辽宁本溪市某校2025-2026学年高二下学期期末英语试卷

高二英语试卷 考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分 注意事项： 1．本试卷分四部分。答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级和考号填写清楚。 2．选择题答案请填涂在答题卡相应位置；非选择题请写在规定区域内。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音读两遍。 1. What is the woman trying to do? A. Borrow a book. B. Buy a car. C. Rent clothes. 2. Where probably are the speakers? A. In the street. B. In the police office. C. In the doctor’s office. 3. What are the speakers probably doing? A. Visiting a gallery. B. Running a race. C. Climbing a mountain. 4. How will the man help the woman? A. He will find her a secretary. B. He will let her work in his company. C. He will recommend her to his friend. 5. Why does the woman’s husband prefer to live in the city center? A. To experience the peace of nature. B. To enjoy the convenience of life. C. To avoid unnecessary expenses. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2至4个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7题。 6. What is the man going to do this summer? A. Work at a hotel B. Repair his house C. Teach a course 7. How will the man use the money? A. To hire a gardener. B. To pay for a boat trip. C. To buy books. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10题。 8. How did the woman know Jesse was in hospital? A. Jesse told her. B. The police called her. C. Dr. Andrews phoned her. 9. Who was to blame for the accident? A. The other driver. B. The woman’s son. C. The doctor. 10. What does the man want to do in a few hours? A. Read some texts. B. Get something to eat. C. Give the woman more information. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13题。 11. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. Outside a cinema. B. At home. C. In the cinema. 12. What is the film adapted from? A. A magazine. B. A book. C. A report. 13. What does the woman think of the director? A. He is good at directing a film. B. He is good at improving a story. C. He should have tried to follow the story. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16题。 14. What kind of party will the girl have? A. A pool party. B. An ice-skating party. C. A roller-skating party. 15. Who will the girl invite to her party? A. Melinda. B. Kelly. C. Mike. 16. What is the boy’s advice about? A. How much to spend. B. How to decorate a place. C. Where to rent winter animals. 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20题。 17. What can people do in the “Gravity Chair”? A. Experience spacewalk. B. Sleep in a special bed. C. See a rocket take off. 18. What is the rule of the programmes? A. Visitors must build a rocket. B. Children under nine can’t take part. C. People have to eat freeze-dried food. 19. What is the ticket price for kids? A. $325. B. $575. C. $875. 20. What is the talk mainly about? A. Camp activities. B. Astronauts’ life. C. Space travel. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A From hawk hikes to private sleepovers at the zoo, there is a great selection of animal-related experiences available to groups. Here are some top options to get closer to various wonderful wildlife. Chester Zoo The newest attractions here are the Madagascar Lemur Walkthrough experience, which gives visitors the opportunity to walk alongside ring-tailed and red-ruffed lemurs, and the interactive American Wetland Aviary, which is home to birds like scarlet ibises and flamingos. Group rates are available for parties of 15 or more and there are various catering options, including sit-down meals at the restaurant at the heart of the zoo. ZSL Whipsnade Zoo It offers groups of up to 60 the opportunity to experience a private Nature Night, on which they’ll get to explore the zoo privately after the public has left, take part in activities like quizzes, camp overnight, and get up early for a private tour along the green trail before it reopens to the public again. West Midland Safari Park The latest attraction at the park is the new African Walking Trail. Opened in May, the trail features three viewpoints that allow visitors to see the park’s African animals on foot. There’s also a four-mile drive-through safari area with red panda, penguin and lorikeet areas. Groups of ten plus, arriving in the same vehicle, can save more than 40%. Knowsley Safari Park The five-mile safari drive through the site takes you past free-roaming lions, rhinos and more than 100 cheeky baboons. There’s a foot safari area, where the highlight is the Amur Tiger Trail with transparent walled viewing areas where you can get nose-to-nose with 450-pound tigers. Groups of 15 people and more, arriving in one vehicle, qualify for special ticket rates. 21. Who is the passage intended for? A. Animal-loving students. B. Forest hiking fans. C. Group tour organizers. D. Wildlife preservationists. 22. Visitors can experience private tours in _______. A. Chester Zoo B. ZSL Whipsnade Zoo C. West Midland Safari Park D. Knowsley Safari Park 23. What do the four parks have in common? A. Delicious meals for all visitors. B. Discounted tickets for groups. C. Drive-through safari zones. D. Walking trails for visitors. B William Butler Yeats was born into a wealthy artistic Irish Dublin family in 1865. His father’s artist career moved the family to London for four years in Yeats’s childhood. His mother came from Sligo. She introduced Irish folktales to him, which deeply influenced his early poems. Yeats studied in Dublin art school, yet soon left to concentrate on poetry. It was apparent that his medium was not the brush but the pen. He began writing poetry at 17, with two works published in The Dublin University Review in 1885. Yeats grew up across London, Sligo and Dublin, shaping his poetic development greatly. Devoted to Ireland, he settled in rural areas to integrate himself with the problems of his own land and express untold local life. Sligo provided him with something much more earthly — a knowledge of the life of the peasantry and of their folklore (民俗). Heavily influenced by the works of Shelley, he wrote in a conventional fashion about what every seventeen-year-old boy worries about. But as he matured as a poet, he turned to the writings on the Irish folkloric subjects that he would become the most famous for. He explored history and community through a complex blend (融合) of landscape and fantasy that inspired the next generation of Modernist poets. He learned to see his poetry as a contribution to a rejuvenated Irish culture. With the cooperation of a few others, Yeats helped to establish not only the Gaelic League but also the Irish Literary Theater. He also re-created folklore and perfected a poetry of music. Yeats was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1923, and is still one of Ireland’s best-selling and most recognized poetic figures today. 24. What can be inferred about Yeats from the first paragraph? A. He was left out of the art school. B. He showed an interest in poetry. C. He majored in literature at college. D. He was homeschooled by his mother. 25. Why did Yeats return to the Irish countryside? A. To get closer to nature. B. To gather writing materials. C. To experience peasants’ life. D. To recall the days of his youth. 26. Yeats became best-known as a poet for the writing of ________. A. his worries as a teenager B. Shelley’s influence on him C. the Irish folklore subjects D. his desire for a fantasy world 27. What is the text mainly about? A. A brief introduction to Irish literature. B. The features of Irish folklore. C. The rejuvenation of Irish poetry. D. An established Irish poet. C Humans’ overconsumption of resources is a leading contributor to global climate change, says researcher Sabrina Helm. Thus it matters more to learn how consumer choices affect a resource-limited planet’s health. In a new study, published in the journal Young Consumers, Helm and her colleagues explore how materialistic values influence pro-environmental behaviors in millennials, the nation’s largest consumer group. The researchers focused on two main categories of pro-environmental behaviors: cutting consumption (fixing goods instead of replacing them) and green buying (purchasing low-impact products). They also looked at how engaging in pro-environmental behaviors affects consumer well-being. Participants with strong materialistic values, the researchers found, rarely cut their consumption. Yet materialism barely affects their likelihood of practicing “green buying”. Helm explains that unlike reduced consumption, green shopping still lets materialists satisfy their wish for new items. Study participants who reported having fewer materialistic values were much more likely to engage in reduced consumption. Consuming less was, in turn, linked to higher personal well-being and lower psychological suffering. Green buying — which may have some positive environmental effects, although to a smaller degree than reduced consumption — was not found to improve consumer well-being, Helm said. Helm’s team also explored materialism’s influence on millennials’ positive financial habits like budgeting and saving. Comparing financial and environmental choices paints a full picture of how young adults respond to resource shortages in daily life. As predicted, people with stronger materialistic values carry out fewer active financial plans than those less focused on possessions. Understanding how materialistic values impact consumer behaviors, and how those behaviors in turn affect personal and environmental well-being, is important, Helm said. However, she acknowledges that for many consumers, shifting behaviors to be more financially active and consume less will be challenging. 28. What do we know about pro-environmental behaviors? A. They are affected by materialism. B. They lead to a more satisfying life. C. They vary in different age groups. D. They are a cause of climate change. 29. It can be learned from Helm’s study that. A. ownership of green products brings a sense of happiness B. materialists prefer practicing green buying to buying less C. green buying helps control people’s desire to buy new items D. buying less and green buying have similar effects on people 30. According to the study, which of the following can improve one’s well-being? A. Replacing older items. B. Developing new resources. C. Buying greener products. D. Being careful with expenses. 31. What is Helm’s attitude to practicing low consumption and active budgeting? A. Reserved B. Realistic C. Hopeful D. Biased D Chinese scientists have created the world’s first AI-powered transmission electron microscope system named “Aeye-1”. Jointly developed by two CAS institutes, it marks a historic shift from manual control to fully autonomous AI research. On May 24, the technology officially passed a thorough scientific and technological achievement evaluation conducted by the China Petroleum and Chemical Industry Federation in Beijing. Advanced electron microscopes are crucial to national self-reliance and technological security. As scientific exploration reaches into the ultra-microscopic realm, the transmission electron microscope has become an indispensable tool for studying advanced materials, clean energy, and life sciences. However, a century has passed since the invention of the transmission electron microscope, and TEM technology has relied heavily on manual operations. This reliance has long created low efficiency, high subjectivity, and difficulties in generating accurate, large-scale quantitative (定量的) data. To resolve the critical “choke points”, the CAS research team spent years focusing on the integrated development of both software and hardware of the TEM system, and carried out repeated debugging (调试) to stabilize its running performance. By overcoming five core technical hurdles, including intelligent sample transfer under high vacuum, nanoscale (纳米级) positioning and automatic image analysis, the team successfully built the “Aeye-1”, which acts as a “smart eye” for the microscopic world, achieving completely unmanned, intelligent operations across the entire workflow of sample supply, imaging and data analysis. “The system enables fully unmanned, AI operation across the entire workflow. On average, ”Aeye-1“ can analyze 168 samples and acquire more than 4,000 images daily. This automated workflow allows it to process data at a speed more than 300 times faster than manual processing. ” said Deng Dehui, lead professor at DICP. Remarkably, the volume of data obtained from just two weeks of operating “Aeye-1” is equivalent to an entire year’s workload for a conventional TEM machines. Furthermore, the system automatically generates comprehensive, professional analytical reports detailing microstructural statistics. The system is expected to accelerate breakthroughs in fields like materials genomics — a cutting-edge method that uses massive data libraries to fast-track the discovery of new materials — as well as green energy development and the life sciences. 32. What can we learn about traditional TEM equipment? A. It has been abandoned by most material science researchers for its poor performance. B. Its observation data lacks objectivity and is hard to gather on a large scale accurately. C. It can only be applied to new materials, clean energy and life science. D. It has achieved fully automatic operation after one century of technical upgrading. 33. The underlined words the critical “choke-points” most probably stand for __________. A. The manual operations B. The technical bottlenecks C. The strict standards D. The low efficiency 34. What can be reasonably inferred about Aeye-1 from the passage? A. It was developed to study microscope of traditional chemical materials. B. Its automatic analytical reports will remove the need for manual data analyzing. C. It will serve to accelerate innovation across diverse high-tech disciplines. D. It has made China a global leader in scientific instrument production. 35. What is the best title for the passage? A. Breakthrough in improving efficiency in chemical industry research B. How AI helps speed up the development of clean energy C. AI-driven microscope boosts materials science D. The long history of transmission electron microscopes 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 There’s a Symphony Just Below the Surface — Can You Hear It? Imagine it’s your birthday, and your friends and family pool their money to get you the best gift you can imagine: tickets for fabulous seats to see your favorite musical act. But what if you got to the venue and something terrible had just happened to you? 36 . Even while facing the prospect of extreme difficulty in your life, you are so thrilled to see your favorite group that for a couple of hours, you can put all of that behind you. 37 . That is the ability to suspend our fears and worries and focus on what we love. In the example of the concert, we know that when the music ends, we may go back to our concerns, but while it’s playing, there is nothing we can do about them, so we might as well just give in. Life always has its music, and we don’t need to be front-row center at a concert to hear it. Throughout our lives, no matter what else is going on, a melody is present. But we are often so focused on the present moment that we fail to hear the melody. 38 . We can become magnificent listeners to life, with enough practice. And let’s face it, this is something we were born to do, so the skill is there, waiting for us to employ it. We can tap into the music, and when we do find ourselves distracted from it, we can use consciousness to bring us right back. It is as simple as saying, “OK, I’m distracted again; I am going to start listening again.” 39 . Life is always playing music, but we have to listen, and we listen by being present. We can do this. 40 . When we do this, we’ll discover that the symphony inside of us is magnificent. A. As humans, we have been given a wonderful gift B. You’d broken your knees, say, or you learned of a failure of exam C. These feelings may last several minutes or even last several hours D. We just need to realize and engage with the music of life that is always playing E. In a word, wisdom and patience are the things that listening to the music of life requires F. The noise of our worry drowns out all the other things we might otherwise hear and enjoy G. Soon, we will find that we have to redirect ourselves less and we hear the music far more 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Not many fruit trees thrive in Maine. It was eating sweet plums in my childhood that 41 me to plant a Mount Royal plum tree in my backyard. To my delight, it grew well, yet I waited six years for its 42 blossom. I tried all ways to protect the tiny white flowers, but they soon 43 , with no fruit at all. Year seven came. By spring, the tree bore flower buds that bloomed. Overjoyed, I dragged my son out to bear 44 to it. I loved and 45 my tree, pruning (修剪), fertilizing and even speaking to it 46 , dreaming of sweet plums. There was only one 47 problem: 20% of the fruit fell 48 to pests. I still got a big harvest, though many plums didn’t quite 49 it from tree to basket as I picked greedily. I live by the Penobscot River. I never knew 50 eyes from the river watched my tree. And so, 51 one warm morning after harvest, the scene in my backyard struck me: My plum tree was lying on its side, cut down by a beaver that had left long before. The only thing left was to 52 the evidence of its victory. I pulled the plum tree to the woodpile and put it up to 53 for future use in the woodstove. I told a friend I dared not replant for the long wait: “I’ll be seven years older by the time it 54 .” He asked how old I’d turn seven years later without planting. His words pushed me to plant another tree and build a stone river wall. I finally understood the truth: 55 springs again. 41. A. challenged B. inspired C. forced D. permit 42. A. delicate B. faded C. artificial D. permanent 43. A. fell apart B. moved on C. burst out D. turned away 44. A. devotion B. witness C. approach D. testimony 45. A. attended B. guarded C. tended D. cultivated 46. A. briefly B. precisely C. deliberately D. fondly 47. A. minor B. temporary C. potential D. common 48. A. solution B. access C. victim D. prey 49. A. get B. make C. take D. leave 50. A. envious B. burning C. critical D. curious 51. A. spotting B. expanding C. arising D. lasting 52. A. figure out B. give away C. cover up D. break down 53. A. heat B. dry C. process D. reserve 54. A. grows B. fruits C. shadows D. emerges 55. A. courage B. ride C. faith D. hope 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 A low-budget, Chaoshan (Teochew)-dialect film featuring 56 almost entirely first-time cast, Dear You, has continued its remarkable word-of-mouth rise in China and grossed over 580 million yuan until May 19th, according to Maoyan, a 57 (wide) recognized film data platform. Reportedly produced on a budget of just over 10 million yuan, the film 58 (emerge) as one of China’s biggest cinematic surprises of 2026, touching countless viewers 59 its sincere depiction of overseas Chinese’s homesickness. On China’s review platform Douban, the tear-jerker drama currently holds a score of 9.1 out of 10, making it one of the highest-rated Chinese films in recent years and among the best-reviewed domestic 60 (release) of the past decade. In the film, Zheng Musheng leaves the Chaoshan region of Guangdong during wartime and later works in Thailand, hoping to eventually return home, while his wife, Ye Shurou, 61 (remain) in Guangdong raising their children. After Zheng dies overseas, Xie Nanzhi, a woman of Chaoshan origin living in Thailand who becomes close friends with him, chooses not to inform Ye immediately, instead 62 (continue) to send letters and money in his name. Over nearly two decades, the two women, 63 they are strangers separated by the sea, have become quietly connected through 64 (correspond) and tender care. The story draws on the real history of qiaopi, the letters and funds sent home by earlier generations of overseas Chinese struggling 65 (survive) abroad. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华。你所在的英语社团准备在校园开放日增设一个英文互动活动，外教Chris征求你的意见：Student Science Talks或Culture Story Corner，请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括： 1．你的选择； 2．说明理由； 3．提出活动建议。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Chris, I’m glad to share my idea about the new activity for Open Day. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分 25 分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 As the autumn vacation came, my grandma came to the city to stay with my family for a while. Coming from the quiet countryside, she brought with her a large sack of sweet potatoes that she had grown and harvested by herself. She told me happily that she had taken good care of these potatoes all through spring and summer, watering them regularly and removing weeds patiently, just hoping that I could taste the sweet and natural flavor of rural food. However, as a teenager living in the city, I was quite used to fancy snacks and delicate desserts. Those rough, earthy sweet potatoes looked plain and unattractive to me. What bothered me more was that the big sack occupied almost the whole corner of our narrow balcony, making the small space even more crowded. Feeling annoyed and disgusted by their soil smell, I secretly thought these potatoes were useless and troublesome. One afternoon, when Grandma was taking a sound nap on the sofa, I made a selfish decision. I quietly carried out half of the sweet potatoes and threw them into the community trash bin downstairs, believing that I could get rid of the annoying burden easily. Shortly after I returned home, Grandma woke up and planned to steam some sweet potatoes for my afternoon snack. When she found the potatoes missing in large numbers, she froze in place immediately. Staring at the half-empty sack, she sat down slowly, her shoulders shaking slightly. I saw silent tears sliding down her wrinkled cheeks. Paragraph 1: At the sight of her helpless sadness, intense guilt flooded my mind. Paragraph 2: Her gentle words struck me deeply, making me resolve to change. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 高二英语参考答案及解析 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 1-5 CACCB 6-10 ACBAC 11-15 ABCBA 16-20 BABBA 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 21-23 CBD 24-27 BBCD 28-31 ABDB 32-35 BBCC 36-40 BAFGD 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 41-45 BAABC 46-50 DACBA 51-55 CCBBD 第二节 56. an 57. widely 58. has emerged 59. with 60. releases 61. remains 62. continuing 63. though / although / while 64. correspondence 65. to survive 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 【参考范文一】 Dear Chris, I’m glad to share my idea about the new activity for Open Day. I’d prefer Culture Story Corner. It can show wonderful traditional Chinese culture to guests and give us a great chance to practise oral English. Furthermore, heartwarming cultural stories will attract more visitors and enable cross-cultural communication. To make it more engaging, we can design interactive story-sharing games where visitors exchange thoughts about folk tales. A wall displaying handwritten English versions of classic legends will also deepen people’s understanding of our traditional culture. I’m convinced this activity will be well-received on Open Day. Yours, Li Hua 【参考范文二】 Dear Chris, I’m glad to share my idea about the new activity for Open Day. I would rather pick Student Science Talks as the newly-added program for our school Open Day. Exposing students to popular scientific knowledge in English greatly inspires their curiosity about nature and improves their public speaking skills. Meanwhile, simple popular-science speeches fit perfectly with the open-day theme, which draws wide attention from both students and visiting parents. We are supposed to arrange brief English speeches with easy science topics. Adding lively question-and-answer links will surely make our open-day English interactions more attractive and impressive. I am convinced that this fresh addition will make our school Open Day far more colourful and unforgettable. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 【参考范文】 Paragraph 1 At the sight of her helpless sadness, intense guilt flooded my mind. I hung my head and admitted dumping half the sweet potatoes, merely disgusted by their earthy scent. She let out a long soft sigh and laid her weathered hands on my arms, eyes dim with quiet disappointment. “I raised them with great pains back in the countryside. Such fresh sweet potatoes can never be bought in city shops,” she whispered. “Every bite carries my sincere longing to bring you a genuine taste of the hometown,” she added in a low voice. Paragraph 2 Her gentle words struck me deeply, making me resolve to change. I hurried out at once, only to find the bin had already been emptied. Back home, I offered to sort, wash and steam the sweet potatoes alongside Grandma. When I bit into the warm potato, its mild sweetness slowly filled my mouth and my heart. Then sitting beside her, I quietly listened to her stories growing crops in the village. I came to see that genuine affection never lies in fancy treats; it hides within plain sweet potatoes, silently wrapping every ordinary day with soft, everlasting warmth. 听力录音文稿 Text 1 W: I’m looking for a place to rent a suit. My husband and I have some weddings to attend in the area, so I’m looking to rent for one or two months. M: There’s a shop beside the car rental agency. There’s also one opposite the book shop. Text 2 W: Somebody help! That man took my bag and is running away! Can anyone run after him? M: Are you hurt, Madam? Do not worry. I’ll catch him. Text 3 M: Wonderful view from up here, isn’t it? W: Great. But I’m worn out. We’re at the top, aren’t we? M: Just about three hundred metres to go. Text 4 W: I’m tired of selling shoes. M: My friend Tom is the manager of a large company. He wants a secretary. W: It sounds good. Will you please introduce me to Tom? M: It’s a pleasure. Text 5 M: Have you decided where to live in the future? W: I’d like to live in the countryside to save on expenses and also escape the chaos and crowds of the city, but my husband wants a flat in the city center so that we won’t have to travel a long way to get what is needed. Text 6 M: Guess what I’ll be doing this summer? W: What? M: I’m going to work at the Riverside Hotel. W: What exactly will you be doing? M: Let’s see. I’ll be doing some small repairs inside and outside the hotel. I’ll be cutting grass and taking care of the flowers. W: Sounds interesting. What’s the pay? M: Well, uh…about fifteen dollars an hour, five hours a day, and Sunday free. W: That’s good money. What are you going to do with it? M: I’ll pay for the textbooks for next term. Text 7 M: Mrs. Robinson, I’m Dr. Andrews. Your son, Jesse, is going to be all right. W: Oh, thank goodness! What happened to him? I just got a call from the police department to come down here. M: We’re not quite sure. We think the accident was the other driver’s fault. And that caused Jesse’s car to crash into a tree. The damage to Jesse’s car would suggest that. W: Can I go in and see him? M: I’m afraid not right now, Mrs. Robinson. We need to do some tests. I’ll give you an update in a few hours, OK? W: All right. But what are we supposed to do now? M: I’d advise you to get something to eat and be back in three hours, and by that time, I should have more information for you. W: Thank you so much, Dr. Andrews! Text 8 W: Oh, it’s so nice to be out of the cinema. It was so hot inside. M: Terrible, wasn’t it? Well, what do you think of the film Wuthering Heights? W: It is a good film, but not as good as the book. I feel something is missing in the film. M: Yes, but you can’t possibly fit everything that happens in the novel into a 2-hour film. There isn’t enough time. W: I know, but the director should at least try to follow the story. With this film he left out some important people and even changed the end. M: Well, perhaps he thought he was improving the story. W: Perhaps he did, but I just don’t think a film director has the right to do so. Text 9 W: What do you think I should do for my birthday this year? M: You should have a really big party! Maybe a pool party! W: That would be fun. I don’t really like swimming, though. Maybe I’ll have a roller-skating party. M: What about an ice-skating party? W: Yeah, that’s even better! I’ll definitely invite Katie and Sammy. M: What about Melinda? W: Yes, Melinda, too. Do you think I should invite Kelly? M: No, because she didn’t invite you to her party last month. Am I allowed to invite anyone? W: You can invite one friend, but that’s it. M: Fine. I’ll invite Mike. You should have a winter-themed party. If Mom and Dad say it’s okay to rent out the entire place, we can decorate it with balloons. I know your favorite cake is cheesecake, but you should get an ice-cream cake instead. W: Those are all great ideas. Maybe I can even get a snow machine! M: You can call the party “Patty’s Wonderland”. Maybe Mom will let us rent some winter animals, like deer and penguins! W: Okay, don’t get ahead of yourself. I don’t think that would be possible. M: Yeah, I guess you’re right. Text 10 M: Space Camp, Florida, which is right next to NASA’s famous Kennedy Space Center, is a place where people can go to learn about space travel. Many activities are offered, which provide visitors with the excitement of being in space. One of the many attractions is the “Gravity Chair”, which lets you see exactly how difficult walking in space really is! There is also a project which gives you the opportunity to build your own rocket. Then you can see the rocket take off, stop a few moments in the air, go down and land in less than two minutes! Camp programmes are designed for children and adults who want to experience an astronaut’s life. The “Space Habitat” is a place where you can eat freeze-dried food and sleep in a special bed, just like a real astronaut! Regrettably though, children who are under nine years old are not allowed to take part in these programmes which last five days. The cost for adults is 300 cheaper. There is a family ticket price of $1, 500. It is a little expensive, but it is really worth it. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $