山东济南市市中区2025-2026学年九年级上学期期末英语试题

2026年九年级期末学情调研 英语试题 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. I felt lucky to be alive. B. I’m trying to keep my cool. C. I think they’re fun to watch. 2. A. What do you remember? B. Who was it invented by? C. What did you see that night? 3. A. Never talk to strangers! B. Don’t use paper napkins. C. Don’t be hard on yourself. 4. A. What a cool story! B. How time flies! C. What a great jacket? 5. A. Did you oversleep? B. Can medicine help the king? C. Do you remember Mr. Hunt? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What does Wang Lei do for exercise every day? A. Running. B. Swimming. C. Walking. 7. How does Peter most likely feel now? A. Excited. B. Disappointed. C. Surprised. 8. What kind of music helps Linda relax? A. Pop. B. Rock. C. Folk. 9. What does the man mean? A. The woman should keep quiet. B. The woman can talk to her friend first. C. The woman shouldn’t fight with her friend. 10. What is Tina’s learning method like? A. Creative. B. Difficult. C. Boring. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. How will Jiayi and Tianyu get to Daming Lake from Quancheng Square? A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By taxi. 12. What is the show at Shandong Museum about? A. Modern art. B. Jinan history. C. Ancient inventions. 13. What food will they try for lunch? A. Ba Zi Rou. B. Hot pot. C. Dumplings. 14. Why does Tianyu worry about the afternoon trip? A. It may snow. B. It may be crowded. C. It may be closed. 15 What does Jiayi advise Tianyu to do with James? A. Walk a lot. B. Speak English slowly. C. Just be himself. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. What makes the new card look different from the normal one? A. It is a little thicker. B. It has a color screen. C. It is big and heavy. 17. Where is the smart student ID card made? A. In Jinan. B. In Shanghai. C. In Beijing. 18. How can the card help you find a lost water bottle? A. It calls the teacher. B. It makes the paper ring. C. It shows a map on the phone. 19. How many main uses of the card are mentioned? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 20. What does the head teacher think about the smart card? A. It’s too expensive. B. It’s just a toy. C. It makes life better. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Tired of dry lips in winter? Come to make your own honey lip balm (唇膏)! Dry, uncomfortable lips are common in cold weather. Our free community class this Sunday will teach you how to make a natural, safe honey lip balm—a great gift to share with family. Class information: Time: 2:00 p.m. —4:30 p.m., Sunday, February 1st Place: Green Park Community Hall Please note: All materials (wax蜡, honey蜂蜜, vegetable oil植物油) and tools will be provided. There are only 30 spots (位置) available. To book your spot, please call Anna at 678-912-XXXX by 6:00 p.m. on Saturday. Please have your community room number ready. For those who want to try at home, here are the steps: ★Heat the wax and vegetable oil in a small pot over low heat until they turn to liquid (液体). ★Add two spoonfuls of honey and mix everything until smooth. ★Pour the warm mixture into clean small tubes (管状容器). ★Let them cool for 30 minutes. Your lip balm is ready to use! Join us to make your own natural lip balm— fight winter dryness and take home a sweet, useful gift! 1. When can people call Anna to join the class? A. At 5:00 p.m. on Saturday. B. At 6:30 p.m. on Saturday. C. At 2:00 p.m. on Sunday. D. At 4:30 p.m. on Sunday. 2. What do we know about the community lip balm class? A. The class lasts for 30 minutes. B. Over 30 people can join the class. C. It is only for community members. D. People need to pay if they want to join. 3. What does the text tell us about the homemade lip balm? A. It’s made just for the family to use. B. It has a better taste than store-bought ones. C. It takes less than 30 minutes to make it at home. D. It works well on the problem of dry winter lips. 4. Which is the correct order of making honey lip balm? A. ①②③④ B. ①④②③ C. ①③②④ D. ③①②④ 5. What’s the writer’s main purpose of writing this text? A. To explain the reasons for dry lips in winter. B. To encourage people to join the community class. C. To introduce the history of honey lip balm making. D. To compare homemade lip balm with store-bought ones. B One day, a traveler from India, a faraway country, arrived in China. He brought a very large gift for the emperor. The gift was inside a huge wooden box. With the help of many workers, the box was moved from the ship to land. Everyone wondered what was inside, but the traveler only smiled and said it was a surprise. At the palace, the box was opened. Out came a very big gray animal— an elephant. No one in China had ever seen one before. “My master sends this elephant to you,” said the traveler. “He hopes that you and he can become good friends.” The emperor thanked the man for the amazing gift. He asked his wisest ministers to study the elephant and find out how heavy it was. The ministers thought about many ways, but none seemed possible. Then, the emperor’s young son had an idea. “First, put the elephant on a big boat in the water and mark how low the boat goes,” he said. “Next, take the elephant off and fill the boat with stones until it sinks (下沉) to the same mark. Finally, weigh the stones. That will be the weight of the elephant!” The boy’s mother said proudly, “How clever you are, my boy!” The ministers followed the boy’s idea and found out the elephant’s weight. It was heavier than four tons. They agreed that it was a very valuable animal. But what was truly most valuable was not the elephant—it was the clever thinking of the young boy. His smart idea helped everyone solve a difficult problem and taught them that wisdom is a great treasure. 6. What is the correct order of the main events in the story? ① The elephant was shown at the palace. ② The traveler arrived in China with a large box. ③ The boy explained his idea and they found the weight. ④ The emperor asked his ministers to weigh the elephant. A. ①→②→③→④ B. ②→①→④→③ C. ③→②→①→④ D. ①→③→④→② 7. What else could be put in the boat instead of stones? A. Water. B. Another elephant. C. A bigger box. D. Sand or rice. 8. What scientific rule did the boy follow? A. It is unsafe to put large animals on a boat. B. A boat will sink deeper if it carries more weight. C. Elephants are much heavier than common stones. D. A boat is strong enough to carry a heavy elephant. 9. What does the “elephant” in the story stand for in real life? A. A useful tool that helps us carry heavy objects. B. A large and heavy animal that is hard to move. C. A big problem that is difficult to solve directly. D. A valuable gift that comes from a faraway place. 10. Which saying can best show the idea of the story? A. Think outside the box. B. Many hands make light work. C. Practice makes perfect. D. Actions speak louder than words. C Hello, everyone! Here comes this month’s Campus Brain Game. We’re going to talk about what you would like to invent. Let your imagination run wild and post your thoughts below. —Andrew, Student Union President Students have a lot of homework. They often go to bed late and wake up early for school. I’d like to invent a machine to help you get ready in the morning without waking you up. It would carefully pick you up, take you to the bathroom, brush your teeth, get you dressed and set you down at the dining room table. Then, it would gently wake you for breakfast. You’d be ready for school on time while still getting a good night’s sleep! —Cindy, from Grade 8 I’d invent a time machine that could take us to any day in history. We would finally be able to answer questions like “What killed all the dinosaurs?” Just think how different life would be if every question about history could be answered. And we could visit the past or the future to see how humanity has changed. Imagine visiting your ancestors. Imagine going to the future to tell people about life in the past! Just think about all that fun! —Richard, from Grade 8 A flying car! You could go anywhere you wanted. It could prevent traffic jams during rush hour. We wouldn’t have to build as many highways. There would be more space to plant trees. The air would be cleaner. My flying car would be powered by solar energy (太阳能). We could save all living things on Earth. —Fred, from Grade 7 I’d invent a “Mood Mirror” for every classroom. Instead of your face it shows colors: blue for lonely, orange for worried, red for upset. If you walk past and see the color, you can give them a smile, say “hi,” or ask them to play. The mirror never tells names, so no one feels shy or singled out. With Mood Mirrors, we could take care of one another and make our school the kindest place ever! —Sophie, from Grade 9 11. How often is Campus Brain Game held? A. Once a day. B. Twice a week. C. Once a month. D. Twice a term. 12. What would Richard’s invention allow people to do? A. To fly a solar-powered plane. B. To talk to people living in the future. C. To bring the dinosaurs back to life. D. To find answers to any question easily. 13. Which invention helps with people’s feelings? A. The Morning Robot. B. The Time Machine. C. The Flying Car. D. The Mood Mirror. 14. What do the four students have in common? A. They all care about homework and sleep. B. They all focus on protecting the environment. C. They are all used to building robots in class. D. They all solve daily problems in a new way. 15. What is the text probably from? A. A school website. B. A science magazine. C. An invitation letter. D. A school newspaper. D In the digital (数字) age, teenagers spend more time than ever on electronic devices (设备)— phones, pads and computers. But have you ever wondered how screen time influences reading speed? A recent study explored this question. Researchers divided a total of 300 middle school students into four groups based on their average (平均的) daily screen time: Group 1 (less than 1 hour), Group 2 (1-2 hours), Group 3 (2-3 hours) and Group 4 (more than 3 hours). Students from different grades and schools were chosen to make the results more scientific. All students were given the same 500-word passages to read, and their reading speed (tested in words per minute, WPM) was recorded. During the test, students were not allowed to use any electronic tools, ask for help, or discuss with their classmates. They were also required to finish reading the passage within 10 minutes. The study showed a clear link between screen time and reading speed. Group 1 had an average reading speed of 180 WPM, while Group 2 reached 155 WPM. Group 3 dropped to 120 WPM, and Group 4 was the slowest at only 90 WPM. Experts explained that long screen time makes people get used to short, fast-paced (快节奏的) information like short videos, which weakens their ability to pay attention to longer, more difficult texts for long periods. This not only slows reading speed but also harms the ability to understand the text’s deeper meaning. However, the study also pointed out that not all screen time is bad for reading skills. Spending 30 to 60 minutes a day reading e-books can actually improve vocabulary and reading fluency (流畅性). The key is to balance screen time with offline reading activities. Teachers and parents are advised to guide students to make reasonable plans for screen time instead of just stopping the use of electronic devices. 16. Why did the researchers choose students from different grades and schools? A. To get more support for the study. B. To make the result believable and fair. C. To let more people be interested in the study. D. To compare students who read at different levels. 17. Which of the following can show the relationship between WPM and daily screen time? A. B. C. D. 18. Why does long screen time slow down reading speed? A. It makes people get used to short and fast information. B. It makes people avoid reading long and difficult texts. C. It takes up much time in understanding the video deeply. D. It makes people lose their interest in watching short videos. 19. How does the writer organize the text? A. By telling a story and explaining a rule. B. By introducing a tool and describing its use. C. By asking a question and presenting a study. D. By comparing two objects and showing the result. 20. What might the writer talk about next? A. Types of electronic devices for students. B. Ways to balance online and offline reading. C. Differences between e-books and paper books. D. Examples of proper screen and reading time plans. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 A Chinese stick-and-ball game, also called “Buda Ball”, was popular 1,300 years ago. Players use a curved (弧形的) stick to pass a ball and shoot at a short goal, so it is similar to modern-day floorball. In 2024, Chengdu added Buda Ball to its list of intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产名录). This gave the ancient sport new hope and a brighter future. ____21____ Buda Ball showed up at the World Games held in Chengdu. Performers wore colorful Tang-style costumes and showed how to play Buda Ball. ____22____ From August 7th to August 17th, the Buda Ball corner never emptied. Visitors from many countries said, “This is so cool! We’ve never seen a game like this!” Wang Zhenfang, one of the youngest official inheritors (传承人) of Buda Ball, watched with pride. “____23____ We hope to share the sport with more people around the world,” she said. ____24____ At that time, few people knew Buda Ball. She felt sad and didn’t want this traditional game to die out. So she built a free training base (基地) near a Chengdu middle school to let more people discover the sport. Today about fifty teachers and students train there every weekend. They post short videos online, and the clips (短视频) have already picked up thousands of likes. “The World Games stage is just the beginning,” Wang said with a smile. ____25____ A. The show at the Games is meaningful. B. Wang began to pass the sport on years ago. C. The big moment arrived on August 6th, 2025. D. The stick for Buda is made of wood or bamboo. E. She believes Buda Ball will belong to everyone one day. F. People in her hometown are good at playing Buda Ball. G. Their quick, smooth movements had the crowd cheering. 第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Mike: Hi Li Wei! I just saw your lamp at the “Old Things, New Use” show. ____26____ Li Wei: Thank you! I’m happy you like it. Mike: ____27____ Li Wei: Mainly some old plastic bottles and a small light. The hardest part was fixing the bottles together well. Mike: I see! ____28____ Li Wei: Yeah, it was not easy at first. But my science teacher helped me, and then it became easier. Mike: That’s great you kept trying. ____29____ Li Wei: I was really proud! The best part is turning waste into something useful. Now I think we should reuse things more often. Mike: That’s a really good point. Li Wei: Sure! ____30____ Mike: Good idea! I’m really excited to join you! 26. A. It lasted for one day! B. It looks really amazing! C. It was shown online! D. It must be your favorite! 27. A. What is it made of? B. How long did it take? C. Who made it for you? D. How did you make it? 28. A. Is it safe to touch? B. Was it your own idea? C. That sounds difficult. D. Don’t be hard on yourself. 29. A. Why do you make a lamp? B. How many bottles do you use? C. Where did you get the bottles? D. How did you feel when finishing it? 30. A. Sharing is meaningful. B. It is easier to buy a new one. C. Why not use a zipper? D. Let’s try together next time! 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When I was 14, my family moved to a new town for my father’s job. On my first day at the new school, I stood outside the classroom, hands shaking, feeling ____31____. Then I sat alone at the back, too sad to say a word to ____32____. At lunch, I ate alone in the corner, picking at my food ____33____ joy. I didn’t feel happy at all. Loneliness weighed me down and I started to doubt ____34____ I could fit in. One afternoon, my biology teacher announced a group project: grow one plant, water it regularly (定期地) and ____35____ its changes for three months. I found one small sunflower seed (种子) left. I picked it because it felt like me: ____36____ and easily forgotten. I placed it in a clay pot by the window for sunlight. Every evening I watered it ____37____. But for weeks, the soil (土壤) stayed dry. My ____38____ felt heavier day by day. I moved the pot to the corner—even ____39____ writing in my notebook, afraid of “no change” lines. Then one ____40____ Saturday, I found a tiny green shoot (嫩芽). Thin but strong against the rain, it reached bravely toward the gray sky as if running after hope. The heavy rain had helped it break through the soil, and was now helping it grow ____41____. Weeks passed, the shoot grew tall and reached toward the window. Even when I moved the pot, it slowly ____42____ back to the sunlight. I put the pot beside the window every morning ____43____ it could get more sunshine. Months later, its flower opened. Small and soft, it was ____44____ but shining. I realized that the seed was left out but never stopped trying. I got to know that ____45____ is the secret to growth. 31. A. excited B. proud C. glad D. nervous 32. A. someone B. anyone C. everyone D. no one 33. A. without B. except C. against D. until 34. A. where B. who C. whether D. how 35. A. record B. imagine C. compare D. control 36. A. outgoing B. common C. creative D. strange 37. A. hardly B. easily C. politely D. carefully 38. A. pain B. choice C. heart D. task 39. A. stopped B. began C. enjoyed D. finished 40. A. sunny B. snowy C. windy D. rainy 41. A. worse B. stronger C. deeper D. smaller 42. A. turned B. brought C. pushed D. climbed 43. A. as soon as B. even though C. so that D. by the time 44. A. perfect B. dead C. free D. simple 45. A. stress B. risk C. hope D. training 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Have you ever been so interested in something that you forget what’s going on around you? This happy, good feeling ____46____(call) being “in the flow (心流)”. Sometimes you are so lost in an activity that everything else ____47____ (seem) to disappear. An expert named Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi described this feeling as “flow”. It happens when you are fully focusing on something challenging but ____48____ (enjoy). Time goes by quickly, and you use your skills to the best of your ability. How is it good for you? Csikszentmihalyi believed that flow is the key to happiness. Putting all your energy into a task makes you proud of your success. It also helps you think more ____49____ (clear) because you avoid other worries. For example, when you are paying full attention to a chess game, you aren’t thinking about schoolwork. This helps manage feelings and reduces(减轻)stress. Flow feels good because you’re doing something for ____50____ (you), not for a prize or to make others happy. How can you find the flow? Finding flow is different for everyone. By now, people ____51____ (discover) that it can take 10 to 15 minutes of good attention to get ____52____ it. Flow often happens when you do something you enjoy and are quite skilled at, like solving a puzzle or drawing. Choose a fun challenge that you know you can do. Find a quiet space without any stops, and stay away from screens. It helps more ____53____ you are doing something because you want to, not because you have to. Start by simply practising with an activity you love. With practice, you can learn ____54____ (bring)this good feeling to other things, making ____55____ (activity) like homework more interesting too. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 56. A: ________________? B: She did a good job and won first prize. 57. A: ________________? B: They must be Ms Chen’s. I just saw her cutting paper. 58. A: Jason didn’t pick up my call. Where’s he? B: He’s in class. ________________. 59. A: What kind of music do you prefer? B: ________________. 60. A: ________________? B: It’s for holding gifts for my friends. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 61. 假如你是李华，下图是你校面对200名学生进行问卷调查的结果。请你根据图示信息和要求，以“How do the students solve their problems?”为题，写一篇英语短文，并在下周的英语主题班会上发言。 写作要求： 1.短文须包含上图所有信息，可适当发挥，使文章连贯； 2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息； 3.词数100—120，开头已给出，不计入总词数。 How do the students solve their problems? Good morning, everyone! I’m Li Hua. Last week our school gave a questionnaire to 200 students. The question was: “When you meet a problem, what do you usually do?” Here are the results. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026年九年级期末学情调研 英语试题 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. I felt lucky to be alive. B. I’m trying to keep my cool. C. I think they’re fun to watch. 2. A. What do you remember? B. Who was it invented by? C. What did you see that night? 3. A. Never talk to strangers! B. Don’t use paper napkins. C. Don’t be hard on yourself. 4. A. What a cool story! B. How time flies! C. What a great jacket? 5. A. Did you oversleep? B. Can medicine help the king? C. Do you remember Mr. Hunt? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What does Wang Lei do for exercise every day? A. Running. B. Swimming. C. Walking. 7. How does Peter most likely feel now? A. Excited. B. Disappointed. C. Surprised. 8. What kind of music helps Linda relax? A. Pop. B. Rock. C. Folk. 9. What does the man mean? A. The woman should keep quiet. B. The woman can talk to her friend first. C. The woman shouldn’t fight with her friend. 10. What is Tina’s learning method like? A. Creative. B. Difficult. C. Boring. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. How will Jiayi and Tianyu get to Daming Lake from Quancheng Square? A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By taxi. 12. What is the show at Shandong Museum about? A. Modern art. B. Jinan history. C. Ancient inventions. 13. What food will they try for lunch? A. Ba Zi Rou. B. Hot pot. C. Dumplings. 14. Why does Tianyu worry about the afternoon trip? A. It may snow. B. It may be crowded. C. It may be closed. 15 What does Jiayi advise Tianyu to do with James? A. Walk a lot. B. Speak English slowly. C. Just be himself. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. What makes the new card look different from the normal one? A. It is a little thicker. B. It has a color screen. C. It is big and heavy. 17. Where is the smart student ID card made? A. In Jinan. B. In Shanghai. C. In Beijing. 18. How can the card help you find a lost water bottle? A. It calls the teacher. B. It makes the paper ring. C. It shows a map on the phone. 19. How many main uses of the card are mentioned? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 20. What does the head teacher think about the smart card? A. It’s too expensive. B. It’s just a toy. C. It makes life better. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B B 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A C 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. A D 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. G 23. A 24. B 25. E 第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. D 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 【31~45题答案】 【答案】31. D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. C 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. is called 47. seems 48. enjoyable 49. clearly 50. yourself 51. have discovered 52. into 53. if##when 54. to bring 55. activities 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. What did you think of Lily’s speech? 57. Whose are these scissors? 58. Phones aren’t allowed there. 59. I prefer music that I can dance to. 60. What is this bag used for? 第二节 作文（满分25分） 【61题答案】 【答案】 例文 How do the students solve their problems? Good morning, everyone! I‘m Li Hua. Last week our school gave a questionnaire to 200 students. The question was: “When you meet a problem, what do you usually do?” Here are the results. As we can see, 52% of the students solve problems by talking to their friends. 22% choose to ask their teachers or parents for help because they have more experience. 17% try to solve problems by themselves. The other 9% deal with their problems in other ways. In my opinion, I prefer to read books when I face problems. For example, last month I felt stressed about exams. I read a book about how to relax, which helped me a lot. Different people have different ways. Choose the best one for yourself. That’s all. Thank you! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $