河北省邯郸市肥乡区2025-2026学年八年级上学期11月期中英语试题(无答案)

2025—2026学年度第一学期期中教学质量检测 八年级英语试卷 听力部分 一、听力理解（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 第一节：你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 ( ) 1. Where did Tom visit last Sunday? A. B. C. ( ) 2. What are they talking about? A. B. C. ( ) 3. Who cooks meals in Peter’s family every day? A. His father. B. His mother. C. His sister. ( ) 4. Who is the strongest? A. Mike. B. Steve. C. Peter. ( ) 5. Where is the Chinese restaurant? A. In front of the office. B. Behind the office. C. Near the post office. 第二节：你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。 ( ) 6. What did Zhao Fei do in a TV show? A. He sang a Chinese song. B. He performed the swing dance. C. He performed Beijing Opera. ( ) 7. Where does he live now? A. In Australia. B. In Canada. C. In China. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 ( ) 8. When did Ann come back home? A. Yesterday afternoon. B. Last night. C. This morning. ( ) 9. What did Ann do in Sanya? A. Went fishing. B. Lay on the beach. C. Went swimming. ( ) 10. What can Ann show to the boy tomorrow? A. Photos. B. Cards. C. Maps. 第三节：你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 ( ) 11. Who went to the museum with Judy? A. Her friend. B. Her classmate. C. Her brother. ( ) 12. How many areas did the guide show them around? A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Nine. ( ) 13. What was there in the first area? A. Rocks. B. Animals. C. Clothes. ( ) 14. Which animal didn’t they see? A. The lion. B. The snake. C. The tiger. ( ) 15. What does Judy think of her trip? A. Helpful. B. Exciting. C. Boring. 第四节：你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Amazing Plants and Animals Sunflowers ●They always 16. ______ the sun. ●They follow the sun to get more sunlight for 17. ______. The cheetah ●It is the 18. ______ land animal. ●It can run at a speed of up to 19. ______ kilometers per hour. ●It has long legs and a(n)20. ______ body to catch its food quickly. 笔试部分 二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A ( ) 21. Mrs. Smith wants to sign up for her two daughters. How much should she pay? A. ¥200. B. ¥350. C. ¥400. D. ¥700. ( ) 22. Tina, a middle school student, shows much interest in the ice skating camp. What can she do at the camp? A. She can practice how to skate well. B. She can get a pair of skates for free. C. She can teach others to skate at the camp. D. She can spend the whole winter holiday at the camp. ( ) 23. Where does the text probably come from? A. A shopping list. B. A movie poster. C. A storybook. D. A sports magazine. B This is my first trip in China during the National Day holiday. It was a very wonderful experience. I got to the clean, lovely city of Yangzhou with my family by plane in the morning. The hotel we were staying in was very comfortable and inexpensive. Yangzhou is in the eastern part of Jiangsu Province, an ancient city. There are lots of places of interest. At first, we visited the Slender West Lake (瘦西湖) ,one of the most famous parks in China. When we went boating, we saw many fish swimming and beautiful flowers in the sun. It just took my breath away. I couldn’t help picking a flower, but my father said it was bad to hurt the flowers. Besides (除此之外) ,the Slender West Lake is famous for the different kinds of fantastic ancient buildings. We walked along the Wuting Bridge and climbed the ancient tower! Later we went shopping and bought a few silk scarves for our friends in the street market. At noon we tried the delicious special food—huaiyangcai. After that, we took part in some activities. We were so happy that we didn’t notice the time. When we went back to the hotel, we all kept thinking about the trip! ( ) 24. During which season did the writer visit Yangzhou? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Autumn. D. Winter. ( ) 25. How did the writer go to Jiangsu of China? A. B. C. D. ( ) 26. Which sentence might the scenery in Yangzhou remind you of? A. 莲花卧水风情在，塔影停云禅语浓。 B. 故人西辞黄鹤楼，烟花三月下扬州。 C. 青苔满阶砌，白鸟故迟留。 D. 谁知竹西路，歌吹是扬州。 ( ) 27. Put the following sentences in the right order according to Paragraph 3. ①The writer took part in some activities. ②The writer went shopping and tried the delicious food——huaiyangcai. ③The writer went boating and picked a flower in the river in the Slender West Lake. ④The writer walked along the Wuting Bridge and climbed the ancient tower. A. ②④①③ B. ④①③② C. ③④②① D. ①②④③ C In a high school, four students are talking and laughing happily. They are good friends with completely different characters. Emily is the group’s “parent”. She’s the most responsible. When they hang out with Emily, they don’t need to worry about anything. She always has plans and makes sure things go well. And if someone wants to find a person to talk to, Emily is always there to listen to them. If someone needs advice, Emily is the first person they go to. Alex, however, is a quiet but talented boy. He doesn’t talk much and he usually spends most of his free time reading in the school library, so he does well in exams. When his friends have some difficult problems in study, Alex is often ready to help them out. Students are all surprised at his intellect and great problem-solving skills. Liam is a born leader. He is cheerful and outgoing. He joins all kinds of clubs at school. He often organizes school trips, cycling races and other interesting games. All the students would like to play with him. Sophia is friendly and kind-hearted. She does different volunteer work after school. On Monday and Friday, Sophia goes to the children’s hospital. On Wednesday, she visits dogs and cats in an animal shelter (收容所). At the weekend, she helps clean up the neighborhood and look after the old people. ( ) 28. What does the underlined word“intellect” probably mean? A. Minds. B. Looks. C. Dreams. D. Discussions. ( ) 29. If Jack is interested in outdoor activities, who would he turn to? A. Emily. B. Alex. C. Liam. D. Sophia. ( ) 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. The story of four good friends. B. The importance of being kind. C. The four students’ nice life in a high school. D. The introduction to four students with different characters. D The National Tree Planting Day falls on 12th March every year. But do you know that the tradition of planting trees started a long time ago in China? It rained a lot around the Qingming Festival, People planted trees around this time because trees could grow better with enough rain. Ancient Chinese planted many kinds of trees like mulberry trees (桑树) and fruit trees. Farmers needed mulberry leaves to feed silkworms. They made clothes with silk, sold them to the west of the world and brought back what they need-ed. Another famous tree-planting lover, Zhuge Liang, planted 800 mulberry trees to help others. Dong Feng, a famous doctor in the Three Kingdoms Period (三国时期) , saved many people’s lives. He didn’t ask them for money. What he only asked forwas to plant a-pricot trees (杏树) on a hill. As time went by, a forest of apricot trees grew on the hill. That’s why we now show our thanks to a good doctor with the words “the warmth in an apricot forest”. There are many other interesting stories about planting trees. When the National Tree Planting Day comes next year, will you plant a tree with your wishes in it? ( ) 31. When is the National Tree Planting Day? A. On 11th March. B. On 12th March. C. On 13th March. D. On 14th March. ( ) 32. Ancient Chinese planted trees around the Qing-ming Festival because______. A. it was much warmer around that time B. farmers had more free time at that time C. the weather was better for trees to grow D. it was time to remember their dead family ( ) 33. The writer wrote Paragraph 2 to tell us that______. A. people planted trees to help the environment B. people could make mulberry leaves into clothes C. people only planted mulberry trees and fruit trees D. people could get what they needed by planting trees ( ) 34. The underlined part “the warmth in an apricot forest” means “______” in Chinese. A. 妙手回春 B. 古道热肠 C. 杏林春暖 D. 悬壶济世 ( ) 35. What is the best title for this passage? A. The Best Time to Plant Trees B. Tree Planting in Ancient China C. Good Reasons for Planting Trees D. An Interesting Story of a Doctor 第二节：阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选择。 (山西大同) Do you like to play? 36. ______ Do you know a special day for play? 11 June, 2024 was the first In-ternational Day of Play (国际游玩日). On 26 March, the United Nations decided to create a day to honour (表彰) play worldwide. 37. ______ It’s an important part of their growth. Play makes them move around, so they can be healthy. It also helps them make friends and know how to work with others. All of these things are important. In fact, play doesn’t only happen in free time. In school, play can make study more interesting. It helps kids remember information they need to learn. 38. ______ However, 80 per cent of children said their parents don’t think play is important. 39. ______The data (数据) came from a survey made by YouGov and the Child &Youth Friendly Governance Project in 2023. The groups surveyed about 10,000 children from more than 20 coun-tries. Now, some organizations (组织) want to tell people the importance of play. 40. ______ “Play is powerful,” McIsaac says. “Through the day, children understand and find out more about the world.” A. So they may like learning more. B. Do you think play is very important? C. Play is more than just a fun time for children. D. They still think that study is the most important thing. E. Almost every kid around the world likes to play in the park. F. That’s why they worked together to create the Interna-tional Day of Play. 三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 My dad really likes gardening, so he built a 41 in our yard. He plants a lot of 42 , and this year we have onions, cabbages, tomatoes, potatoes and carrots. Now, we are starting to 43 grapes, strawberries and pears. Growing plants isn’t easy. First, we 44 seeds at a store called “Garden nursery”. Next, we turn the soil over, and then plant the seeds. We then wait until the seeds 45 from the soil and turn into little leaves. My father and I water them every day. We have to do this 46 vegetables and fruits are just like us— they need water, air and food. So they can become better and 47 . Autumn is the 48 to harvest (收获). The garden gives us a lot of 49 vegetables and fruits to eat. With time and hard work, I have learned to look after the plants. It is really a great 50 . ( ) 41. A. garden B. house C. playground D. parking ( ) 42. A. trees B. vegetables C. flowers D. fruits ( ) 43. A. grow B. fight C. guide D. smell ( ) 44. A. sell B. ask C. buy D. watch ( ) 45. A. come out B. come in C. come on D. come up ( ) 46. A. though B. so C. or D. because ( ) 47. A. slimmer B. tinier C. healthier D. drier ( ) 48. A. season B. situation C. people D. place ( ) 49. A. soft B. crazy C. honest D. fresh ( ) 50. A. experience B. reason C. pleasure D. action 四、阅读表达（每小题2分，共10分） Many families live busy lives. Every week, the chil-dren have homework, sports, music lessons and club activi-ties. The parents are busy too. They work, do the house-work, cook meals and drive their children to take part in ac-tivities. Some families do not have time to eat meals togeth-er more than once a week. Our community (社区) decided that it was time to take a break. After three weeks of planning, we took one night off. We called it the “family night”. It was a night for families to spend time together. Sports teams stopped their prac-tices, and teachers did not give homework. On the “family night”, we decided to turn off our tele-visions. “We also decided not to answer the phone,” an-swering machines said. “Please call back tomorrow.” Many families ordered hamburgers and other food from stores or restaurants so that they wouldn’t need to spend time cook-ing. There were lots of activities. Storytelling and card games were the most popular. These activities gave families the chance (机会) to spend time together. Children and parents weren’t so busy, and children didn’t spend so much time playing computer games or watching TV. On the “family night”, families relaxed and spent the evening together. We hope to have more “family nights”. 51. What was the “family night”? _______________________________________________________________________________________ 52. How long did it take the community to plan for the “family night”? _______________________________________________________________________________________ 53. Why did people order food from stores or restaurants on the “family night”? _______________________________________________________________________________________ 54. What are the most popular events at the “family night”? _______________________________________________________________________________________ 55. Do you want to have a “family night” in your community too? Why? _______________________________________________________________________________________ 五、短文填空（每小题2分，共20分） 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词） Save lucky one large home start Few common so live The Yangtze River is the longest river in China. It is 56. ______to over 400 species (物种) like the Chinese sturgeon (中华鲟). The Chinese sturgeon is one of the 57. ______ fish in the world. A Chinese sturgeon can grow up to about 5 m long, weigh over 500kg and 58. ______ for about 40 years. They’ve lived on earth for about 140,000,000 years, 59. ______ people call them a “living fossil (化石)”. The Chinese sturgeon was 60. ______ in the river be-fore. However, it’s in danger now. Fishing too much in the 1970s made the species fewer and fewer. And in 1981, the building of the Gezhouba Dam put the sturgeon into two groups. The two groups could not get together. As a re-sult, the species became even 61. ______. So the help for the Chinese sturgeon is very necessary. 62. ______, China has already taken action. On 14th May, 2020, Shanghai passed a new rule to help the Chinese sturgeon. This was the 63. ______ rule to help the fish in danger. From then on, the country also 64. ______to stop people from fishing in the important areas of the Yan-gtze River. We believe the Chinese sturgeon will become more and more. We should also play a part in 65. ______ the species in danger. 六、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分） A: Hey, Mum. What are you doing? B: I’m preparing supper. 66. ______ A: Sure. B: 67. ______ A: OK, I’ll do it right away. Anything else? B: Yes. Could you please clean the dining table and chairs? A: Oh, no. 68. ______ What else do you want me to do? B: Could you please go and buy two bags of salt? A: Of course. 69. ______ B: No, you can’t. It’s dangerous for you to do that. A: Well, I’ll ride my bike there. 70. ______ B: Sure. But don’t eat too much. A. But can I drive your car to the store? B. Oh, can I buy ice cream there? C. How much salt do we need? D. Could you please help me with a few things? E. I hate to do it because it’s boring. F. Could you please take out the rubbish first? 七、书面表达（15分） 71. 假设你是李华。请根据邮件内容给你的英国笔友Jack回一封邮件。 Dear Li Hua, How’s it going? I saw lots of your photos on We-Chat Moments (朋友圈). I think you had a very won-derful time in the City Zoo. What did you do to have fun? And what do you often do with your family at weekends? Do you do housework? I’m looking forward to (期待) your reply. Best wishes! Yours, Jack 写作要求：（1）短文应包含所有要点，可适当发挥； （2）词数80左右，开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数； （3）文中不得出现真实的姓名和学校名称。 Dear Jack, I’m really happy to share my happy life with you. ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes! Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $