福建厦门市三校（三中、龙湫亭学校、南山实验学校）联考2024-2025学年八年级下学期阶段学情自测考试英语

**基本信息** 本试卷以初二英语核心素养为导向，融合科技前沿（机器人、新能源汽车）、文化传承（新中式服装、泰山）及社会热点（地震、国潮）素材，通过听、说、读、写全维度考查，注重语言能力与思维品质的协同发展。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |书面表达（第五节）|1题/15分|写作能力、话题表达|以“How to be happy”为主题，整合健康、沟通、助人等生活情境，考查语言组织与价值表达| |短文填空（第二节）|10空/15分|词汇运用、语法规则|围绕泰山机器人狗素材，融合科技与环保，考查动词时态、介词搭配等语法知识| |阅读理解（第三节）|21题/42分|细节理解、推理判断|C篇以春晚机器人舞蹈为素材，D篇聚焦新中式服装潮流，体现文化意识与信息筛选能力|

三校联考参考答案 第一部分 选择题 听音理解1-5CBCBA 6-10ABCCB 11-15ACBCB 单项选择21-24CABB 25-28ABAC 完型填空29-32BACB 33-36ABCA 阅读理解37-40BADC 41-44 DBAD 45-48 CDBD 49-53 CAEBD 第2部分 非选择题 I. 听音理解 第三节 听对话或短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。（每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 16.7:30 17.ran 18.driver 19.seriously 20.careful III.阅读理解 第三节 阅读E篇短文, 完成下列表格，每空不超过5个词。（每小题2分，共8分） 54. look similar 55.makes the electric car cheaper 56. energy efficient 57. friendly Ⅳ.书面表达（共五节，满分58分） 第1节 情景交际 根据情景提示，用得体的英语完成下列各题。（每小题2分，共10分） 58. OK./Yes, sure./Certainly./Of course./No problem./… 59. I want to/would like to volunteer at the old people’s home. 60.I was taking a shower when you called me at nine last night. 61.Why don’t you lie down and rest/go to see a doctor/…?（开放性答案，合理即可） 62.Could I go out for dinner with my friends? 第二节 短文填空 根据语境或具体提示填空，完成短文（（每小题1.5分，满分15分） 63. highest 64. difficult/hard 65. from 66. walking 67. Although 68. spent 69. with 70. quickly 71. abilities 72. our 第三节 看图写句 根据所给图片和提示词，写出正确句式表达（每小题2分，满分8分） 73. I had a fight / fought with my friend yesterday. 74. If you have a fever, you should / will/ need to / have to go to the hospital. 75. Cindy was/is playing the piano while Jim was/is reading. 76. Jack takes the dog for a walk/walks the dog every day. 第四节 补全对话 根据对话情境，填入恰当的句子，每空一句。（每小题2分，共10分） 77. What were you doing? 78. Did you go to see a doctor? 79. What’s wrong?/What’s the matter?/What happened? 80. You should talk to him./…（开放性答案，合理即可） 81. No problem./You’re welcome. 第五节 短文写作 （共15分） 评分标准： 要点 评分细则 档次 拥有一个健康的身体、良好的生活习惯。 2-4分 写到该点2分 语法正确3分 内容丰富流畅（加入理由结果等）4分 2分 3分 4分 遇到压力时学会与人沟通、适度放松。 2-4分 写到该点2分 语法正确3分 内容丰富流畅（加入理由结果等）4分 2分 3分 4分 主动承担家务，乐于助人。 2-4分 写到该点2分 语法正确3分 内容丰富流畅（加入理由结果等）4分 2分 3分 4分 附加分 3分 书面整洁，书写清楚1 衔接恰当，过渡自然1 首尾呼应，语意连贯1 1分 2分 3分 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2024－2025学年下学期三校联考初二英语试卷 英 语 （试卷满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟） 学校__________________ 姓名____________ 座位号________ 考生注意： 本试卷分为两大部分，第一部分（1-15小题,21-53小题）为选择题，请考生将答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上；第二部分（16-20小题，54-82小题）为非选择题，请考生将答案用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上。 第一部分（选择题） I. 听音理解 （共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。 （每个句子读两遍） 第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。 （每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 6. Who fell off the tree? A. Linda. B. Sally. C. Mike. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 7. How long did Lisa read in the library? A. For an hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8.When did Eric start having a stomachache? A. Yesterday morning. B. Last night. C. This morning. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 9.What will John do? A. Do the dishes. B. Wash the clothes. C. Sweep the floor. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 10.What did Sarah do last night? A. She did her homework. B. She went to the movies. C. She made a phone call. 11. Where will they go this afternoon? A. To the library. B. To Sarah’s home. C. To the cinema. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12.When will the dentist be available? A. At 2:00 pm. B. At 2:30 pm. C. At 3:30 pm. 13. What is Jane’s advice? A. Don’t take the medicine. B. Don’t eat anything too cold. C. Drink more hot water. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14.How long can Alice use the computer? A. For an hour. B. For 45 minutes. C. For 30 minutes. 15. What are their parents worried about? A. Their study. B. Their health. C. Their habits. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分 第三节 听对话或短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。（读三遍) An accident on the road Time At 　 16 　 pm yesterday. About the accident · Three students were riding bikes. · There was a boy playing the football on the road. · The ball 　 17 　 to one of the bikes. · A car hit the student because the 　 18 　was talking on the phone. · Luckily, the student didn’t get hurt 　 19 　. Advice · Always be 　 20 　. · Don’t play on the road. · Never talk on the phone while driving. II．语言知识运用（共两节，16小题，满分20分） 第一节 单项选择 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。（每小题1分，共8分） 21. Everyone should take care of ________ old because we are all going to be old one day. A. A B. an C. the 22. The man was so so tired that he fell asleep ________ the wall. A. against B. from C. with 23. — Did you hear the news of earthquake in Myanmar(缅甸)? — Sure. The ________ there is terrible, I hope people there are safe. A. satisfaction B. situation C. education 24. — Don’t look at your phone ________ you have some important things. — Sorry, I won’t do that again. A. since B. unless C. until 25. Lei Jun, the founder(创始人)of Xiaomi, said “If we want to ________ with the US, we have to improve our technology.” A. compete B. control C. continue 26. —Deepseek can provide us with information we can’t think about. —Yes. It can ________ think by itself like a human. A. properly B. completely C. suddenly 27. —We’re going to Beijing on Friday, when shall we make the plan? —We should do it now. Never ________ what you can do today until tomorrow. A. put off B. cut off C. take off 28. — I’m so worried about the final tests of biology and geography in June. — _______. Just take it easy and trust yourself. A. No problem. B. That sounds fun. C. It’s not a big deal. 第二节 完形填空 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。（每小题1.5分，共12分） Many people think we should work hard and help others all the time. When we work hard for a long time, we’re doing harm (伤害) to our 29 , and we may easily get sick. So, a little “me” time is really 30 . You should take some “me” time every day. Just be alone for a while. Don’t feel sorry about it. “Me” time keeps your body healthy. Good health can make you 31 , and you will find the world seems much brighter. Taking “me” time helps you control (控制) your 32 . That will make you a better person. You can be happy with your workmates. You can be happy with your family. And you can be happy with your friends. “Me” time means that you spend time 33 your hobbies. It can also be time to do nothing. Whatever you do, do it for half an hour. Read a novel, write a diary, 34 a walk, do some exercise, or just take a short sleep. Taking “me” time is hard 35 people are usually busy. Be serious about it. Put it on your plan. If someone asks you to do 36 then, say, “Sorry. That’s my ‘me’ time.” Remember, you can’t do everything. So, take some “me” time. 29. A. work B. health C. study 30. A. necessary B. interesting C. famous 31. A. cry B. worry C. relax 32. A. ideas B. feelings C. skills 33. A. on B. in C. to 34. A. look for B. go for C. ask for 35. A. before B. until C. because 36. A. something B. everything C. nothing III.阅读理解 （共三节，21小题，每小题2分，满分42分） 第一节 阅读以下A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（每小题2分，共24分） A Let’s Explore the Nature! Are you interested in animals and nature? Here comes your chance! You can take part in many hands-on activities and meet with live animals—lions, pandas, tigers, and so on! More information about the program is as follows: Age: Students aged 8-16 Groups: There are 2 programs for you to choose from. Each program needs at most 15 students. Program A Dates: 11th-13th July, 2025 Time: 10:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m. Program B Dates: 9th-11th August, 2025 Time: 10:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m. Program cost: $ 230 for members; $ 250 for non-members (非会员). How to do: Come to our center to get an application form (申请表) and hand it in before 8th July, 2025. Notes: We don’t provide free lunch because people have different tastes. You may either bring a lunch-box or pay for lunch at our restaurants. COME AND JOIN US NOW! DON’T MISS THE CHANCE! 37. Who can join the three-day summer program? A. 7-year-old girl. B. A 14-year-old boy. C. A 17-year-old girl. D.A26-year-old man. 38. When will Program A start? A. July 11th. B. July 12th. C. August 9th. D. August 10th. 39. How much should two members and one non-member pay for the program? A. $ 690. B.$ 750. C. $ 730. D. $ 710. 40. Why are there no free lunches? A. Because there are many restaurants. B. Because the lunches cost too much. C. Because people have different tastes. D. Because they may bring lunch-boxes. B "Ne Zha 2" is an exciting animated movie that continues the story of the brave young hero, Ne Zha. In the first movie, Ne Zha was born with special powers, but people were afraid of him because they thought he was a monster. However, Ne Zha didn't give up. He fought against evil and proved that he could be a hero with his courage and determination. In "Ne Zha 2", Ne Zha faces new challenges and meets new friends. Together, they go on an exciting adventure, solving problems and facing dangers. The movie has beautiful animations with bright colors and lively characters. The action scenes are thrilling, and the story is full of surprises. One of the important messages in the movie is that anyone can be a hero if they believe in themselves. Ne Zha learns to control his powers and make the right choices. He also discovers that true strength comes from the heart. The movie teaches us about friendship, bravery, and never giving up. It is a great movie for both children and adults, and it reminds us that we can all overcome our challenges and become the best version of ourselves. 41.Why were people afraid of Ne Zha in the first movie? A. Because he looked different. B. Because he was not friendly. C. Because he was a monster. D. Because they thought he was a monster. 42.How is the animation in “Ne Zha 2” described? A. Boring and simple B. Beautiful and lively C. Dark and scary D. Weak and uninteresting 43.What is one of the important messages in the movie? A. Anyone can be a hero if they trust themselves. B. Only strong people can be heroes. C. Magic is the most important thing. D. It’s better to be alone. 44.What is the main purpose of the article? A. To compare Ne Zha 2 with other films. B. To describe how to make Ne Zha 2. C. To explain why Ne Zha 2 is more popular than Ne Zha 1. D. To show the success and its spirit of Ne Zha 2. C At the 2025 CCTV Spring Festival Gala, 16 humanoid robots wearing bright flowery jackets danced the traditional yangge , making their creator, Wang Xingxing , famous overnight. Wang, a 35-year-old from Ningbo , had an unusual school life. He found English very hard—his grades were often low. But he was excellent at physics. When his classmates studied for exams, he spent hours disassembling old electronics, such as old televisions or telephones, to get some cheap parts of them. At 19, he used these parts, which only cost 200 yuan, to build his first walking robot. This showed his special talent. Later in college, he created XDog, a low-cost four-legged robot that brought him awards and new chances. In 2016, he set up Unitree Robotics (宇树科技) to make robots affordable, which means people can buy them at low prices. By 2025, his H1 humanoid robots became famous after their amazing Spring Festival Gala show. Mixing old Chinese dances with new technology, they surprised everyone and became popular online. At the important China Private Entrepreneurs Forum(中国民营企业家论坛) in February 2025, Wang is the youngest person there and he sat with famous business leaders like Ren Zhengfei and Lei Jun. His company, now a top tech “dragon” in Hangzhou , leads the world in four-legged robots . Even if he wasn’t good at all subjects, Wang never gave up on robots. His saying “Don’t let your weak points stop you. Keep trying!” always cheers up young teens. His story shows you don’t need to be perfect in everything - just focus on what you love. As his robots succeed worldwide, they teach us: the future is built by brave people who keep trying new ideas . 45. What made Wang Xingxing famous overnight? A. A new type of AI system. B. An English robotic competition. C. A Robots’ show at Spring Festival Gala. D. A new company in Shanghai. 46.What does “disassembling” mean in Paragraph.2? A. Putting up.  B. Setting up. C. Cutting out.       D. Taking down. 47.Why did H1 humanoid robots become popular online? A. They were the cheapest robots. B. They mixed dance with technology. C. They were used for further study. D. They danced at a business forum. 48.What’s the best title of the passage? A. A New AI System in the World B. Some Ways to Do Better at School C. Special Robots with four legs D. A Man’s Success with His Robots D 第2节 阅读D篇短文, 从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯、意思完整。（每小题2分，共10分） Walking around your city, you will see young people wearing hanfu on subways or people wearing T-shirts with Chinese characters on the streets. 49 “The Neo-Chinese style” is the clothing that combines traditional Chinese elements with a new fashion trend. 50 So it is easier for people to wear this kind of clothes in their daily life. The origin of “The Neo-Chinese style” is the younger generation’s love for traditional culture. 51 “I think ‘China Chic’ means a kind of pride and confidence in our culture. We used to follow lifestyles of the Western countries and used to buy clothes of Western brands. 52 ” Lin Yuanqi, a fashion lover told China Daily. A search on Xiaohongshu noticed that “Neo-Chinese” has been viewed about 130 million times. 53 It shows that young people are the main supporters of China Chic. Next time when you hang out with your friends, try China Chic and make yourself a shining star! Neo-Chinese新中式 China Chic国潮 A. Compared with Hanfu, it’s simpler and more practical. B. But as China is getting stronger, we start to love our culture more. C. Recently, the “Neo-Chinese” clothing has become more and more popular. D. A report noted that Neo-Chinese fashion has mainly become popular among 18-to 34-year-olds. E. Because of their special understanding of Chinese culture, “China Chic” is now a trend all over the world. 第二部分（非选择题） 第3节 阅读E篇短文, 完成下列表格，每空不超过5个词。（每小题2分，共8分） Cars powered by gasoline (汽油) were sold for many years before cars that use electricity(电). Car companies are now making cars that are fully powered by electricity only. How do these electric cars measure up to traditional gasoline cars? Electric and gasoline cars look similar on the outside. They have very different parts under their hoods (引擎盖), though . Electric cars have one main moving part: the motor. But gasoline cars have hundreds of parts , often requiring frequent maintenance (保养). Having fewer parts makes the electric car cheaper to maintain and less likely to have mechanical (机械的) problems . Electric cars are energy efficient (高效的), also making them cheaper to operate . It costs about $1.00to travel 43 miles in an electric car. But it costs about $1.25 to go 18 miles in a gasoline car. Basically, an electric car can go twice as far as a gas car for the same price. Electric cars do not have tailpipe emission (尾气排放), making them more friendly to the environment , too . While some details make electric cars seem attractive, other details aren’t as favorable. For example , some electric cars can travel only 60 to 120 miles on a full charge (充电). Most gas cars can drive hundreds of miles on a full tank (油箱). There are certainly advantages(优势) to both electric cars and gasoline cars. They both provide people with a choice. Electric Cars VS Gasoline Cars Introduction With the appearance(外观) of electric cars, people wonder whether electric cars can achieve the same standards as gasoline cars. Similarity Electric cars and gasoline cars 54. ___________________ on the outside. Differences Electric cars: Having fewer parts 55. ____________________ to maintain and less likely to have mechanical problems. Compared with gasoline cars, electric cars are 56. _________________, also making them cheaper to operate. Having no tailpipe emissions, they are more environmentally 57. ______________. Gasoline cars: Gas cars can cover a short distance on full tank than electric cars on a full charge. Conclusion Both electric cars and gasoline cars have their own advantages which provide people with a choice. Ⅳ.书面表达（共五节，满分58分） 第一节 情景交际 根据情景提示，用得体的英语完成下列各题。（每小题2分，共10分） 58.妈妈想叫你帮忙倒垃圾，你欣然接受并答道： . 59.五一假期即将来临，你跟妈妈说，你想要去养老院做志愿者，你可以这样说： . 60.同学昨天晚上9点给你打电话咨询作业，当时你正在洗澡，你回电话时可以这么跟他说： ______________________________________________ when you called me at nine last night. 61.你的朋友Lucy发烧了，你会这样建议她： ____________________________________________________________________________? 62. 你想和朋友们出去吃晚饭， 你需要征求父母的同意，你可以这样问他们： ____________________________________________________________________________? 第二节 短文填空 根据语境或具体提示，完成短文，每空一词。（每小题1.5分，共15分） 　 Have you ever been to Mountain Tai? It is the 63.__________(high) mountain in Shandong province. There are over 7,000 steps which are about 10 kilometers from Hongmen to Yuhuangding Peak. So it is 64.__________ to reach to the mountaintop in one breath. Luckily, these days a new kind of robotic dog is put into use in this area. The dog works as a “porter(运输工)” on Mountain Tai, transporting(运输) goods 65.__________ the foot of the mountain to the top. It is reported that it can keep 66.__________(walk) without stopping for 3 to 5 hours. 67.__________ you can see “No Littering” signs in Mountain Tai area, many visitors often throw rubbish everywhere. So the government has 68.__________(spend) large costs in cleaning and transportation in the past three years. 69.__________ the help of this robotic dog, cleaners can save labour to carry heavy rubbish more 70.__________(quick). It also has great 71.__________ (ability) such as crossing the obstacles(障碍物) and jumping onto the steps. The use of the robotic dog has put new vitality(活力) into the tourism of Mount Tai. The leader of the company said, “We are still in the testing stage(测试阶段) and we will try 72.__________ (we) best to improve the design to start the next round of testing as soon as possible.” 第三节 看图写句 根据所给图片和提示词，写出一个恰当的句子。（每小题2分，共8分） 73. with, yesterday 74. if, hospital 75.while 76.Jack, every day 73.___________________________________________________________________________ 74.___________________________________________________________________________ 75.___________________________________________________________________________ 76.___________________________________________________________________________ 第四节 补全对话 根据对话情境，填入恰当的句子，每空一句。（每小题2分，共10分）Susan is talking with Amy at the school gate. Susan: Hello, Amy! Amy: Hello, Susan! Susan: I called you at eight last night, but nobody answered. 77. _______________________? Amy: I was sleeping at that time. Susan: Why did you sleep so early? Amy: Because I have a cold and I have a headache. Susan: I am sorry to hear that. 78. ________________________________________________? Amy: Yes, I went to a doctor. The doctor told me to take the medicine and stay in bed to have good rests. Susan: Oh, how are you feeling now? Amy: Much better, thank you. By the way, you look very sad. 79. _____________________? Susan: My elder brother always refuses to let me watch my favorite TV show. Instead he watches whatever he wants. I don’t think this is fair. I am sad. What should I do? Amy: 80. ____________________________________________________________________. Susan: Thanks for your advice. Amy: 81. _________________________. Hope things work out. 第五节 短文写作（共15分） 82.英国作家欧文说过：“人类一切努力的目的在于获得幸福。”每个人都有获得幸福的权力，也有各自不同的获得幸福的方法。那么你认为在生活中怎样才能成为一个幸福的人呢？请你以How to be happy为题写一篇英语短文表达自己的看法，词数100左右。 内容提示： · 拥有一个健康的身体、良好的生活习惯。 · 遇到压力时学会与人沟通、适度放松。 · 主动承担家务，乐于助人。 注意事项： 1．必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2．意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范； 3．请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。 How to be happy Everybody wants to live a happy life, but the problem is how we can make it. My opinions are as follows. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题结束，请认真检查！ 英语试题 第10页 共10页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $