious lunch and snacks to keep your energy. ★ Bring your friends and family to make the experience even more fun! Everyone is welcome! Come and relax at our camps! ( ) 31. What can you probably do if you take part in Camp A? ①Feed ducks. ②Grow potatoes. ③Learn how to cook. ④Pick apples. A. ①② B. ①③ C. ②③ D. ②④ ( ) 32. The Greens will take part in Camp B with their 12-year-old son. How much should they pay? A. 146 yuan. B. 176 yuan. C. 234 yuan. D. 244 yuan. ( ) 33. How can you get an application form? A. By writing a letter. B. By visiting a website. C. By asking a teacher at school. D. By going to the farm by yourself. ( ) 34. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text? A. People can milk cows at Camp A. B. Both Camp A and Camp B are open for ten hours a day. C. People can get more information by calling Mr. Li. D. People can enjoy a delicious dinner at these two camps. ( ) 35. Why did the writer write the text? A. To tell farm animals to visitors. B. To teach children how to cook meals. C. To encourage people to join the camps. D. To tell the history of Dongfeng Farm. (B) One rainy afternoon, Emma found a new student sitting alone in the school restaurant. His name was Liam, and he had just moved to the city from another country. While most students didn’t know about him, Emma decided to do something different. With a smile, she walked over and asked, “Would you like to join me?” Liam smiled. “Thank you,” he said. As they ate lunch together, Emma learned that Liam loved playing chess. However, he was worried about speaking English. To make him feel more comfortable at school, she invited him to join the school chess club. They became good friends after playing many games together. Two weeks later, Emma met something difficult. She couldn’t solve a math problem. Seeing the worry on her face, Liam decided to help. Together they finished a good and special design. They were very surprised when it won the first prize in the class. When they got the prize, Emma told everyone, “This prize is for both of us. When we help others, we often get help from them, too.” The other students learned to be kinder from her words. ( ) 36. What can we infer (推断) from Paragraph 1? A. Emma was a kind and friendly girl. B. Most students were unfriendly to new classmates. C. Liam didn’t like the food in the school restaurant. D. Liam saw Emma and wanted to make friends with her. ( ) 37. Why did Liam feel worried at first? A. Because nobody liked him. B. Because he missed his old friends. C. Because he had language difficulties. D. Because he was afraid of joining the chess club. ( ) 38. Which of the following is the right order according to the text? a. Emma met a difficult math problem. b. Emma learned a lot about Liam over lunch. c. Liam sat in the school restaurant by himself. d. The other students were moved by Emma’s words. A. a-c-b-d B. c-b-a-d C. a-b-c-d D. c-d-a-b ( ) 39. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. The design. B. Emma’s challenge. C. Emma’s worry. D. A math problem. ( ) 40. What lesson does the text teach us? A. Hard work can always bring success. B. Kindness can bring good things. C. Lunch time is important for making friends. D. Differences can easily make problems. (C) Do you know playing with dogs can make you healthier? Dogs are more than just cute pets. They can cheer you up naturally! I often see people smile when they touch their dogs. A quick pat (轻拍) on a dog’s head can make you feel happy. In fact, many people see their dogs as part of the family. Scientists have discovered something cool: spending just 5 to 20 minutes with a dog can make you feel less stressful (有压力的). ▲ And it’s not just good for humans — dogs enjoy the attention too. Their tails move, and they might even come closer to you, showing they’re having fun. This connection between humans and dogs is truly special. Some dogs even have jobs as “therapy dogs”. These dogs visit schools and hospitals to make people cheerful. They are trained to be very friendly. Of course, not everyone loves dogs. Some people sneeze (打喷嚏) around them or feel worried, and that’s okay! But if you like dogs, spending time with them can turn a boring day into a great one. Next time you see a cute dog, ask its owner if you can say hi. Playing a game with the dog could really cheer you up! Remember, dogs are more than just pets. They’re like friends that give you happiness. ( ) 41. According to the passage, how do people feel when they touch their dogs? A. Sad B. Glad C. Angry D. Worried ( ) 42. Which of the following can we put into the blank “ ▲ ”? A. Touching a dog helps your body relax. B. People who don’t like dogs are always unhappy in life. C. You should never touch a dog without wearing gloves. D. You need to go to a special school to learn how to pet a dog. ( ) 43. What does paragraph 2 mainly talk about? A. Why some people like dogs. B. How to train a dog to be a service dog. C. How dogs can help people in hospitals. D. The benefits (好处) of spending time with dogs. ( ) 44. What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. Scientists. B. Dog owners. C. Therapy dogs. D. Neighborhood pets. ( ) 45. What does the writer probably think of dogs? A. Scary. B. Noisy. C. Boring. D. Helpful. 第二节 阅读填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读短文及文后A~E选项，选出可以填入46~50各题空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。 Everyone needs a role model. (46) _____________ A role model can be a family member, a friend, a teacher, or even a famous person. Role models are important to us. Role models help us learn how to face difficulties. For example, if our role models are great players, we might see how they practice every day and never give up, even when they fail. (47) _____________ Role models can also inspire us to dream big. (48) _____________ For example, if our role model is an astronaut, we might start to dream about exploring space ourselves. Role models help us believe in ourselves. (49) _____________ We should look for people with good qualities. We should choose role models who we can learn from and who make us want to be better people. In a word, role models play a very important part in our lives. (50) _____________ Look for someone you admire and let them inspire you. A. If you don’t have a role model, take action. B. They show us that anything is possible if we work hard. C. A role model is someone we look up to and try to be like. D. However, it’s important to choose our role models wisely. E. This teaches us that failure is just a part of the journey to success. 五、读写综合（满分20分） 第一节 配对阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） A~E为安全用电建议，根据5人的场景匹配对应建议。 51 I was making breakfast when I saw smoke coming from the toaster (烤面包机), and then I saw fires on the bread inside it. 52 I wanted to warm up some milk quickly, so I put it in the microwave (微波炉) with a metal spoon before turning it on. 53 Every night, I charge my phone and place it under my pillow (枕头) so that it’s easy to reach when the clock rings in the morning. 54 After I finish the shower, I use my hair dryer when my hands aren’t dry yet. 55 Last night I didn’t close the fridge door. I’m worried this could cause a safety problem. A. Never put metal in a microwave. It can start fire when the microwave starts to work. B. Always make sure the fridge door is fully closed after use. If it is open, it wastes energy. C. Don’t charge phones under pillows. They can get hot and start a fire. D. Always unplug household appliances like toasters and kettles. It can help cut down energy waste. E. Never use electrical appliances with wet hands or in wet places like the bathroom. You may get hurt. 第二节 简答题（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） Now 80 years old, Grandma Cai Gao is one of the most outstanding picture-book drawers in China. All Chinese people are proud of her because she is the first Chinese to win the Hans Christian Andersen Award in 2026 — the most important honour in children’s books around the world. This is a big step for Chinese original picture books to be known by the world. She was born in Changsha, Hunan Province. She used to be a village teacher for 20 years. She never learned art in a professional way when she was young, but she always had a simple and child-like heart. She started to love painting and make picture books carefully only when she was 40. She has made many famous works, such as The Boy Who Drew Cats and Classic Chinese Poems Illustrated. Her way of painting is very special. She likes to get ideas from Chinese old stories, ancient poems and country life. Her paintings use soft colors and simple lines, and they are full of Chinese style and quiet beauty. Her works are simple but warm, with country feelings and true love. They bring peace and comfort to both children and adult readers. Even when she is 80, Grandma Cai Gao still keeps painting and holds on to her love for art. This great award is not only her own success, but also a great praise for Chinese traditional art. Grandma Cai Gao is a good example for teenagers. Her story tells us that dreams have no age limit. If we hold our love tightly and never give up, we can also make our dreams come true and be excellent in our own field. 56. Why are all Chinese people proud of Grandma Cai Gao? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 57. When did Grandma Cai Gao start to make picture books? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 58. Where does Grandma Cai Gao get ideas for her painting? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 59. What does Grandma Cai Gao keep doing even when she is 80? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 60. What do you think of Grandma Cai Gao? Why? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 六、写作（满分25分） 第一节 语篇填词（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） When I was a little kid, I was (61) c_________ about everything around me and always asked my uncle all kinds of questions. My uncle is a firefighter. He is a (62) b_________ man who is never afraid of danger, and he always tries his best to save people in trouble. He says it is his duty to protect the people in the city. He also keeps exercising every day, because he must stay (63) f_________ to do his job well. Whenever I meet difficulties in my study or daily life, he always listens to me patiently and gives me lots of useful (64) a_________. I am really (65) p_________ of my uncle. 第二节 语法填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） I often go to my grandpa’s farm on weekends. He keeps many animals there, such as chickens, ducks and cows. Sometimes, I help my grandpa feed them. There are also (66) _________ few cute little cows. Every day they walk around the farm and look for fresh grass. Look! The cows (67) _________ (eat) grass happily in the field. Some birds are flying above the farm houses. (68) _________ lovely they look! These animals make the farm warm and lively, so I always enjoy (69) _________ (I) there and play with them. I really love this peaceful place, (70) _________ I can’t wait to go there to visit my animal friends again next weekend. 第三节 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 71．环保意识渐飞扬，“低碳”一词正唱响。学校将举办“低碳生活”英语演讲大赛。请你依据以下提示写一篇演讲稿，号召大家践行低碳生活。 注意： 1．要点齐全，语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整； 2．文中不得出现你的任何真实信息（姓名、校名和地名等）； 3．词数80词左右。 Good morning, everyone! Nowadays, a low-carbon life is popular in our daily lives. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $