山东枣庄市台儿庄区2025 - 2026学年第一学期期末阶段性诊断 七年级英语试题

**基本信息** 七年级英语期末诊断试卷，通过听力、阅读、语言运用及写作模块，以日常交际、健康生活等真实情境考查语言能力与思维品质，适配期末综合评估需求。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |听力|3节/30分|日常应答、对话理解、信息填空|结合家庭活动等情境，考查听辨与信息提取能力| |阅读|2节/40分|动物故事、节日体验、健康科普|通过七选五等题型，融合推理判断与文化意识| |语言运用|2节/20分|词汇语法、上下文理解|完形填空以祖孙互动故事，渗透生活观察与学习能力| |写作|2节/30分|信息转述、情境写作|短文投稿结合郊游活动，综合考查语言表达与思维组织|

2025－2026学年第一学期期末阶段性诊断 七年级英语试题 本试卷共8页。满分120分。考试时长120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。答案写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分　听力（共三节，满分30分） 做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子。听完每个句子后，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。 1. A. It is from China. B. It’s monkey. C. It is clever. 2. A. Sounds great! B. I never eat it. C. Not really. 3. A. I seldom play it. B. I play it with my friends. C. It’s Han Lin’s. 4. A. Last week. B. We visited a museum. C. It was great. 5. A. It’s warm and sunny. B. That sounds amazing. C. I am playing volleyball right now. 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第1段材料，回答以下小题。 6. Which sport is Simon good at? A. B. C. 听第2段材料，回答以下小题。 7. What time does Mark get up on weekends? A. At 7:00. B. At 8:00. C. At 9:00. 听第3段材料，回答以下小题。 8. Where is Mike? A. In the classroom. B. In the supermarket. C. In the library. 听第4段材料，回答以下小题。 9. Why is Tom unhappy these days? A. Because he has to get up early. B. Because he has to do the dishes. C. Because there are too many rules in his family. 10. What must Tom do first after school? A. Do the dishes. B. Watch TV. C. Do his homework. 听第5段材料，回答以下小题。 11. What does the girl have for breakfast? A. A hamburger. B. An egg. C. An apple. 12. What does the boy usually have for breakfast? A. Milk. B. Eggs. C. Bread and juice. 听第6段材料，回答以下小题。 13. How long does Tina do sports every day? A. Half an hour. B. An hour. C. One and a half hours. 14. Where does she run? A. In the park. B. In the gym. C. On the playground. 15. When will they meet tomorrow? A. At 6:30 a.m. B. At 7:30 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。 A perfect winter day for Anna’s family Time 2:30 p.m. Place Central Park Weather Winters in the city are usually 16 and snowy. Today the sun is shining 17 . Activities ▶Anna is 18 on the ice. ▶Anna’s two brothers are 19 a snowman. ▶Anna’s parents are drawing a large tree on the snow. Feeling Everyone in the family feels 20 at this moment. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A It’s ten o’clock. “This class I want you to draw a picture of your favorite animal,” Mrs. Barnes says. “Yeah!” the students take out of their color pencils and draw. At a quarter to eleven, Mrs. Barnes says, “OK, It’s time to show your pictures to the class. Now, who wants to show first?” Jenny puts up her hand. “I want,” she says, “It is a monkey. Monkeys are smart and I like them.” “Very nice,” Mrs. Barnes says, “who’s next?” It’s Marcos. “It is a tiger. Tigers are beautiful and smart. They are orange with black stripes (条纹). But many people are afraid of them.” “Good,” says Mrs. Barnes, “we have time for one more. Who wants to show” Linda says, “It is a panda. Pandas are shy, but they’re cute. They like to eat bamboos (竹子).” “Good job!” Mrs. Barnes says. 21. How long do the students draw? A. For 15 minutes. B. For 30 minutes. C. For 45 minutes 22. Which of the following picture is Jenny’s? A. B. C. 23. What can we know from the passage? A. Students write stories in class. B. Linda thinks tigers are beautiful. C. Marcos is the second one to show the picture. B Dear Jack, I’m in Canada with my family, and we’re in my uncle’s big house. I’m happy to see my uncle and aunt, and my cousins Rob and Beth. The study (书房) and the living room are really big! I also like the game room, but my favourite room is the kitchen. There my aunt makes delicious food for us all! My uncle took us to a great children’s festival yesterday. It takes place every summer, because the weather is nice. There were children from different countries. We all liked different things! I liked a play (戏剧) from South Africa, and my uncle liked one from the UK. My sister Kathy enjoyed a Chinese play. We also ate some delicious food, and played some fun games with kids from other countries. We learned how to do tricks (戏法), but I liked painting faces best. We used a lot of colours so we all looked really funny! It was a relaxing day. We all had a good time. Yours, Alice 24. What does the underlined phrase “takes place” mean in Chinese? A. 陈列 B. 举办 C. 调整 25. Where did Alice like the play from? A. South Africa. B. China. C. the UK. 26. What did Alice like best among the activities at the festival? A. Painting faces. B. Playing fun games. C. Learning how to do tricks 27. What does the text mainly (主要的) talk about? A. Food in Canada. B. Going to a children’s festival. C. Alice’s uncle and aunt C Having a good sleep is important. If you have a sleeping problem, there is an easy way to help you improve your sleep. You may need to see more sunlight, especially (尤其是) in the morning, according to a study. A team of researchers (研究人员) from New York, US did the study. The team did a study on 109 office workers across the US. They find that some of the workers see lots of light during the morning hours, between 8:00 a. m. and lunchtime. The researchers find that these workers have a better sleep than other workers. They also fall asleep (入睡) more quickly at night. Why is sunlight so important to our sleep? Researchers say it helps us set our “body clock”. When there is less and less sunlight at the end of the day, our body starts to make melatonin (褪黑素). It makes us feel sleepy so that we know it’s time to go to bed. Our body makes the most melatonin at night. But during the day sunlight tells our body to make less melatonin so that we can stay awake (醒着) and do our work. Researchers advise that we should see 15 minutes of sunlight in the morning. It can help balance the melatonin in our bodies. 28. According to the study, what can people do to have a better sleep? A. Go to bed earlier. B. Eat healthier food. C. See more sunshine. 29. What CANNOT we learn from the text? A. The result of the study B. Why to see sunlight C. When to fall asleep 30. When do our bodies start to make melatonin? A. When we set our body clocks right. B. When there is less sunlight. C. When we get a lot of sunshine in daytime. 31. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Sunlight can help balance the melatonin in our bodies. B. Most office workers have sleeping problems. C. The more melatonin we make, the healthier we get. D A lot of people play sports, but very few people become sports professionals (专家). If sports aren’t going to be your future, then why should you play them? Why should you practice every day? Wouldn’t it be better to only focus on your lessons? Well, there are a lot of reasons to play sports. First of all, sports are a great way to exercise. Exercising keeps you healthy and strong. When you exercise, your body makes endorphin (内咖肽). It gives you more energy and makes you feel happier. Also, sports teach young people how to work as a team. They teach young people to respect their coaches (教练), teammates and players from the other team. Many studies say if a young person plays sports, he or she may have fewer problems. This is because sports teach people about rules. They also teach people that if they work hard, they might succeed. Another good way of sports is that they make people leave their houses. These days, a lot of people spend too much time watching television and playing video games. When you play sports you go outside and exercise in the sun, you take in clean air. All of these things are important. Maybe you’re not going to become a sports professional, but that doesn’t matter. Sports will help you become a better and happier person. 32. What gives you more energy and makes you feel happier? A. Endorphin. B. Sports professional. C. Your teammate. 33. What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 3 refer to (指的是)? A. Lessons. B. Sports. C. Rules. 34. Which of the following shows the structure (结构) of the passage? P= Paragraph (段落) A. B. C. 35. What does the passage mainly (主要的) tell us? A. Sports are good for people. B. Sports make people go outside. C. Sports teach people to work hard. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。 In June, 2024, China started a three-year plan (计划) called “Weight Management (管理) Year”. Its goal is to help people lose their weight and live a healthy life. 36 Walk more often. 37 It’s an easy way to move your body. Walk for at least 30 minutes a day. This easy exercise can help you stay healthy. Choose an activity you love. 38 Ask your friends to join you. Spend one hour playing together three times a week. You’ll have fun and stay fit at the same time. 39 You can water the flowers, clean the windows and wash clothes. These can keep you moving and are good for your health. Try dancing. Turn on your favourite music and dance at home. 40 Dancing makes exercise feel like a party, and it’s great for losing weight. The “Weight Management Year” is a great plan for our health. Let’s work together to make it! A. You can choose activities like playing basketball or badminton. B. Many people don’t want to lose weight. C. You can dance for 20 minutes every day. D. Walk to school or take a walk after dinner. E. Here is some advice that this plan gives to middle school students. F. Do some housework. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 This weekend, Max comes to see his grandma. Max loves her, but he doesn’t like to stay at her 41 . There is no computer or his favorite basketball, 42 he doesn’t have great fun. Grandma often reads stories for him. Grandma is good at writing stories about animals. After dinner, Max sees food scraps (食物残渣) on the table and cleans the table. “ 43 !” Grandma says. “I need the food scraps.” Then Grandma puts them with other food in the big yard with many trees. Grandma stops people from cutting down the trees. Lots of animals like to come to the big yard. “ 44 do you do that?” Max asks. “They are for my friends!” Grandma says. “You will see 45 tomorrow.” The next morning, Max follows Grandma to the yard. “Be 46 . My friends are very shy (害羞的),” Grandma says. “I see, Grandma. So the 47 , dogs, and rabbits are your friends!” Max says quietly. “Right. They like having breakfast under the trees. Sometimes I make fruit salad 48 them. With my friends, I can get ideas for my stories. My life here is never 49 .” Grandma says happily. Later that morning, Max writes a story, 50 . After reading it, grandma says, “Good job, Max. I like it.” 41. A. school B. party C. home 42. A. but B. or C. so 43. A. Run B. Stop C. Sell 44. A. What B. Why C. Where 45. A. them B. it C. us 46. A. healthy B. quiet C. young 47. A. cats B. vegetables C. flags 48. A. at B. for C. from 49. A. easy B. interesting C. boring 50. A. either B. too C. usually 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文并填空，然后将答案写到答题卡的相应位置（如有提示词，则填入提示词的正确形式；如无提示词，则填入1个适当的单词）。 Jim is a 12-year-old boy. He is 51 England. And now he 52 (live) in Shanghai with his parents. He is 53 student in the Sunshine Middle School. He 54 (like) reading very much. There is a bookshop (书店) next to his school. There are many 55 (book) in it. Last weekend, he 56 (go) to the bookshop. He 57 (buy) a book about Chinese history and it was 58 (real) interesting. On his way home, it began to rain, so he stopped. He ran to his school. His classmates were there, too. He was happy. He wanted to play games with 59 (they). At half past four, the rain stopped. He said goodbye to his classmates 60 felt very happy. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题，并将答案写到答题卡的相应位置。 Little Snow White When morning came, Snow White (白雪公主) woke up (醒来) and saw the seven dwarfs (小矮人）looking at her. At first, she was afraid, but they smiled kindly. “Who are you?” they asked, “How did you get into our house?” Snow White told them her story — how her stepmother (继母) wanted her to die, and how the huntsman (猎人) saved (拯救) her, and how she ran through the forest all day until at last she found their little house. “May I stay with you?” Snow White asked. They listened with great sympathy (同情) and said, “If you cook, clean, and take care of our home, you can stay with us. But never let anyone in — especially your stepmother!” “With all my heart,” said Snow White and so she stayed. Every morning, the dwarfs went to the mine (矿) to dig for gold. Snow White cleaned the house, cooked meals, and made sure everything was ready when they returned. They lived together happily. 61. How did Snow White feel when she woke up and saw the dwarfs? 62. Was Snow White’s stepmother nice to her? 63. How could Snow White stay with seven dwarfs? 64. What did the dwarfs do every morning? 65. What do you think of the dwarfs? 第二节（满分20分） 66. 假如你是李华，上周六你参加了你校组织的郊游活动。你校英文网站以“Our School Trip” 为题进行征文活动。请你根据以下要点提示，写一篇英语短文投稿，描述一下你们郊游的情况并谈谈你的感受。 Time last Saturday Weather windy and warm Place a farm Activities pick strawberries; water the plants; sing and dance; … Feelings … 要求： 1. 内容须包含以上提示要点，可适当发挥； 2. 70词左右； 3. 文中不得出现真实的姓名、校名和地名等真实信息。 Our School Trip _______________________________________________________________________________ 2025-206学年度第二学期期末阶段性诊断 七年级英语试题 第 6 页 共8页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025~2026学年度第二学期期末阶段性检测 七年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1-5 BAACA 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 6-10 CBCCC 11-15 ACACB 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 16. cold 17. brightly 18. skating 19. building 20. happy 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 21-23 CBC 24-27 BAAB 28-31 CCBA 32-35 ABBA 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 36-40 EDAFC 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 41-45CCBBA 46-50 BABCB 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 51. from 52. is living/lives 53. a 54. likes 55. books 56. went 57. bought 58. really 59. them 60. and 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 61. She felt/ was afraid. 62. No, she wasn’t. 63. She needed/ should/must cook, clean, and take care of the house. 64. They went to the mine to dig for gold. 65. They are kind/ friendly./They are ready to help people in need. （答案不唯一，表述合理和正确即可） 注：61－65小题，其他答案可酌情给分 第二节（满分20分） 一、评分原则： 1．本题满分为20分，分5个档次酌情给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．评分时应注意：内容要点的完整性；词汇和语法结构的多样性和准确性；上下文的连贯及语言的得体。 4．评分时，应考虑拼写和标点符号的使用。 5．如书写较差，影响对写作内容的理解，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档（很好）：（17－20分） —覆盖所有要点，内容充实 —语法结构多样，词汇丰富 —语法结构和词汇应用准确，虽有个别错误，但为使用较复杂结构或词汇所致；显示出较强的语言运用能力 —有效运用了连接成分，全文结构紧凑 —达到了预期的写作目的 第四档（好）：（13－16分） —覆盖所有要点，内容较充实 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足写作的要求 —语法结构和词汇应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因尝试运用较复杂语法结构或词汇所致 —运用了一些语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑 —基本达到了预期的写作目的 第三档（一般）：（9－12分） —基本覆盖所有要点，内容基本充实 —应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足写作的要求 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解 —运用了简单的连接成分，全文内容基本连贯 —尚能达到预期的写作目的 第二档（较差）：（5－8分） —未覆盖所有要点，内容不够充实 —语法结构单调，词汇较贫乏 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性 —未能将信息清楚地传达给读者 第一档（差）：（0－4分） —要点不清晰，内容不充实，或严重离题 —语法结构单调，词汇贫乏，词不达意 —通篇语法或词汇错误，句子支离破碎 —有效信息很少或几乎没有有效信息 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $