山东临沂市费县2025-2026学年八年级下学期期末英语试题

八年级英语试题 参考答案 第一部分 听力(共四节，每小题1分，满分20分) 第一节 1-5 BCDEA 第二节 6-10 BCBCB 第三节 11-15 BABAB 第四节 16. tired 17. yesterday 18.throat 19. twice a day 20.two/2 第 二 部 分 阅 读 理 解 (共两节，满分4 0分，每小题2分 ) 21-23 BCB 24-27 BCCA 28-31 CCCB 32-35 ACCA 36-40 DCAFE 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分30分，每小题1分) 第一节 41-45 BAAAC 46-50 ACABC 第二节 51-55 CFBAE 56-60 DECBA 第三节 61. themselves 62. to offer 63. worst 64. improper 65. Firstly 66. owner 67. knives 68. are talking 69. have kept 70. an 第四部分 阅读表达(满分10分) 71. He was (an engineer and) a (professional) storm chaser. 72. To collect important information about tornadoes. 73. It helps scientists make better forecasts and change how we build our houses. 74. They lost their lives in a tornado./They were chasing the EI Reno tornado in Oklahoma，USA. /All three men in the car died. 75. Yes. Because it helps people know more about storms and keep safe. / No. Because it is too dangerous and may cost people’s lives. (答案不唯一，言之有理即可) 第五部分 补全对话(满分5分) 76. What’s the matter (with you) /What’s wrong (with you)?/What happened（ to you）？ 77. What were you doing at eight last night? 78. Have you ever read it?/Have you read it yet? 79. Because it’s very interesting and educational/…(答案不唯一，合理即可) 第六部分 书面表达（15分） 评分标准 评分说明：本大题共15分，请按以下四档标准进行评分。 第一档：(15分) 符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰， 语句通顺，语言正确无误。 第二档：(11 — 14分) 符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。 第三档：(6 — 10分) 基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。 第四档：(0 — 5分) 不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚, 逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。 （注意：短文中不得出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息，否则不予评分。） 听力材料 现在是听力试音时间。 W: What did you do during the weekend? M: I went skating with my friends at the park. What about you? W: Actually, I also went skating. I go skating every weekend with my father. We usually skate about twenty kilometers each time. M:Well, how can you skate so far? W: I've been skating for three years now. You could skate that far, too. Let’s go skating together next weekend M: OK. 试音到此结束。 听力测试正式开始。 注意:听力测试分四节，共20小题。做题时，请先将答案画在试卷上，录音内容结束后，将所选答案转涂到答题卡上。 第1节 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 1. W: What’s your hobby? M: I like skiing. It’s exciting! 2. W: How do you greet others in the US? M: We usually say hello or shake hands. 3. W: What’s the matter with you？ M: I have a terrible toothache. I need to see a dentist. 4. W: What’s the highest mountain in the world? M: It’s Mount Qomolangma. It’s 8848.86 metres high. 5. W: The drought has lasted for two months. The plants are all dry. M: My grandpa is watering the vegetables in the garden to save them. 第二节 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。 M: Excuse me, madam. Are you a volunteer here? W: Yes, I am. M: How long have you been a volunteer with this animal shelter? W: Oh, I’ve been a volunteer with my family since two years ago. M: What do you do ? W: My husband cleans the cages and feeds the animals. I take care of the new pets because they are in poor condition and need more care. M: Goodness! 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 W: Li Ming, have you finished writing your book report? M: Yeah, Tina, I began to write it five days ago. I’ve just finished it. W: You’re so fast. Which book did you choose? M: Journey to the West. Monkey King is so powerful and clever. Which book did you write about? W: Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland. But I haven’t finished reading it yet. M: Have you had any problems? W: Yeah, I didn’t understand some words at first, so I decided to study with my group. My classmates advised me to guess their meanings by reading the sentences before and after them. M: Then why did you choose this book? Is it a good choice for reading? W: Certainly. It is such a fantastic novel that I want to read it over and over again. 第三节 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 Do you afriaid of the rainstorm? Last Saturday evening, a heavy rainstorm hit our neighborhood. I was watching TV in my living room when the wind began to blow hard. The doors shook loudly, and the rain beat heavily against the windows. I could hear the noisy wind outside, that made me nervous. Suddenly, the power was cut off. I moved carefully in the dark to get a flashlight. With the flashlight in hand, I stayed with my family in the bedroom. We sat together, listening to the terrible noise of the storm. Some flower pots even fell off the windows and fell to the ground. After a while, the rain stopped and the wind died down. The next morning when I went outside, I saw a mess everywhere, broken branches and leaves covered the ground. Luckily, no one around us was badly hurt. 第四节 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空白处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 M: Take a seat, Helen, How are you feeling? W: Not good. I have a bad headache and feel tired. M: When did you feel like this? W: It started yesterday. I felt so cold and couldn’t sleep well last night either. M: Let me take your temperature. Oh, it’s quite high. W: And my throat hurts too. M: Yes, the back of your throat looks very red. I believe you have the flu. W: What should I do, doctor? M: Take this medicine twice a day and drink enough water. W: OK, thank you. Can I go to school tomorrow? M: No, you should rest at home for two days. And eat more fruit and vegetables. W: I see. M: Remember your health is in your hands. If you take care of yourself, you will get better soon. 听力考试到此结束。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 八年级质量监测试题 英 语 2026.07 本试卷共10页。满分120分。考试时长120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。答案写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力测试（共四节，满分20分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 1．______ 2．______ 3．______ 4．______ 5．______ 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。 6. How long has the woman been a volunteer? A. Since last year. B. Since two years ago. C. Since three years ago. 7. What does the woman do as a volunteer? A. She cleans the cages. B. She feeds the animals. C. She takes care of the new pets. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. Which book did Li Ming choose for the report? A. Treasure Island. B. Journey to the West. C. Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland. 9. How did Tina solve her problem? A. By searching the Internet. B. By asking teachers for help. C. By getting help from classmates. 10. Why did Tina choose Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland? A. Because it’s easy to read. B. Because she thinks it’s a fantastic novel. C. Because her classmates advised her to read it. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 11. The rainstorm happened last Sunday morning. 12. I was watching TV when the wind blew hard. 13. I got a candle after the power was cut off. 14. Some flower pots fell off because of the strong wind. 15. Some people were badly hurt in the rainstorm. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 16. What’s the matter with Helen? She has a bad headache and feels ___________________. 17. When did Helen feel like this? It started ___________________________. 18. What else is wrong with Helen? Her ___________________ hurts. 19. What should Helen do? Take this medicine __________________ and drink enough water. 20. How long should Helen rest at home? For __________________ days. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 21. According to the poster, which picture is right? A. B. C. 22. What should you say if you are full and are offered more food? A. I don’t like it. B. I’m not hungry. C. No, thank you. I’m full. 23. Where is the text probably from? A. A science report. B. A travel guide. C. A cooking magazine. B This summer vacation, I joined the “Public Welfare Partner” program and worked as a community volunteer. At first, I felt really nervous because I had no experience of volunteer work before. Luckily, with the help of college student mentors (导师), I soon got used to it. My first job was to help with waste sorting. I stood at the guidance station and explained the rules to local residents (居民). Many elderly people were confused about sorting plastic bottles and paper boxes, so I patiently pointed out the signs and showed them how to do it step by step. To my surprise, an old lady gave me homemade cookies to thank me for my help. Later, I joined the community summer camp to tutor young children in maths and Chinese. When they finally understood difficult problems, their smiles made me feel warm. Besides, we organized a “Low - carbon Travel” activity. We gave out leaflets (传单) on the street to encourage people to walk or ride bikes instead of driving. When a little boy promised to ask his father to stop driving him to school, I truly realized how meaningful volunteer work can be. During the whole summer, I volunteered for 40 hours in total. I learned to communicate with different people and became more responsible (有责任心的). Volunteer work isn’t just about helping others, it also helps me grow. I will keep volunteering in the future. 24. What does the underlined word “tutor” probably mean in paragraph 3? A. Play with. B. Teach. C. Protect. 25. Who is the writer probably? A. A college teacher. B. An elderly resident. C. A middle school student. 26. Which volunteer activities did the writer take part in? ① Helping with waste sorting. ② Organizing a charity sale. ③ Tutoring kids in the summer camp. ④ Encouraging low - carbon travel. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ 27. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage? (P = Paragraph) A. B. C. C In the center of China lies a special natural wonder that seems from another world—Zhangjiajie National Forest Park in Hunan Province. The park is famous for its unusual geological (地质的) landscape and amazing natural views. There are thousands of tall quartz - sandstone pillars (石英砂岩柱) in the park. Some are more than 800 meters high, standing straight among green trees. These pillars were slowly formed by millions of years of wind and water erosion (侵蚀). That makes the park look magical and unusual. Zhangjiajie is not only a good place for sightseeing but also holds great value for science and education. Geologists study the rocks here to learn more about Earth’s long history. For students, the park is like a lively natural classroom. They can learn basic knowledge about geology and realize how important it is to protect natural heritage (自然遗产). Because of its great natural and scientific value, UNESCO (联合国教科文组织) listed Zhangjiajie as a World Natural Heritage site. It means that the whole world agrees it is a very special place that belongs to all people. To protect this beautiful wonder, the Chinese government has taken action. For example, it controls the number of visitors and builds special paths to keep the environment safe. From Zhangjiajie, we learn that we should love and protect natural wonders around us. If we take good care of them now, future generations (后代) can also enjoy their beauty and carry out more studies on these amazing places. 28. What does the underlined word “That” refer to? A. The tall green trees in the park. B. The World Natural Heritage title. C. The pillars formed by wind and water erosion. 29. Why do geologists study the rocks in Zhangjiajie? A. To build more special paths. B. To enjoy the beautiful views. C. To learn about Earth’s long history. 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Zhangjiajie lies in the east of China. B. UNESCO didn’t accept Zhangjiajie’s value. C. The Chinese government tries to protect the park. 31. What is the main idea of the passage? A. To tell us how to become a geologist. B. To introduce Zhangjiajie’s scenery, value and protection. C. To introduce all the World Natural Heritage sites in China. D Peter kept his eyes on the ground. He felt like there was a heavy weight on his shoulders as he walked home alone. It was the worst day of his life. He kept thinking about what happened an hour ago on the school soccer field. How could he have missed scoring that goal? He had let his whole team down. His stupid mistake made him angry. His team lost the game because of him. He was really worried that his coach might not let him play again. As soon as he walked through the door, his father asked, “What’s wrong, son?” Peter’s feelings were written all over his face. “I lost the game,” Peter replied. Then he went into his room without another word. Ten minutes later, Peter heard his father knocking on his bedroom door. He opened the door. “Look, Peter. I don’t know what happened. But whatever it was, don’t be too hard on yourself.” “I lost the game, Dad. I failed my team. They’ll probably never let me play again.” “Soccer is about team effort. You are not the only reason your team lost. If you have a good team, you should support each other. Besides, winning or losing is only half the game. The other half is learning how to talk with your teammates and learn from your mistakes.” Peter didn’t say anything, but what his father said made him think. The next day, Peter went to soccer practice with courage instead of fear. “Hey, guys,” he said to his teammates. “I’m really sorry about yesterday. We were so close to winning that game. But I think if we continue to work together, we’re going to win the next one.” To his surprise and relief, his teammates all nodded. “Yeah,” they said, “don’t worry about it. It’s never just one person’s fault. We should think about how we can do better next time.” Peter smiled. He felt lucky to be on a winning team. 32. Why did Peter feel so worried? A. His coach might not let him play again. B. He didn’t want to play soccer any more. C. He argued with his teammates after the game. 33. What does the underlined part “don’t be too hard on yourself” mean? A. Don’t work too hard. B. Don’t lose heart easily. C. Don’t be too strict with yourself. 34. What advice did Peter’s father give him? A. Don’t care about winning or losing at all. B. Winning the game is the most important thing. C. Teammates should support each other and learn from mistakes. 35. What is the best title for the story? A. A Winning Team B. Peter’s Worst Day C. A Soccer Game 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 For more than 25 years, the Harry Potter book series (丛书), with its themes of courage, friendship and self - growth, has attracted millions of young readers all over the world. It has greatly influenced the childhood of many teenagers. It is also one of the best - selling book series in human history. 36 Who wrote it? J.K. Rowling is the creator of the Harry Potter series. She was born in 1965 in the UK. When she was a little girl, she loved making up interesting stories in her free time. 37 During a difficult period of her life, she came up with the idea of a boy wizard (巫师) on a train trip. At first, she wrote the first book in cafes while raising her baby daughter. Through years of hard work, she finally finished the whole seven - book series. 38 The first book of the series came out in 1997. It follows Harry Potter, a young wizard who leaves his ordinary life to study at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry. At school, he makes close friends and fights against the dark wizard Lord Voldemort. The series is full of magical details and lively characters. Many things in the stories carry deep symbolic meanings. 39 Why is the book so popular? The Harry Potter series teaches us valuable lessons about facing difficulties bravely, keeping loyal (忠诚的) to friends and believing in ourselves. It shows that love and kindness can always beat evil (邪恶). 40 Even many years later, the magical world of Harry Potter still touches people’s hearts and never goes out of style. A. What is the series mainly about? B. Who are the main fans of this book series? C. Then she dreamed of becoming a full - time writer. D. Let’s explore the world of this great book series together. E. This makes the series popular among both kids and adults. F. For example, the owl stands for hope and connection in the magical world. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last month, Lily got a colorful DIY book as her 14-year-old birthday gift. She dreamed of being a great creative 41 , so she planned to take part in the school DIY competition to show her talent in front of all her classmates. She really hoped to win praise from her teachers and friends. But when she opened the book carefully, she wasn’t so happy any more. 42 in the book looked easy. All the interesting projects needed different kinds of tools and much 43 about hand - making skills. She stared at the thick book for a long time and felt upset about the difficult tasks. The next week, her teacher 44 a notice with the competition rules and requirements. Lily still really wanted to join in it. She 45 her name on the paper and promised to finish a special and creative work in two weeks. All her close friends cheered for her warmly. “Can you really finish a perfect work for the competition?” her best friend asked in surprise. “Sure,” Lily said bravely. But secretly she was 46 worried. There were just three weeks before the competition. She hoped she would have enough 47 , materials and energy to keep practicing. That quiet night, Lily tried again at her desk. She chose 48 project in the book — it was easy to make a beautiful paper flower with simple paper and glue. 49 she practiced every night after finishing homework, she couldn’t make nice flowers well at first. She felt very sad but she never gave up easily. At last, she finished a lovely paper flower and felt so 50 to win high praise from her teachers and classmates. 41. A. explorer B. designer C. interviewer 42. A. Nothing B. Something C. Everything 43. A. knowledge B. attention C. pressure 44. A. handed out B. cleaned out C. came out 45. A. encouraged B. allowed C. signed 46. A. terribly B. politely C. luckily 47. A. people B. space C. time 48. A. the easiest B. the most expensive C. the hardest 49. A. Unless B. Although C. If 50. A. embarrassed B. surprising C. proud 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 A. what to do B. so careless C. cut herself D. is about to E. first aid F. as fast as One day, Lisa’s neighbour Amy rushed to her in a panic and shouted loudly, “Lisa! Please help my sister Ella! She 51 badly!” Lisa hurried to Amy’s house 52 she could. What a terrible scene! Ella was lying on the floor, and blood was pouring out of the cut on her right foot. “Ella was 53 that she broke the glass while she was playing. Our mum wasn’t at home, and I was too nervous to know 54 at all,” Amy told Lisa. “Don’t worry. I must give her 55 at once!” Lisa replied calmly. A. save people’s lives B. got much better C. kept pressing D. deal with E. control F. feel blue Luckily, Lisa had learned some first - aid skills before and knew the right way to 56 the cut. She acted quickly and pressed the cut tightly to 57 the bleeding. Then she told Amy to call 120 at once. While waiting for help, she let Ella rest on the sofa and 58 the cut to slow down blood loss. Thanks to her quick and proper action, Ella did not lose too much blood before going to the hospital. A few days later, Ella’s foot 59 . Lisa felt really glad when she heard the good news. “Everyone should realize the importance of first aid. In some sudden and dangerous situations, proper first aid matters a lot before doctors arrive. Sometimes, it can even 60 ,” Lisa said. “So I strongly advise everyone to learn basic first-aid skills for daily safety.” 答案：51. ______ 52. ______ 53. ______ 54. ______ 55. ______ 56. ______ 57. ______ 58. ______ 59. ______ 60. ______ 第三节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 It is important for teenagers to learn good manners. Above all, knowing social manners helps them behave politely. They can decide what to do in a certain situation by 61. ______ (them). Also, they will become more confident than before. What’s more, people would like 62. ______ (offer) good chances to teenagers with good manners, and these chances can possibly change their life. Without good manners, teenagers may face the 63. ______ (bad) results in social communication. When teenagers start to learn manners, most of them are taught to say “please”, “excuse me” and so on. However, good manners are far more than these simple words. They need to continue learning more and avoid 64. ______ (proper) behaviour in public. Here are some useful tips to get them started: 65. ______ (First), express thanks. Say “thank you” as soon as someone offers help. And you have to write thank - you letters or send small presents after visiting someone’s home. These words, spoken or written, can make the 66. ______ (own) of the house feel warm. Secondly, have good table manners. Don’t start to eat until the hosts picked up their 67. ______ (knife) and forks at a dinner party. Eat as quietly as possible. And try not to make any noise. If a dish is far, ask another guest for help instead of reaching over others’ plates for it. Thirdly, show respect during a conversation. Don’t interrupt (打断) others while they 68. ______ (talk). Last week, I saw a boy interrupt his mom when she was sharing her daily life. If you are on the phone in public, keep your voice down. Many people 69. ______ (keep) this rule since they learned good manners. That’s very important for them. There is 70. ______ old saying, “It is never too late to learn.” Start to learn good manners from now on. 第四部分 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 Are you afraid of big storms? Many people are. But did you know some people go out to chase tornadoes? Such storms can hit suddenly and move very quickly, so storm chasers always have to be prepared. When a tornado is about to hit, professional storm chasers try and get close to it to collect important information. Storm chaser Tim Samaras designed and built many different instruments for studying tornadoes. Throughout his career, the engineer chased down more than 120 tornadoes. Often, he filmed the storms while they were happening just a few kilometres away. During a storm, storm chasers put special equipment in the way of the tornado. The equipment collects information about things such as wind speed and air pressure. This helps scientists to make better forecasts. It can even help people understand how powerful the winds can be, and as a result, change how we build our houses. Storm chasing can be exciting, but also very dangerous. The storm chasers’ knowledge and experience are not always enough to keep them safe. On 31 May 2013, Samaras and his team were chasing the El Reno tornado in Oklahoma, USA. To their surprise, the tornado behaved in an unexpected way. It grew rapidly and changed its speed and direction. On that terrible day, the largest tornado ever recorded appeared. It was 4.2 kilometres wide and had winds topping 480 kilometres per hour. While the tornado was moving towards them, Samaras and his team were driving as fast as they could. Sadly, when the tornado hit their car, it threw their car into the air like a toy. All three men in the car died. The story of Tim Samaras is very sad, but his work continues to play an important role in weather science. Though storm chasing remains a dangerous job, the goal of storm chasers is to learn more about storms to keep people safe. For people like Samaras, that goal makes it all worth it. 71. What was Tim Samaras’s job? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 72. Why do storm chasers get close to tornadoes? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 73. How can storm information help humans? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. What happened to Samaras and his team on 31 May 2013? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. Do you think storm chasing is worth doing? Why or why not? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第五部分 补全对话（共4小题；第79小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。 Tony: Good morning, Amy. Amy: Morning, Tony. Tony: You look tired. 76. __________________________________? Amy: I have a headache, because I stayed up too late last night. Tony: I called you last night, but you didn’t answer. 77. __________________________________? Amy: I was reading The Time Machine at eight last night. 78. __________________________________? Tony: No, I haven’t. I haven’t read it yet. Why do you like it so much? Amy: 79. ___________________________________________________________. Tony: Sounds great. Can I borrow it? Amy: Sure. Tomorrow I’ll lend it to you. 第六部分 书面表达（满分15分） 假设你正在参加一个国际学生交流项目，需要向新朋友介绍你的休闲生活。请以“My Favourite Free-time Activity”为题，写一篇英语短文。提示如下： 注意： 1．词数80-100，题目和开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．文中不得出现真实人名、校名等信息。 My Favourite Free-time Activity Hello, everyone! I’m glad to join this international student exchange program.______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $