吉林长春汽车经济技术开发区第三中学2025-2026学年度高一第二学期7月期末英语试题

汽开三中 2025 — 2026 学年度第二学期期末试卷 高一英语 命题人： 审题人： 注意事项：本试卷分为第 Ⅰ 卷（选择题）和第 Ⅱ 卷（非选择题）两部分，共 5 页，总分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟。 第 Ⅰ 卷（选择题） 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分， 满分 7.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What language will the man learn this year? A. German. B. Spanish. C. Russian. 2. What did the man do just now? A. He fed the chickens. B. He bought some food. C. He cleaned his shop. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. An artist. B. A fan. C. A new building. 4. Why is the woman out of breath? A. She ran here. B. She rode a bike. C. She swam with her dad. 5. What worries Mike? A. His job. B. His smelly clothes. C. His health. 第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分， 满分 22.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 6. What did the woman do in her second diet? A. She just ate on Monday. B. She drank 50 cups of water a day. C. She only ate orange-colored food. 7. How does the man probably sound in the end? A. Surprised. B. Relaxed. C. Satisfied. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 8. What did the woman do before the man’s question? A. She did the repair work. B. She made a phone call. C. She said sorry. 9. What was wrong with the repairman? A. He was ill. B. He forgot the time. C. He lost his way. 10. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a hospital. B. At home. C. In a store. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 11. What is the woman going to do in Hong Kong? A. Tour the market. B. See some temples. C. Visit a friend. 12. How will the woman go to Bangkok from Siem Reap? A. By boat. B. By bus. C. By plane. 13. Where does the woman plan to stay in all those places? A. In tents. B. In small guest houses. C. In big hotels. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 14. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Customer and waitress. B. Co-workers. C. Host and guest. 15. How much did the man think the bill should be? A. $20. B. $35. C. $45. 16. What will the woman do next? A. Talk to the manager. B. Call Jenny. C. Check out. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 17. When will the picnic be? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Sunday. 18. What is unnecessary to bring for the picnic? A. Food. B. Chairs. C. Drinks. 19. How soon will the bus get to the beach? A. In two hours. B. In one hour. C. In half an hour. 20. Who is the speaker talking to? A. Teachers. B. Students. C. Parents. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Global Youth Carbon Neutrality Innovation Contest 2026 Calling all young innovators! The 2026 Global Youth Carbon Neutrality Innovation Contest, co-hosted by the UN Environment Programme and Tsinghua University, invites students aged 16-20 worldwide to submit creative solutions for carbon reduction. Key Information: •Theme: “Youth Power for a Net-Zero Future” •Categories: Renewable energy application, circular economy, low-carbon lifestyle, smart environmental monitoring •Eligibility: Individual participants or teams (3-5 members); no professional background required •Submission: Detailed project proposal (800-1000 words) + 3-minute video presentation; deadline is April 30, 2026 •Rewards: Winning teams receive $5,000 seed funding, mentor-ship (导师制) from environmental experts, and opportunity to showcase projects at the 2026 UN Climate Conference •Special Support: Free online workshops on carbon accounting and project design (held every Saturday from March 1 to April 15) For registration and guidelines, visit www.youthcarboncontest.org or send an email to contact@youthcarboncontest.org. 21. Who can participate in the 2026 contest? A. Teams of 6-8 members B. Environmental field professionals C. Anyone interested in carbon reduction D. Students aged 16-20 worldwide 22. How can participants get professional support? A. By joining free online workshops B. By attending private consultations C. By cooperating with experts offline D. By visiting the official website daily 23. What can we infer from the contest rewards? A. It offers equal chances to all the participants B. It encourages UN-related careers for participants C. It helps winners to develop environmental projects D. It focuses more on material rewards than professional support B I was standing in line at the grocery store, scrolling through my phone, impatient to get home after a long day of teaching. Ahead of me stood an elderly man in a faded grey coat. His hands shook slightly as he counted out coins onto the counter. “I’m sorry,” he whispered to the cashier, his voice thin and shaky. “I thought I had enough.” The cashier, a young woman who looked equally tired, sighed. “You’re short by five dollars, sir. Do you want to put something back?” People behind me became impatient. The old man looked at his things: a carton of milk, a loaf of bread, a dozen eggs, and a small box of chocolate cookies. He slowly reached for the cookies. “I… I don’t need these. They were for my grandson, but…” I could see how embarrassed he was. Without thinking twice, I walked forward and paid with my card. “I’ll pay for it,” I said. “Please keep the cookies.” The man froze. He looked at me, his watery blue eyes wide with shock. “No, Miss, I couldn’t…” “It’s fine,” I smiled, hoping to ease his worry. “Consider it a gift for your grandson.” He tried to speak but choked up. He simply nodded, took his bag, and waited for me outside. When I walked out, he grabbed my hand. “You don’t know what this means. My pension (养老金) hasn’t arrived yet, and tomorrow is his birthday. Thank you.” A week later. I was back at the same store. As I walked down the passage, a little boy ran up to me, holding a familiar box of chocolate cookies. Behind him was the old man, smiling happily. “He wanted to share one with you,” the man said. That chocolate cookie tasted better than any fancy dessert I’d ever had. It tasted like connection. It tasted like hope. 24. Why did the author want to get home quickly? A. She hated waiting in line. B. She was eager to meet her grandson. C. She was tired after work. D. She needed to prepare for tomorrow’s class. 25. What made the old man choose to put the cookies back? A. His own preference. B. The cashier’s advice. C. The cookies’ high price. D. Lack of money. 26. How did the old man feel when the author paid for the cookies? A. Shocked and upset. B. Amazed and moved. C. Doubtful and embarrassed. D. Indifferent and calm. 27. What message does the text mainly want to convey? A. Patience in public is a virtue. B. Family ties are the most valuable. C. Elderly people need more care. D. Kindness can lead to friendliness. C Around the World in Eighty Days by Jules Verne Around the World in Eighty Days, written by French author Jules Verne in 1872, is a classic adventure novel that combines thrilling adventures with vivid depictions of 19th-century global travel. The story follows Phileas Fogg, a wealthy and precise English gentleman, who bets £20,000 with his Reform Club friends that he can circumnavigate the globe in just 80 days. Accompanied by his loyal French servant, Passepartout, Fogg departs London immediately, embarking on a journey filled with unexpected challenges. Their route takes them across continents and oceans — through the Suez Canal, India, Hong Kong, Japan, the United States, and back to Europe — using trains, steamships, and even elephants. Along the way, they rescue Aouda, an Indian princess fleeing forced ritual suicide, and avoid a persistent detective, Fix, who mistakenly believes Fogg is a bank robber. Despite obstacles like storms, missed connections, and cultural misunderstandings, Fogg’s calm determination and strategic thinking keep them on track. The climax arrives when Fogg, delayed by Fix’s arrest (逮捕) in Liverpool, appears to lose the bet by arriving five minutes late. However, a twist shows that by traveling eastward, Fogg unknowingly gained a day due to time zones, allowing him to triumphantly claim victory at the Reform Club with seconds to spare. The novel concludes with Fogg marrying Aouda, blending adventure with a touch of romance. Verne’s work not only fascinates readers with its suspenseful plot but also critiques societal issues of the era, such as British colonialism and cultural exploitation. Its themes of perseverance, ingenuity, and the spirit of exploration make it a timeless tale for young readers. 28. What prompted Phileas Fogg to begin his journey around the world? A. A desire to explore new cultures. B. A plan to escape Detective Fix’s pursuit. C. An urgent mission to rescue Aouda. D. A bet with his friends at the Reform Club. 29. Why did Detective Fix follow Phileas Fogg throughout the journey? A. He wanted to protect Fogg from danger. B. He believed Fogg had stolen money from a bank. C. He aimed to help Fogg win the wager. D. He was hired by the Reform Club to monitor Fogg. 30. What is the central theme of the book Around the World in Eighty Days? A. The importance of friendship during hardships. B. The clash between technology and nature. C. Perseverance and the spirit of exploration. D. The dangers of colonial expansion. 31. What does the underlined word “twist” in paragraph 3 most likely mean ______ A. a sudden and unexpected change in events B. a physical turning movement in a circle C. a difficult problem that has no solution D. a small detail that is not important to the plot D Soon, people with visual impairments might read regular books using a new audio device. Developed by MIT, this finger-worn device aims to give them affordable, immediate access to printed text. The FingerReader, a 3D printed trial model, fits like a ring. It is equipped with a small camera that scans text. Software tracks finger movements, identifies words, and processes the information. A machine voice reads aloud. It quickly translates books, menus, and other materials needed for daily living. “It’s like reading with the tip of your finger,” said Pattie Maes, an MIT professor who founded and led the research group developing the model. “It’s more flexible and immediate than any current solution,” she added. Developers faced unusual challenges in making the device. It uses vibration (震动) motors to warn users when they wander off the line of text, and audio signals to indicate the start and finish of the reading material. To accomplish this, developers spent three years coding software and experimenting with various designs. They also received feedback from people who are visually impaired. Much work remains before the FingerReader is ready for the market. It needs adjustments to work on cell phones. The device can read papers, books, and computer screens, but it struggles with touch screens — touching the screen with the fingertip shifts the text and produces unintended results. Jerry Berrier, aged 62, was born blind. He is attracted to the portability (便携) of the FingerReader. He sees promise in its offer of real-time use. “When I go to the doctor’s office, there may be forms that I read before I sign them,” Berrier said. “Everywhere we go, for folks who are sighted, there are things that inform us about the products we interact with. I want to be able to interact with those same products, regardless of how I have to do it.” “Any tool that gives better access to printed material helps us live fuller, richer, more productive lives,” Berrier added. 32. How does the FingerReader begin its reading process? A. By reading the text aloud with a machine voice. B. By scanning text with a small camera. C. By tracking the finger movements. D. By identifying the printed words. 33. What problem does the FingerReader have with touch screens? A. The camera fails to identify words. B. Audio signals do not work on them. C. Touching them moves the text around. D. The software is not coded for digital texts. 34. What does Jerry Berrier think of the future of the FingerReader? A. Hopeful. B. Limited. C. Uncertain. D. Challenging. 35. Which of the following is a suitable title for the text? A. Widespread Use and Popularity of FingerReader B. A New Reading Device for the Visually Impaired C. An Introduction to FingerReader’s Working Principles D. From Challenge to Solution: The Story of FingerReader 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 In addition to being a quiet pastime, reading fiction offers children a number of benefits (好处) Reading fiction helps children learn to infer (推断). 36 What does a character look like? Why is a character behaving that way? What are their possible motivations (动机)? Over time, reading fiction and answering these questions is like exercising the mind, helping children develop important thinking and problem-solving abilities. Reading fiction makes children more empathetic (感同身受的). Fiction is more effective than non-fiction at changing our views about people different from ourselves. Why? Because when children are drawn into a great story, they connect to its characters emotionally (情感上) and end up feeling a real empathy they do not forget when they finish the book. 37 All reading builds vocabulary. As children read, they see words in context. 38 This is a gentle and fun way for them to get knowledge and develop writing skills. Words are the building blocks of our communication with others and having a strong vocabulary makes that communication easier, deeper, and more meaningful. Reading fiction can help children socialize. 39 As characters in the stories they read ride school buses, sit in the lunchroom and make friends, they teach children about how people may react to situations and challenges. Seeing the mistakes characters make in stories can help children get wisdom for use in their own lives. 40 This benefit is true of all reading, but it’s an important one to note. If a child is going to take away any kind of message or lesson from reading, they must be skilled at focusing on the task at hand: Reading. The more children read books, the better they will be able to dive deep into their text. A. Reading fiction helps children learn to focus. B. Fiction is the lie through which we tell the truth. C. Reading fiction helps children develop creativity. D. Over time they understand their meaning and proper usage. E. A story has holes that must be filled in with readers’ imaginations. F. Fiction can effectively teach children how to get along with others. G. This helps develop empathy in children that will translate into real life. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When I was a teenager, I lost interest in study and often felt upset. I thought hard work would never bring good results, so I gave up easily whenever meeting 41 . My head teacher noticed my bad state and decided to help me out. One afternoon, she took me to the school garden. There stood many small trees struggling against strong winds. Some bent low, but few 42 down completely. She told me that growth was never smooth and every difficulty was a chance to become 43 . She shared her own story. She once failed in important exams and almost lost heart. Yet she chose to keep moving instead of 44 . Gradually, her efforts finally 45 off and she achieved her dream. Her words touched my heart deeply. From that day on, I made up my mind to 46 my bad habits. I began to listen carefully in class and finish homework on time. When I felt tired or hopeless, I would 47 those small trees in my mind to cheer myself up. Slowly but surely, my grades began to 48 . More importantly, I built up strong confidence. I realized that success never comes 49 . It always requires continuous effort and firm belief. Now I fully understand that life is full of challenges. We can’t avoid them, but we can choose how to 50 them. Giving up is easy, but sticking to our goals is what truly 51 . In the process of fighting for dreams, we may experience pain and loneliness. However, all the hardships will 52 become valuable wealth in our life. Never doubt your own power, and never 53 hope easily. As long as we hold on to our faith and keep working hard, we are sure to walk out of darkness and 54 the bright future we expect. The road ahead may be long, but every step forward will bring us 55 to our dreams. 41. A. choices B. wishes C. secrets D. difficulties 42. A. fell B. broke C. turned D. calmed 43. A. weaker B. quieter C. stronger D. softer 44. A. giving up B. showing off C. speeding up D. taking apart 45. A. put B. took C. paid D. set 46. A. keep B. change C. copy D. accept 47. A. ignore B. forget C. imagine D. doubt 48. A. drop B. rise C. freeze D. hide 49. A. slowly B. naturally C. suddenly D. easily 50. A. face B. refuse C. miss D. watch 51. A. matters B. harms C. hurts D. fails 52. A. never B. soon C. seldom D. hardly 53. A. hold B. grasp C. lose D. gain 54. A. miss B. regret C. waste D. reach 55. A. farther B. closer C. higher D. deeper 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Thanks to the effort of scientists, the dream of travelling into space has come true. The space age began when the USSR launched Sputnik 1 on October 4, 1957. Afterwards, Yuri Gagarin entered space on April 12, 1961, 56 (make) him the first human in space. Then, American astronaut Neil Armstrong took the first step on the moon, 57 was considered a giant leap for mankind. Although scientists tried 58 (ensure) the safety of the astronauts, disasters still happened, which made everyone sad and disappointed. However, people still believe in the 59 (important) of carrying on space exploration despite the huge risks. Though starting late, China has made great progress in space programme 60 a short time. In 2003, Yang Liwei 61 (successful) orbited Earth in the Shenzhou 5 spacecraft. Then Shenzhou 6 and 7 completed 62 second manned orbit and the first Chinese spacewalk, 63 (follow) by many other rocket missions. In 2022, the launch of the Mengtian module 64 (signal) one step further in China’s plan to establish a space station. The future of space exploration remains bright. Despite the difficulties, scientists hope future 65 (discovery) will not only enable us to understand how the universe began, but also help us survive well into the future. 第四部分 基础知识填空 在空白处填入适当的单词或短语（共 20 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 20 分） 66. _______ (judge) from her enthusiastic tone of voice, she was absolutely thrilled with the news. 67. Those _______ (analysis) make the basis for our further study, which is rather reliable. 68. Delighted to know you have a passion _______ painting, I would like to invite you to join us. 69. The General commanded that food and medical supplies _______ (send) to the front line without delay. 70. Curiosity is part of children’s nature. They always insist on _______ (get) to the bottom of everything. 71. It is no use trying to persuade him _______ (have) a holiday because he is a workaholic (工作狂). 72. Our school had to postpone _______ (hold) the sports meeting due to the heavy rain. 73. Rather than stay at home, he prefers _______ (play) basketball at the playground. 74. Don’t call me at 2 tomorrow afternoon because I _______ (occupy) myself with a scientific experiment then. 75. This phenomenon demonstrates how Chinese enterprises are reshaping their international image through _______ (innovate), cultural storytelling, and the globalization of homegrown ideas. 76. He refused to admit he broke the window. As a result, his _______ (admit) to the weekend party was canceled. . 77. It is not the strongest of the species that survives, nor the most intelligent survives. It is the one that is most _______ (adapt) to changes. 78. We drew this conclusion on the basis of experiments, which is the _______ (base) method in scientific research. 79. What bothered her most was that she received no _______ (apologize) when her sleeping was disturbed by a barking dog. 80. Time _______ (permit), I sincerely hope that you can appreciate the musical performance to be held in the school hall next Saturday. 81. Without _______ (hesitate), the monkey jumped down to hunt for the lost pea, and in doing so he dropped all the other peas in his paws. 82. The boy is now studying in the middle school _______ (attach) to the normal university. 83. With their ability _______ (see) ahead, drones (无人机) could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time. 84. She deeply missed the warmth of home and her family, _______ led her to make a life-changing decision in 2025. 85. My eldest son, _______ work takes him all over the world, is in New York at the moment. 第五部分 应用文写作（共1小题，满分20分） 生活在飞速发展，未来的世界总是充满无限遐想。请你以“Life in the Future”为题，畅想未来20年的生活。 内容需包含以下要点： 1．我们居住的城市与环境会发生哪些变化； 2．人们的日常生活（如出行、学习、工作等）会有哪些不同； 3．谈谈你对未来生活的感受。 要求：语言通顺，意思连贯，书写规范；90词左右。 Life in the Future 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $