浙江宁波市慈溪市2025学年第一学期九年级期末测试 英语试题

2025学年第一学期九年级期末测试 英语试题 温馨提示： 1. 本试题卷包括四部分；全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等信息分别填写（填涂）在答题纸规定的位置上。 3. 答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力理解（共三节；满分20分） 第一节：听小对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1. What does the girl want to buy? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. An English book. B. A dictionary. C. A notebook. 2. What will the weather be like this weekend? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy. 3. How does Tom like science? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. He loves it. B. He hates it. C. He doesn’t mind it. 4. Where is Mr. Brown most probably? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. In the meeting room. B. In the office. C. In the library. 5. How does Mary go to school on rainy days? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By underground. 第二节：听长对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段较长对话，回答两个小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. When will the school art festival take place? A. On Saturday. B. On Sunday. C. On Monday. 7. What will Jane perform at the festival? A. Chinese paper cutting. B. Chinese painting. C. Chinese folk music. 听下面一段较长对话，回答三个小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. How much did Mike pay for the movie ticket? A. ￥30. B. ￥40. C. ￥50. 9. What did he think of the movie? A. Interesting. B. Boring. C. Exciting. 10. What time did he leave the cinema? A. At 7: 00 p.m. B. At 7: 30 p.m. C. At 8: 00 p.m. 第三节：听独白，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. Who is the speaker probably speaking to? A. The students. B. The teachers. C. The parents. 12. How often are the club activities held? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 13. What interesting things can students do there? A. Draw pictures. B. Sing English songs. C. Play word games. 14. What is special about the club? A. It has more than 300 members. B. Club members study in a fun way. C. Foreign teachers often come to help. 15. How can students know more about the activity plan? A. By visiting the school website. B. By telephoning the club leader. C. By sending emails to the club. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节；满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Today, AI（Artificial Intelligence）is everywhere in our daily life. It is changing the way we live. As AI grows, it will make our life easier and better. Let’s learn more about AI and enjoy the convenience it brings! Do you want to turn on the light without getting up? AI can do that! You can use a smart speaker, like Xiaoai or Xiaodu, or a phone app to ask it to turn the light on or off. AI also controls the temperature — if your home is too hot or too cold, AI can adjust the heater or air conditioner for you. AI can manage other appliances like the fridge, washing machine, or oven. Smart fridges can even tell you what food is inside and if it is fresh. AI helps in hospitals and our daily health! It helps doctors find illnesses faster and more accurately, like looking at X-rays to spot problems. It also saves time——you don’t need to wait long for simple checks. The AI reminders keep people’s health on track easily. For example, it reminds people to take medicine on time. Some AI tools even check your heart rate or sleep through phone apps. AI can do many useful things for learning. It creates personalized practice for you — like math exercises if you don’t understand a problem. It checks homework quickly, such as grammar mistakes in English writing. AI also answers questions anytime, and explains difficult lessons step by step. It makes learning more efficient — you focus on what you need to improve. It saves time for both students and teachers. And you can learn at your own pace. AI is changing how we travel—from school runs to family trips! Apps like Beidou Map help find the best transportation route. They can tell you where there is a traffic jam（拥堵）and suggest a faster way. It adds self-driving features to cars, such as warning drivers of nearby vehicles or pedestrians, which makes travel safer — AI can react faster than humans in some cases. AI also makes traffic lights work better to reduce jams. 16. According to the text, AI can help with all the following except ________. A. Managing certain home appliances B. Saving energy for hospitals C. Reducing traffic jams and accidents D. Improving children’s learning 17. The best title for the text is ________. A. AI in Our Daily Life B. The Challenges from AI C. Smart Homes with AI D. AI’s Advice on Education 18. In which section of the newspaper can we read this text? A. History & Culture. B. Sports & Matches. C. Science & Technology. D. Medical Care & Health. B Paper is one of the most important inventions in human history. It has been used for writing, printing, and packaging for nearly two thousand years. The first paper was made in China during the Han Dynasty. Before paper was invented, people wrote on animal bones and pieces of bamboo. In 105 AD, Cai Lun improved the paper-making process by using easy-to-find things like tree barks (树皮), old cloth and even fishnets. This paper was light, strong and cheap. It made it easier for more people to learn to read and write, which let more people get knowledge and helped ideas and culture spread far and wide. The paper-making technology spread to other parts of the world along the Silk Road. In the 8th century, it reached the Arab world. From there, it traveled to Europe in the 12th century. The invention of the printing press in the 15th century made paper even more important. When printing press and paper worked together, books and newspapers could be made in large amounts. Today, making paper is a modern industry. The materials used for paper production include wood, bamboo and recycled paper. Paper is used in more ways than ever, such as textbooks, office papers, food packaging, hygiene products, and art. However, the production of paper also brings environmental problems. Cutting down trees for wood pulp harms nature. Making paper also uses lots of water and energy. To fix this, people around the world are trying to plant more trees to replace the ones we cut down, recycle more paper, and develop cleaner production ways. If we use paper wisely, we can keep enjoying its benefits while protecting our planet. 19. When was paper invented according to the passage? A. In the 2nd century. B. In the 8th century. C. In the 12th century. D. In the 15th century. 20. What was paper mainly made from in ancient China? A. Recycled paper. B. Animal bones. C. Pieces of bamboo. D. Tree barks. 21. How did the paper-making technology spread to Europe? A. It was brought there by Cai Lun. B. It reached there directly from China. C. It travelled there along the Silk Road. D. It spread there from Southeast Asia. 22. What challenge does paper production face today? A. Fewer and fewer people are using paper. B. It causes environmental problems. C. It’s difficult to find proper materials. D. There’s no modern production way. C The Water Festival is an important festival of the Dai people in China. They mainly live in beautiful Yunnan Province, where rivers and forests are everywhere. People celebrate this special festival in mid-April every year. During the festival, the streets are filled with laughter. Why do they pour water on each other with so much joy? There is a sweet old legend behind this interesting tradition. Long long ago, there was a kind and smart Dai princess named Yu Xianglun. She lived happily in a peaceful Dai village with her people. They worked hard on farms and helped each other. However, one year, a bad spirit (精灵) came to the village. This spirit hated all happiness and wanted to make people suffer. It used magic to make the weather very hot and dry for months. Rivers dried up, crops died, and people felt sad and hopeless. Yu Xianglun hated to see her people experiencing pain and sadness. She thought day and night and finally came up with a good idea. She remembered her grandmother’s words: “Clean water is pure and can drive away bad things.” So she told everyone to collect clean water from the mountain spring. On the first day of mid-April, all the villagers gathered in the village square. Children carried small buckets, and adults held bamboo branches. They poured water on each other gently and happily. The cool and clean water moistened everyone’s faces. The bad spirit felt curious and got close to have a look. As soon as the water touched it, the spirit screamed and ran away quickly. Since then, the Dai people have kept this lively custom. During the Water Festival, they pour clean water on friends, family, and even strangers. It is not just a game—it is a warm way to wish good luck. People also clean their houses, wear traditional Dai clothes, and share delicious food to welcome the Dai New Year. Everyone smiles, sings, and dances, enjoying the happy and hopeful time together. 23. When do the Dai people celebrate the Water Festival? A. In January. B. In February. C. In March. D. In April. 24. Why did the bad spirit make the weather very hot and dry? A. To make the villagers see its power. B. To make the villagers feel unhappy. C. To make the villagers run away from the village. D. To make the villagers collect clean water for it. 25. What did the villagers do to drive away the bad spirit? A. They poured water on it. B. They sang and danced. C. They cleaned their houses. D. They set off fireworks. 26. What is the true meaning of the Water Festival? A. Wishing each other good luck. B. Expressing thanks to nature. C. Remembering friends and family. D. Enjoying the family reunion. D Pets are lovely companions that can bring warmth and joy to a family. Recently, researchers did research about whether teenagers should be allowed to keep pets at home. They asked 500 teenagers, 200 parents and 50 experts for their opinions. Here are the results. Most of the teenagers (75%) think they should be allowed to keep pets. They say pets can be their good friends. When they feel sad or tired, they can talk to their pets or play with them, which helps make them happy. More than half of the parents disagree. They worry that keeping pets will take much of their children’s time and energy. Teenagers need to study hard, but pets will make them distracted from their lessons. Some parents also say pets may bring health problems, such as allergies. The experts have different ideas. However, they say keeping pets can help teenagers learn to be responsible (有责任心的). Taking care of a pet includes daily tasks, such as feeding it on time, cleaning its living area, and taking it for walks. These tasks require teenagers to be patient and work hard. By doing these things, they will learn to take care of others instead of only thinking about themselves. It is true that keeping pets takes up some of teenagers’ time and energy. But this problem can be solved as long as they can manage their time well and get family support. As students, teenagers face a lot of pressure from study. Pets can be their good emotional (情感的) partners. This kind of emotional support is very helpful for their mental health. Most importantly, it helps them develop responsibility. This is an important quality that will benefit them in their future lives. 27. Most of the teenagers want to keep pets because ______. A. pets can make them happy B. they love helping small animals C. it’s easy to look after pets D. their parents are busy with work 28. The underlined word “distracted” (in Para.3) means ______ in Chinese. A. 心旷神怡 B. 心有余悸 C. 心无旁骛 D. 心猿意马 29. What do the experts say about teenagers keeping pets? A. It must be decided by their parents. B. It will take up teenagers’ study time. C. It might cause health problems. D. It develops teenagers’ responsibility. 30. What is the writer’s opinion about teenagers keeping pets? A. He worries teenagers have no time to look after pets. B. He thinks teenagers should first focus on their lessons. C. He agrees that teenagers should be allowed to keep pets. D. He thinks that teenagers should never keep pets at home. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 China has a long history of traditional etiquette (礼仪) that shows respect and kindness to others. These customs are still important in our daily life today. When people meet, they often greet each other with a smile and polite words like “Nihao” or “Zaoshanghao”. If you meet someone for the first time, you’re supposed to shake hands. ____31____ Table manners are also a key part of Chinese etiquette. ____32____ It’s not polite to talk with food in your mouth or waste food. When visiting friends or relatives, people often bring small gifts, such as fruit or tea. ____33____ In daily communication, it’s polite to listen carefully when others are speaking. We should look at the speaker with gentle eye contact and nod gently from time to time. ____34____ Cutting in on others suddenly is not only impolite but also makes it hard for the conversation to go smoothly. Another important etiquette is about bows. In ancient China, bowing was a common way to greet others, especially elder people or teachers. As time went on, bowing etiquette became simpler. ____35____ However, a gentle bow is proper when we meet elder people or people we respect. Traditional etiquette helps people get along well with each other. It’s a valuable part of Chinese culture that we should learn and pass on. A. We usually wait for elder people to start eating first. B. You shouldn’t shake hands too hard or keep it too long. C. Today, in our daily life, we don’t bow as often as before. D. They also say “Thank you” and “Goodbye” politely when leaving. E. If we have something to say, we should wait until the speaker finishes talking. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last week, our school held a science fair. It was a great ____36____ for us to show our abilities and learn from each other. My classmates and I worked together on a ____37____ about clean energy. We spent two months ____38____ a model wind generator (发电机) unit from recycled materials. When we tested it, we were excited to see the light on the model ____39____ with wind. This helped us understand how ____40____ can be used to make electricity. On the fair day, we ____41____ our model unit in the school hall and put up a clear poster of the project steps next to it. Many students and teachers came to ____42____ and asked us questions about our project. We answered them patiently and ____43____ and showed them how the model worked. One judge was very ____44____ in our project. He praised us for using recycled materials creatively and said the model was _____45_____ for showing how energy works. He also gave us some _____46_____ on how to improve it: we could add a battery (电池) to store the electricity we made. We were all happy and _____47_____ by his words. In the end, our project won first prize! We were so _____48_____ that we jumped for joy. We quickly gathered around to take a group photo to _____49_____ this special moment. The _____50_____ fair was both fun and educational. It made us realize how important teamwork is—we divided tasks like designing, building and testing, which made the project go smoothly. We also learned to be creative when solving problems. We all look forward to next year’s fair. 36. A. chance B. dialog C. fairy D. mystery 37. A. course B. novel C. speech D. project 38. A. tying B. making C. buying D. listing 39. A. turn on B. turn up C. turn off D. turn down 40. A. water B. rubbish C. wind D. sunshine 41. A. cut up B. set up C. cleaned up D. gave up 42. A. take a walk B. take a risk C. take a rest D. take a look 43. A. carefully B. suddenly C. differently D. comfortably 44. A. prepared B. talented C. interested D. disabled 45. A. awful B. helpful C. peaceful D. truthful 46. A. birth B. force C. business D. advice 47. A. scared B. shocked C. bored D. encouraged 48. A. proud B. active C. lively D. polite 49. A. discover B. create C. memorize D. check 50. A. art B. science C. music D. history 第二节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 sing down forget kind prefer full of Music is everywhere in our life. There are many ____51____ of music in the world, such as pop, rock and classical music. I ____52____ music that I can sing along with. Such music usually has great lyrics and a wonderful beat. It can always cheer me up when I’m ____53____. When I feel tired after studying, I listen to songs that are ____54____ love and joy. My dream is to go to a live concert of my favorite ____55____ one day. Music makes our spare time colorful and helps us ____56____ worries. I think everyone can find joy in music. B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 English learning is a long-term process. It ____57____ (需要) patience and proper ways. Here are some tips on how to improve your English. First, take an ____58____ (积极) part in class. Try to answer the teacher’s questions bravely and take part in group discussions. This not only helps you understand the knowledge ____59____ (更好) but also develops your ability to speak English. Second, you should ____60____ (复习) what you have learned in time. It can help you remember the new words and grammar rules. You can make word cards by yourself and take ____61____ (笔记) in English. Stick to it every day. Third, it’s a good idea to ____62____ (连接) English with your daily life. This way, you can learn English in a natural way and develop a strong ____63____ (兴趣) in English. ____64____ (最后), don’t be afraid of making mistakes. You can learn from your mistakes and improve your English step by step. In short, by ____65____ (使用) these wise ways, you can make great progress in English learning. Keep practicing and never give up! 第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Last weekend, I went to the countryside with my family. We ____66____ (have) a great time there. We left home early in the morning. The weather was ____67____ (sun) and warm. On the way, we saw many beautiful flowers and green trees. The air in the countryside was much fresher ____68____ that in the city. When we arrived, we visited a farm. The ____69____ (farm) were very friendly and showed us around. ____70____ was really interesting to see so many cows, pigs, and chickens. They were running around everywhere, and some even got in ____71____ way of the visitors. In the afternoon, we went ____72____ (fish) by a small river. My father caught two big fish. I didn’t catch any, ____73____ I enjoyed the process. Before we left, we bought some fresh vegetables ____74____ the farmers. We got home late in the evening. We were all happy ____75____ (spend) a wonderful weekend. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 76. 假设你是李华，学校英语社团正在举办主题为“My Favorite School Activity”的征文比赛，请你根据以下要点提示写一篇英语短文参赛。 ·介绍你最喜欢的一项活动名称； ·描述活动的时间、地点和内容； ·说明你喜欢这项活动的原因 (至少2点)； 注意： 1．内容完整，语言流畅，书写规范，可适当发挥； 2．文中不得出现你的真实姓名、校名等信息； 3．词数80左右，开头已写好，不计入总词数。 My Favorite School Activity My school has many interesting activities. Among them, ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025学年第一学期九年级期末测试 英语试题 温馨提示： 1. 本试题卷包括四部分；全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等信息分别填写（填涂）在答题纸规定的位置上。 3. 答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力理解（共三节；满分20分） 第一节：听小对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节：听长对话，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. C 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. B 10. C 第三节：听独白，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节；满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【16~18题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. C B 【19~22题答案】 【答案】19. A 20. D 21. C 22. B C 【23~26题答案】 【答案】23. D 24. B 25. A 26. A D 【27~30题答案】 【答案】27. A 28. D 29. D 30. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. A 33. D 34. E 35. C 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 【36~50题答案】 【答案】36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B 第二节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 【51~56题答案】 【答案】51. kinds 52. prefer 53. down 54. full of 55. singer 56. forget##to forget B. 【57~65题答案】 【答案】57. requires##needs 58. active 59. better 60. review 61. notes 62. connect##link 63. interest 64. Finally 65. using 第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 【66~75题答案】 【答案】66. had 67. sunny 68. than 69. farmers 70. It 71. the 72. fishing 73. but 74. from 75. to spend 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 【76题答案】 【答案】 例文 My Favorite School Activity My school has many interesting activities. Among them, my favorite is the English Speech Contest. It is held in the school hall every May. Students prepare speeches on different topics and give them in English. We also listen to others’ speeches and learn from them. I like it for two reasons. First, it greatly improves my English speaking skills and builds my confidence. Second, it is very interesting to hear different ideas and stories from my classmates. The contest makes learning English more fun and meaningful for me. I really enjoy taking part in it. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这是2025学年第一学期九年级期末测试英语学科听力部分，请同学们做好答题。准备。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。Can I help you? Yes, please. I'm looking for a notebook for my english class. How about going for a picnic this weekend? But the radio says IT will rain very hard over the weekend. Water pty. Do you like science. tom? Yes, of course is so interesting. Is mr. Brown in the meeting room? No, he's just gone back to his office to get some papers. How do you usually go to school. mary? I'd usually ride my bike. It's good exercise. If IT rains, i'll take the school bus. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话读两遍。听下面一段较长对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hi, jane. Have you heard about the school art festival? Yes, I have its sound sunday afternoon, right? Yes, you're right. Are you going to perform anything? Of course, i've already prepared a piece of chinese folk music. Wow, I can't wait to hear IT. Hi, jane. Have you heard about the school art festival? Yes, I have its on sunday afternoon, right? Yes, you're right. Are you going to perform anything? Of course, i've already prepared a piece of chinese folk music. Wow, I can't wait . to hear IT. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hi, mike. Did you watch the movie space dream last night? Yes, I did. When did you start . at seven thirty? How much was the ticket? IT was thirty you on? But I don't think it's worth . the money. Oh, really, I heard IT was very exciting. I felt so sleepy that I left half an hour later. Hi, mike. Did you watch the movie space dream last night? Yes, I did. When did you start . at seven thirty? How much was the ticket? IT was thirty you on? But I don't think it's worth the money. Oh, really, I heard IT was very exciting. I felt so sleepy that I left half an hour later. 第二节到此结束，第三节听下面一段独白。独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听读白前你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，读白读两遍。现在你有25秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。Hello everyone, welcome to our school english club. Are you interested in improving your english in a fun way? Our club is the perfect place for you. We have activities twice a week every tuesday and thursday after school in room three o five. We do many interesting things together. We watch english movies, play word games and have free talks about different topics. You can make new friends here and practice your speaking without fear. We believe learning a language should be enjoyable. If you want to know more about our activity plan, please visit our school website and search for a english clock. We look forward to seeing you. Hello everyone, welcome to our school english club. Are you interested in improving your english in a fun way? Our club is the perfect place for you. We have activities twice a week every tuesday and thursday after school in room three o five. We do many interesting things together. We watch english movies, play word games and have free talks about different topics. You can make new friends here and practice. You're speaking without fear. We believe learning a language should be enjoyable. If you want to know more about our activity plan, please visit our school website and search for a english club. We look forward to seeing you. 第三节到此结束，请同学们将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。听力部分到此结束。