四川凉山州2025—2026学年度下期期末八年级英语

2025 — 2026学年度下期期末 八年级英语 全卷共10页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔填写在答题卡上，并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。 2．选择题使用2B铅笔涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写在答题卡的对应框内，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。 3．考试结束后，将答题卡收回。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 第一节 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。每段对话读两遍。 1. What’s Linda’s hobby now? A. B. C. 2. What’s wrong with the boy? A. B. C. 3. How did the boy feel at first? A. B. C. 4. When did Grace get to Chengdu Zoo? A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday. 5. Why does David like paper books? A. Because they are cheaper. B. Because he likes turning pages and the smell of paper books. C. Because they are easier to carry. 第二节 长对话理解和短文理解（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面几段材料，每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。每段材料读两遍。 听第一段材料，完成第6 — 7小题。 6. What are they talking about? A. A fashion show. B. Chinese food. C. Table manners. 7. What should you do when you eat noodles in Japan? A. Make a noise. B. Keep quiet. C. Eat with both hands 听第二段材料，完成第 8 — 10 小题。 8. What was the girl doing when the heavy rain started? A. She was practising the guitar. B. She was waiting at the bus stop. C. She was doing housework. 9. Where was the boy when the heavy rain started? A. In his house. B. At the bus stop. C. On his way to school. 10. What did the boy do after the rain stopped? A. He went out. B. He slept. C. He helped his mum with dinner 听第三段材料，完成第 11 — 13 小题。 11. When did Alan hurt his leg? A. When he was riding home. B. When he was riding to school. C. When he was making a phone call. 12. How was the weather yesterday? A. It was rainy. B. It was sunny. C. It was cloudy. 13. Who took Alan to the hospital? A. A stranger. B. His brother. C. His parents. 听第四段材料，完成第 14 — 16 小题。 14. What kind of book is Mark reading now? A. A storybook. B. A science book. C. A history book. 15. Where does Mark usually read? A. In the park. B. In the library. C. In the classroom. 16. What does Mark think is the best thing about reading? A. It helps him make friends. B. It makes him study better. C. It helps him think in new ways. 听第五段材料，完成第 17 — 20 小题。 17. How big is Lugu Lake? A. About 15 square kilometers. B. About 50 square kilometers. C. About 100 square kilometers. 18. What can tourists do at Lugu Lake? A. Go skiing. B. Take boat rides. C. Climb mountains. 19. When is the best time to visit Lugu Lake? A. Only in summer. B. From January to March. C. From March to October. 20. Why do people probably visit Lugu Lake in winter? A. To watch birds. B. To celebrate the New Year. C. To see snow on the mountains. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三节， 满分40分） 第一节 单项选择（共10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分） 从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。 21. — Look, Yaming looked so happy. Do you know what made him so happy? — He found unusual stone on top of the mountain. A. an; the B. a; / C. the; an 22. — Nowadays, How do teenagers deal with their stress? — Many of them listen to music it. A. reduce B. to reduce C. reduced 23. Our parents want us to become better. You won’t understand why they are so strict you put yourself in their shoes. A. although B. so that C. unless 24. Though the old man lives , he never feels because neighbors often visit him. A. alone; lonely B. lonely; alone C. alone; alone 25. — When the heavy rain started, what was Emma doing? — He was the bus at the bus stop. A. waiting B. waited for C. waiting for 26. — Tom, a fifteen-year-old boy from the USA will climb the Great Wall. Could you tell him more about it? — Sure. It’s known that the Great Wall is one of wonders in the world. A. greatest B. the greatest C. greater 27. Many restaurants the cleaners with free food and hot water in this city. A. provide B. offer C. give 28. After listening to the rules of the new game, the students all felt . A. confusing; confused B. confusing; confusing C. confused; confused 29. Lily likes singing. She a member of the music club for 2 years. She has made a lot of friends since she joined the club. A. is B. has been C. was 30. — Why were so many students late for class this morning? — The heavy rain stopped them to school on time. A. to get B. from getting C. get to 第二节 短文填空 （共5小题； 每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。 A. heard from B. cultural difference C. used to D. pointed at E. personal space My American pen pal, Mark, visited me last month. At first, I wasn’t 31 his habits; he often stood very close during conversations, which felt like an invasion (侵略) of my 32 . He also directly 33 objects when he wanted something, which is considered impolite here. I understood this was just a 34 and not intentional (有意的). We had a great time overall, though I haven’t 35 him since he returned home because of the misunderstanding. This experience taught me to be more careful and respectful of different cultural customs when communicating with people from abroad (国外). 第三节 完形填空 （共10小题； 每小题2分，满分20分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。 More middle schools in China are using AI painting tools in art classes now. It’s a new 36 for students to learn art. Students can type simple descriptions into an app, 37 “a beautiful sunset” or “a cute robot”. Then the AI will 38 a colorful picture in seconds. Teachers say AI helps students 39 their imagination. It also lets them learn new technology. But 40 many parents’ opinions, students may 41 AI too much and lose hand-drawing skills. “AI is just a common 42 , not everything,” said an art teacher. “Students should draw by hand first, then use AI to 43 their own ideas.” This new way of teaching is very 44 nowadays. It shows technology is changing our school life, and it is 45 important for our study. 36. A. way B. plan C. idea 37. A. for B. as C. like 38. A. create B. draw C. paint 39. A. grow B. develop C. improve 40. A. on B. in C. at 41. A. put on B. give up C. depend on 42. A. tool B. sign C. machine 43. A. realize B. express C. explain 44. A. popular B. interesting C. perfect 45. A. really B. luckily C. quickly 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节 阅读理解（共 10 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 20 分） 阅读下面的短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。 A There have been over 50 World Heritage Sites (世界遗产) in China so far. People are quite curious about them. We can learn some of them from the table below. Classical Gardens of Suzhou The Classical Gardens of Suzhou, located in Jiangsu Province, are famous for their wonderful landscape design. These gardens successfully achieve a balance between humans and nature. They perfectly show how ancient designers created rich scenes in small spaces with great wisdom. The plants like bamboo and pines show the goodness of Chinese people. The gardens were added to the World Heritage List in 1997. The Grand Canal (大运河) Running from Beijing in the north to Zhejiang in the south, the Grand Canal is the world’s longest canal made by wise ancient Chinese. It includes more than 2,000 km of waterways. It improves communication and helps with trade and cultural exchanges between northern and southern areas. It became a World Heritage site in 2014. Mount Tai Located in Shandong Province, Mount Tai is famous for its green pines, unusual rocks, and a sea of clouds. It also has rich cultural value. Many famous ancient people left their great works here. As one of the most famous mountains in China, many climbers and travellers go to visit it every year. It was added to the World Heritage List in 1987. The Summer Palace The Summer Palace in Beijing is celebrated for its creative garden design, including hills, open water, and man-made structures. It shows the wonderful integration (融合) between natural landscapes and human art, and is quite rich in Chinese culture and history. It was added to the World Heritage List in 1998. 46. What is true about the Grand Canal? A. It has green pines and unusual rocks. B. It is the world’s longest man-made canal. C. It improves trade between China and foreign countries. 47. What does the underlined word “It” refer to? A. Open water in Beijing. B. A world heritage site. C. Garden design at the Summer Palace. 48. Which of the following is the earliest Chinese World Heritage Site? A. Mount Tai. B. The Summer Palace. C. Classical Gardens of Suzhou. 49. What do the four Chinese World Heritage Sites have in common? A. They are wonders of nature. B. They are located in northern China. C. They have rich cultural value. 50. How does the writer introduce the four world heritage sites? A. By telling interesting stories B. By giving facts and descriptions. C. By comparing old and new world heritage sites. B Imagine sitting with other people at big and long tables. You can get your own dish by yourself. The menu changes every day, so you never feel bored! The food is simple, but it tastes really great. Then here’s the surprising part: after eating, everyone helps to do the dishes and tidy up together. It really happens in a community space called Absalon in Denmark (丹麦). There, every night, people take part in community dinners (公共饮食). Community dinners are really cheap. Usually, you only need to pay between $3 and $15 per person. At Absalon, dinner is $9 from Sunday to Wednesday. But on other days, it’s $15 because Absalon offers people dessert. Children under 3 can eat for free. However, most people don’t come here just for the low prices. They come to make new friends and talk with others! According to Absalon’s founders, many people feel lonely these days. “Community dinners are the perfect way to solve this problem,” they said. “They bring people together to share a nice meal and have a happy talk.” If you go there alone, the hosts might place you at a table with friendly people, or others who are also by themselves, to encourage conversation. After dinner, people can have fun in many other ways too! For example, they can play table tennis, do yoga, or just relax on comfortable sofas. Community dinners are such special experiences. You get to meet new people, feel like you’re part of Danish culture, and enjoy a cheap but delicious meal — all at the same time! 51. What is special about community dinners? A. They offer simple but delicious food. B. People can choose food by themselves. C. All guests clean up together after meals. 52. Mr Black will take his 12-year-old daughter and 2-year-old son to Absalon for dinner next Friday. How much should he pay? A. $18. B. $30. C. $45. 53. What can we infer (推断) from paragraphs 4 & 5? A. The place helps people feel less lonely. B. Most guests choose to have meals alone. C. People have to talk with others if they eat there alone. 54. What does the underlined word “They” refer to? A. The nice meal. B. The community space. C. Community dinners. 55. What is the best title for the passage? A. Free meal for the old in Denmark. B. A special eating experience in Denmark. C. Ways to make better communities in Denmark. 第二节 补全短文（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后方框中的 A-F 选项中，选出适当的选项补全短文，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置 。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Did you ever volunteer some of your time to help others? 56 You can learn about yourself, learn about others and help others as you help yourself. One of the hardest parts of volunteering is to find a volunteering chance. 57 . Homeless shelters (收容所) In almost all big cities, there’s at least one homeless shelter. 58 Most homeless shelters welcome volunteers. You can help to prepare meals. Helping others learn to read Reading is one of the most important skills a person can have. Many people, however, have never learned how to read. 59 . Animal shelters Many animal shelters are non-profit (非营利) or government organizations. 60 And they also need volunteers to keep everything clean and help people know about protecting animals. You can call an animal shelter for more information. A. It can help homeless people with meals, beds and other services. B. If you do volunteer work, you can get a lot. C. Reading makes you grow as a person. D. So they welcome volunteers to help look after animals. E. Here are some ideas for you. F. Volunteers can help people to learn this important skill. 第四部分 口语应用（满分10分） 根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出适当的选项补全对话，并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分 10分） A: Hey, Jenny. What are you doing now? B: I’m reading a book called Tom Sawyer. A: 61 B: It’s fantastic and I like it a lot. A: Really? 62 . B: It’s about a boy living in the USA. He and his friends had funny and exciting adventures in a small town. 63 . A: No, I haven’t. Can you lend it to me after you finish reading it? B: Of course. A: 64 . B: In two days. A: Well, I’m coming to get it then, OK? B: 65 . A. No problem. B. What’s it about? C. Have you read it yet? D. What do you think of it? E. How soon will you finish reading it? 第五部分 写 （共四节，满分40分） 第一节 补全句子 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意及所给的首字母提示，用单词补全句子，并将该单词的完整形式写在答题卡上相 应的位置 。每空一词。 66. After thinking for a long time, he finally made a d______ to study abroad. 67. My parents are always p______ of my progress in school. 68. Too much p______ from study can make students feel stressed out. 69. It’s not good to speak to your parents in a voice full of ______ (angry). 70. The children played ______ (happy) in the park all afternoon. 第二节 语法填空 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，用括号内所给的单词的正确形式填空或根据上下文盲填，使短文通顺、意思完整， 并将其答案写在答题卡上相应的位置。 Cindy is a skiing lover. She is 71 18-year-old teenager from the US. On March 3rd, she went skiing in Maine. When she was planning to go home, a heavy snowstorm 72 (hit) the area. Cindy wasn’t able to see far. Before she knew it, she had lost her way. The girl was alone. She didn’t have food, water or a phone. She was getting colder and colder. Cindy didn’t know where she was. She tried her best to calm herself down. 73 (sudden), she thought of the survival (生存) shows named Man vs. Wild she watched on television. It was time to use the lessons she learned. She should find a place to keep 74 (her) warm. The first thing she did was to build a small snow cave (洞穴). Then she got many branches (树枝). She put them on top of the cave 75 (stay) warm. In the evening, Cindy was really hungry. She 76 (eat) snow and drank water from a river. She slept in the cave with her arms and legs close to her body. The next day, Cindy went out to look for help, 77 she couldn’t find anybody. So she went back to her cave. Two 78 (day) later, Cindy went out again. She walked for about a mile when somebody found her. Finally, Cindy was saved. Cindy felt 79 (luck) to be a fan of the show Man vs. Wild. She learned useful lessons 80 it, which helped save her life. 第三节 信息表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 完成表格 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，完成表格中所缺信息，并将其答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应的位置 。每空一词 。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） Many terrible things happen in the kitchen every year. However, we often forget how dangerous they can be because we go there every day. In fact, the kitchen is one of the most common places for home accidents. There are many reasons: Some kitchen designs are poor, or people do something wrong while cooking. No matter what the reason is, you can’t be too careful in the kitchen. Then how can you try to keep yourselves away from dangers in the kitchen? First of all, always keep your kitchen clean and tidy. Clean your stove and oven after use. Don’t leave food on the stove or in the oven, or it may catch fire. If there is water on the floor, remember to clean it up right away, or it can easily make you fall. Secondly, keep dangerous kitchen things in the right place. Knives, scissors and other sharp things can be dangerous for young children. Instead of putting them on the table, keep them where children cannot reach. But don’t put them too high, or they may hurt you when they fall down. Thirdly, don’t leave the kitchen when you are cooking. You must stay in the kitchen to keep an eye on the food you cook. And don’t look at your phone or do other things. If you have to be away from the kitchen, turn off the stove. Finally, as many fires start in the kitchen, prepare a fire extinguisher at home. You can put it in a dry and cool place in your home instead of near the stove. And make sure you know how to put out a fire with it. Don’t wait to read the instructions until you have a fire in the kitchen. Topic 81. ______ in the Kitchen Causes of accidents * Poor kitchen designs * People’s 82. ______ behaviors while cooking Useful 83. ______ * Keep the kitchen clean and avoid the risk of fire * Keep 84. ______ kitchen things in the right place * Be 85. ______ with food while cooking * Prepare fire safety tools at home 第四节 书面表达（满分 15 分） 当今社会，情绪受到越来越多的关注。假如你是李明，你校正在开展以“How to be in a Good Mood (心情)”为主题的演讲活动，请你结合你对情绪的认识写一篇演讲稿。 要求：1．语言表达准确，文章连贯、通顺； 2．文章应包括所有提示内容，可适当发挥； 3．文中不得出现真实姓名、校名等信息； 4．词数：80-120 左右。文章开头已给出，不计入总词数。 How to be in a Good Mood Dear teachers and classmates, As we all know, a good mood is really important in our daily life. ________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年度下期期末 八年级英语参考答案及评分意见 第一部分 听力（共20小题；满分30分） 1-5 ACBAB 6-10 CAABC 11-15 AAABA 16-20 CBBCA 第二部分 语言知识运用（共25小题；满分40分） 21-25 ABCAC 26-30 BAABB 31-35 CEDBA 36-40 ACABB 41-45 CABAA 第三部分 阅读（共15小题；满分30分） 46-50 BCACB 51-55 CBACB 56-60 BEAFD 第四部分 口语应用（共5小题；满分10分） 61-65 DBCEA 评分意见：1—20小题，每小题1.5分。21—30小题，每小题1分。31—65小题，每小题2分。 凡与答案不符的均不给分。 第五部分 写（共四节，满分40分） 第一节 补全句子（共5小题；满分5分） 66. decision 67. proud 68. pressure 69. anger 70. happily 评分意见：66—70小题，每小题1分。见错不给分。 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；满分10分） 71. an 72. hit 73. Suddenly 74. herself 75. to stay 76. ate 77. but 78. days 79. lucky 80. from 评分意见：71-80 小题，每小题1分。 第三节 信息表达（共5小题；满分10分） 81. Safety / Dangers 82. wrong 83. advice 84. dangerous/ sharp 85. careful 评分意见：81-85小题， 每小题2分。 第四节 书面表达（满分15分） 参考范文: How to be in a Good Mood Dear teachers and classmates, As we all know, a good mood is really important in our daily life. It not only makes us happy and healthy, but also keeps us full of energy all the time. There are many things that can influence our feelings, such as different colors, the changing weather, our living environment and some big events around us.In order to be in a good mood, here is some advice. We can try some useful ways to cheer ourselves up. We can go travelling to enjoy beautiful sights or ride bikes to take exercise. Besides, cooking and eating delicious food is also a great choice. If we have trouble dealing with bad feelings, we can talk with our family or friends, who will always listen to us carefully. Let us learn to keep a good mood and live a wonderful life every day. Thank you! 书面表达评分细则 一、评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按6个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。 4．拼写与标点符号是准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 5．如书写较差，以至影响评卷，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次给分范围和要求 第一档（13-15分）完成试题规定的任务。覆盖所有要点。较强的语言运用能力，词汇丰富，句式多样，语言地道，有个别小的语言错误，但不影响意义表达。有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档（10-12分）完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖大部分要点。较好的语言能力，意义表达基本准确流畅，用词和句式有一定变化，有个别小的语言错误，但不影响主要意义的表达。应用了简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档（7-9分）基本完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖部分要点。语言能力一般，句式结构单一，词汇使用有限，语言错误较多，在一定程度上影响了意义表达，但要点的关键意义能表达出来。应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（4-6分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。覆盖少部分要点，写了一些无关内容。语言能力较差，语言错误较多，严重影响了意义表达，仅少数句子能表达意义。较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯。信息未能清楚传达给读者。 第五档（1-3分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。语言能力极差，基本无完整句子，仅有一些单词与试题要求的内容相关。 第六档（0 分）未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷；写的内容均与所要求内容无关；所写内容无法看清。 四、说明 1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达。 2．应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $