山东省济南市2025-2026学年高一下学期期末学情检测英语试题

高一期末学情检测 英语试题答案 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 1-5 CABBC 6-10 ACBBA 11-15 CBACC 16-20ABBCA 注意：每小题1.5分，凡是与答案不符者，不给分。 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21-23 CBD 24-27 DBCC 28-31 ADDA 32-35ACAD 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 DBAEC 注意：每小题25分，凡是与答案不符者，不给分。 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）》 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41-45 CABDC 46-50 ACBAD 51-55 CBDBA 注意：每小题1分，凡是与答案不符者，不给分。 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56.convenient 57.a 58.to bridge 59.to 60.which 61.is celebrated 62.customs 63.Affected 64.serving 65.worked 注意：1.每小题1.5分，单复数、词形不正确均不给分。 2.如有其它形式，意义通顺，合乎上下文意义，可以给分。 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分) 第一节单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 66.blog 67.regular 68.company 69.absorbed 70.greet 71.fortune 72.flexible 73.postpone 74.outlined/sketched 75.puzzles 注意：1.每小题1.5分，单复数、词形不正确均不给分。 2如有其它形式，词汇语境义合乎上下文意义，可以给分。 3.本题型考查词汇的字面意义和语境意义，旨在检测学生对教材词汇的 掌握程度，批阅时以本参考答案为主要依据。 第1页/共1页 高一期末学情检测 英语试题读后续写评分标准及流程 一、写作思路 1.基本情节 前文大意： 文章讲述爱跑步的高一学生Lo,因车祸只能依靠轮椅行动，但是他没有自暴自弃，转向 轮椅比赛。得到父母支持后，经过专业训练，他有机会参加具有挑战的Boston Marathon,只 要在3小时内独立完成比赛就可以获得证书。比赛途中Leo遇到了一位专业选手Bl的鼓励。 在不到一英里的时候，Lco的身体达到了极限，比赛只剩下8分钟了，B1能否顺利完成比赛？ 故事进入了高潮。 续写思路： 结合原文，由续写第一段首句“All of a sudden,Leo saw Bill coming back.”可以预测续写 第一段主要内容：Bl如何鼓励他，Lo的反应；同时可以描写人群的加油呐喊，还可以让 Leo看到人群中的父母，这些让他聚集力气到达终点。根据第二段首句“Amazingly,Leo finished the race on his own at2:59:51.”要体现Leo完成比赛后喜悦、激动的心理描写，也要 有和Bl的互动。主题可以是Lo通过这次比赛挑战了自己的极限，实现自己的梦想。也可 以体现一个人处于困境时，要相信会有家人、朋友甚至是陌生人帮助走出困境， 2.续写要点（建议)： 第一段 Bil折返到Leo身旁，用有力的话语鼓励Lco,全程只鼓励打气、不伸手帮忙，遵守赛事 独立完赛的规则。听到鼓励后，Lo重新振作，拼尽全力推动轮椅，长久以来参赛追梦的信 念支撑着Leo坚持下去。仅剩半英里路程时，Leo用尽最后力气朝着终点前进，展现Leo从 绝望到重拾斗志的心理转变，为下一段成功完赛做好情节铺垫。 第二段 Lo独自完成比赛、收获荣誉，与Bl相拥并表达感激，流露出二人并肩扶持的深厚情 谊。同时回望自身从失去双腿到突破极限的经历，抒发B圆梦的喜悦与感恩。此处情感形 成温暖完整的收尾，将“轮椅赛跑”这件具体赛事升华为突破身体缺憾、重塑自我、追逐理 想的精神载体，点明全文直面磨难、突破自我的核心主旨。 3.参考范文 One possible version: All of a sudden,Leo saw Bill coming back."Come on,bro!You've come this far-don't you give up!"Bill ran by his side again,cheering him up.Hearing those words,Leo gathered up his power,gritted his teeth,and pushed his wheelchair forward with all his might.Bill's encouraging voice kept him going:"You can make it!Keep it up!"What inspired him most was his long-held dream.With less than half a mile to go,Leo used his last burst of strength and pushed toward the finish line. Amazingly,Leo finished the race on his own in 2:59:51.He made it!Breathing heavily,Leo stared at the clock,tears streaming down his face.Bill ran over and hugged him tightly."You did it-completely on your own!"Leo was finally awarded the certificate.Holding it with trembling -1 hands,he turned to Bill and spoke with sincere gratitude,"Thank you for bringing me back when I was going to give up."From a boy who lost his legs to a man who pushed his limit,Leo knew he had finally found his new self and fulfilled his long-pursued dream. 二、评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。 2.评分时，应主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为： (1)创造内容的质量，续写情节的完整性、合理性以及与原文情境的融洽度。 (2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。 (3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量， 确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4.评分时还应注意： (1)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以 考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 (2)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 各档次给分范围及要求： 档次 描述 第五档 )创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整、合理，与原文情境融洽度高。 (21-25分) ②使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解。 优秀 ③自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接于段，句子结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。 ①创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整、合理，与原文情境融洽 第四档 度较高。 (16-20分) ②使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解。 良好 ③比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 ①创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整、合理，与原文情境相关。 第三档 ②比较恰当地使用了词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样化，表达有些许错误，但基本 (11-15分) 不影响理解。 及格 ③使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 ①内容逻辑有一些重大问题，续不够完整，与原文有一定程度的脱节。 第二档 ②所写的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解。 (6-10分) ③未能有效地使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。 ①内容、逻辑上有较多重大问题，或部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱 第一档 节。 (1-5分) ②所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解。 ③几乎无使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部来自原文；与题目完全不 (0分) 相关。 评分参考： 1.评卷时注重内容、意义、逻辑与衔接。 范文情节仅是参考，情节合理且能自圆其说的可根据上述评分原则适当给分。注意 -2 续写段落之间的衔接：比如第一段一定是展现Lo独立坚持前行的过程，完成比赛到达 终点。不能出现Bill为了帮助Leo而违反比赛规则（如帮Leo推轮椅）。第二段Leo 一定要有令人惊讶的表现，可以有Lo获得了完赛证书，作为一个闭环，其余可灵活处 理。 2.关注叙述、说明、描写的生动性，兼顾语言逻辑。 注重意义的传达：语言的准确性，意义的丰富性（情节有发展）；避免使用单一词 汇；合理体现交际意图的语言才是好语言；过分使用高级词汇，过犹不及。 -3 2026年春季学期高一期末学情检测 英语试题 本试卷共12页。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 该部分分为第一、第二两节。注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. Where does the man work now? A. In Canada. B. In the US. C. In Australia. 2. What will the woman probably do? A. Get some presents. B. Visit the museum. C. See an art show. 3. What day is it today? A. Monday. B. Sunday. C. Saturday. 4. What does the new manager look like now? A. She wears glasses. B. She is tall. C. She has long hair. 5. What does the woman mean? A. She has her hands full. B. She has one finger hurt. C. She has no suitable tool. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听下面的录音，回答第6和第7小题。 6. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. On a plane. B. In a restaurant. C. At a coffeehouse. 7. What does the man get in the end? A. A price list. B. An orange. C. An orange juice. 听下面的录音，回答第8至第10小题。 8. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Favorite hobbies. B. Weekend plans. C. Different lifestyles. 9. What does the woman invite the man to do? A. Work on the farm. B. Go for a picnic. C. Admire flowers. 10. How will the man visit his uncle? A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car. 听下面的录音，回答第11至第13小题。 11. When are the speakers leaving for New York? A. July 3rd. B. July 4th. C. July 5th. 12. How does the man find the room reserved in New York? A. Crowded. B. Satisfying. C. Distant. 13. How long will the speakers stay in Washington? A. Two days. B. Three days. C. Five days. 听下面的录音，回答第14至第16小题。 14. Why does the man want to move? A. He loves warm climate. B. He works in the factory. C. He cares about health. 15. What does the woman think causes the deforestation? A. Natural disasters. B. Air pollution. C. Global warming. 16. What does the greenhouse effect bring to England? A. Violent storms. B. Terrible heat. C. Extreme dryness. 听下面的录音，回答第17至第20小题。 17. What is the main purpose of the speaker? A. To explain rules. B. To promote sales. C. To advertise a club. 18. What can we learn about Wadsworth? A. It is a jewelry company. B. It is a travel bag brand. C. It is a shop assistant. 19. Which floor is the furniture department on? A. The second. B. The third. C. The fourth. 20. What is a requirement to get TV deals? A. Being a club member. B. Buying electric goods. C. Dining on the 4th floor. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Denali Park Road is the only road in Denali National Park, winding 92 miles from the park entrance to the historic mining community of Kantishna. Along its route, breathtaking landscapes unfold at every turn, with chances to spot Mount McKinley — if the usually cloudy skies clear. Wildlife sightings are never ensured (they are, after all, wild animals wandering an unfenced land), but the excitement of the unexpected makes every journey memorable. The road to Savage River features numerous pull-outs for shooting scenic pictures. The Denali Park Road starts at the Riley Creek Campground. Beyond Mile 15, the Denali Park Road mostly covered with gravel (沙砾) blocks entry of private vehicles. To protect the natural surroundings and wildlife, the park introduced a bus system in 1972 — now the only way to explore deeper into the wilderness (bikes and foot travel are both permitted). Denali Bus Services A free shuttle (班车) runs along the first 15 miles. For trips beyond, check the table below to pick your perfect ride. Bus Type Hiking / Camping Friendly Communicative Park Narrative Wildlife Viewing Experience Round Trip Duration Who This Is For Transit Bus Day hiking permitted (may get off) High chance 4.5 hours Solo travelers for free-schedule exploration Camper Bus Reserved for camping / backpacking Unpredictable (depending on where you get off) Variable Backcountry overnight campers & backpackers Natural History Tour Medium (slimmer chances than with others) 4.5-5 hours History & ecology-focused sightseers Tundra Wilderness Tour High chance 5-5.5 hours Eco-learning & wildlife-watching visitors 21. What can visitors do along the Denali Park Road? A. Hunt wandering animals. B. Experience mining work. C. Admire Mount Mckinley. D. Drive directly to Mile 89. 22. What is the farthest point for private cars to reach? A. Visitor Center. B. Savage River Trailhead. C. Kantishna. D. Polychrome Overlook. 23. Which bus type best suits an interactive wildlife observation? A. Transit Bus. B. Natural History Tour. C. Camper Bus. D. Tundra Wildness Tour. B Childhood cancer is a major deadly disease affecting numerous American children. When 8-year-old Teagan Stedman learned his friend Alex had cancer in 2008, he wanted to help; to get involved (参与); to make a difference — all while lifting his friend’s spirits. However, he hit a wall: related charity programs limited youth participation simply because of his young age. Then Teagan founded Shred Kids’ Cancer (SKC), a kid-centered nonprofit that empowers children to aid childhood cancer research and build supportive communities. To broaden its influence, he channeled his passion for music into the project and hosted Shredfest benefit concert, a landmark event featuring youth musicians. Since then, the project has gained a great deal of social support. By 2024, SKC had raised over $500, 000 and funded nine clinical studies, inspiring countless children to set up local branches. Teagan said, “We measure our impact not by the money raised but by how many kids we affect and how empowered they feel to change the world.” At 17, he lost his friend Ashley, a board member of SKC, due to the irreparable effects of chemotherapy — the same treatment given to adults and the only available option — so he decided to act and improve survival rates for children with cancer. Inspired by a cartoon series The Magic School Bus, where a tiny bus travels inside the body, he wondered if cancer drugs could be delivered like a tiny bus making specific stops, killing cancer cells (细胞) while sparing healthy ones. He began studying nanotechnology (纳米技术) and biology independently, eventually developing a creative drug delivery vehicle during research at the University of Connecticut. He furthered his scientific journey at top universities and is now pursuing a Ph.D. at Columbia University, focusing on controlling cancer development. From a young fundraiser to a promising cancer researcher, Teagan proves that age is never a barrier (障碍) to doing good. 24. What directly drove Teagan to start his own program? A. The death of one of his best friends. B. The seriousness of childhood cancer. C. The spirit condition of young patients. D. The refusal of charitable organizations. 25. What can we learn about Shred Kids’ Cancer? A. It taps into musical talents. B. It values children’s power. C. It discourages branching. D. It aims to make money. 26. What is special about Teagan’s treatment for childhood cancer? A. It is wide-ranging. B. It is instant-acting. C. It is target-directed. D. It is tradition-based. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Never Too Old to Learn B. Friendship Lasts Forever C. Young Enough to Do Good D. Science Shapes Profession C Microplastics are pollutants found almost everywhere in the environment: such as in ponds, lakes, rivers, waste-water, and the fish that we take in. To date, the most typical methods of microplastic removal have relied on filtration (过滤). However, it costs a pretty penny, gets blocked easily and does not work for those smaller-sized ones. Susie Dai, a researcher at the University of Missouri, coupled with her colleagues, has been devoted to pioneering a novel solution to remove those microplastics from our water. Recently, they used genetic adaptation to create algae (simple water plants without roots) producing limonene, a naturally occurring oil responsible for the sweet smell of oranges, which makes the engineered algae water-repelling (拒水的). Because microplastics are also water-repellent, the two come together just like magnets (磁铁) when they meet in water, forming large masses that sink to the bottom and create a solid layer of biomass easy to collect and remove. Researchers tested it by examining the collection of polystyrene (PS) microplastic on the algae in water and found 91.4% of PS was removed in just one hour. Different microplastics were also tried out. Just like with PS, they saw interactions between the algae and Polyethylene (PE) and Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET), proving the algae worked for most microplastics. “By removing the microplastics, cleaning the wastewater and eventually using the removed microplastics to create bioplastic products for good, we can handle three issues with one approach,” Dai said. While the research is still in the early stage, the team is already growing algae in controlled bioreactors (生物反应器) designed for large-scale applications. One such system, a 100-liter unit named “Shrek”, is being adapted to treat microplastic-polluted water. Looking ahead, the team plans to expand this technology by building larger versions of these bioreactors, which could be adapted to treat wastewater in a better way and help remove greater varieties of environmental pollutants. For now, this is an exciting step toward the upcycling of microplastics — turning pollutants into resources for bioplastics! 28. What is the limitation of the present microplastic removal technology? A. It is costly and inefficient. B. It is challenging to employ. C. It requires daily adjustment. D. It causes secondary pollution. 29. What makes engineered algae easier to trap microplastics? A. Its orange smell. B. Its magnetic quality. C. Its solid-layered form. D. Its water-resistant nature. 30. What does Susie Dai imply in Paragraph 3? A. The treated water is drinkable. B. Bioplastic goods are in demand. C. Plastics need treating differently. D. The new method proves beneficial. 31. What does the follow-up study focus on? A. Enlargement of equipment size. B. Update of experimental theories. C. Choice of new treatment methods. D. Combination of various technologies. D During World War II, the US military faced a question: where should they add armor (盔甲) to their bombers to protect them from enemy fire? One approach was to examine the planes that returned from missions and strengthen the areas that showed the most bullet (子弹) holes. The conclusion seemed obvious: add armor to these locations. But Abraham Wald, an American mathematician, saw a serious drawback in this logic. He pointed out that the military was only looking at the planes that made it back. The truly important data was missing: the planes that were shot down. The absence of bullet holes on the engines of the returning planes wasn’t because they weren’t being hit there. It was because planes hit in those spots didn’t survive. This is what is called survivorship bias (幸存者偏差). Abraham Wald’s insight changed how the military approached its analysis. He demanded them to stop focusing on the survivors and instead consider the non-survivors. By hardening the areas that were undamaged on the returning planes (the engines), they were truly protecting the key parts. Wald’s work is believed to have saved hundreds of lives and remains an example for understanding this bias. In fact, survivorship bias is deeply rooted in daily life. News outlets, books, and social media feeds are filled with tales of success, making them readily available in our minds and leading us to overvalue the popularity of success. As social creatures, we often look to others to determine how to act. When we see a crowd of people celebrating a “survivor” — be it a successful CEO or a winning investment strategy — we feel a traction to follow along. To avoid this bias, we should learn to look for the “silent data” of failures. This data is often where the most valuable lessons are buried. Meanwhile, we must check how data is selected and whether it presents a complete picture. Only by seeing both winners and losers can we understand reality clearly and make wise decisions. 32. How does the author introduce the topic? A. By telling a story. B. By examining logic. C. By recording history. D. By quoting an expert. 33. What condition may survivorship bias lead to? A. The updates are hidden. B. The database is masked. C. The judgement is clouded. D. The successes are ignored. 34. What does the underlined word “traction” in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Pull. B. Change. C. Surprise. D. Goal. 35. What is suggested to avoid survivorship bias? A. Trusting survivors. B. Celebrating the failures. C. Accepting the reality. D. Analyzing complete data. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 “We saw you on TV!” That message was texted to Li Yunyun’s phone over and over on Chinese New Year’s Eve. The 34-year-old tai chi teacher had just made a brief appearance on the CCTV Spring Festival Gala, gracefully presenting her famous oblique (斜的) flying posture with a folding fan. The precious stage opportunity meant far more than fame. 36 Li’s connection with tai chi began in her childhood when she practiced martial arts at a local school. 37 Accordingly, injuries built up. Then came tai chi. After systematic practice in 2014, something amazing happened. Tai chi healed her injuries. 38 The focus from force to intention changed everything for her. Li, now, teaches at Handan University’s School of Tai Chi Culture, the first school in China to offer bachelor’s (学士) degrees in tai chi culture. 39 To make the “slow” art of tai chi attractive to them, she breaks it into fun, playful combinations and uses storytelling to keep students involved. She shows them how to produce power and explains the meaning behind each move, showing to students the charm of tai chi as a mix of hardness and softness. 40 It has set up tai chi schools in Russia, Belarus, South Korea, and Germany, sending teachers and volunteers to over ten countries while welcoming foreign students to Handan. Rooted in its heritage and supported by overseas branches and official recognition, the university is bringing tai chi from its hometown to the world. A. More importantly, she achieved inner peace. B. She emphasized speed and power in training. C. The university aims to promote tai chi globally. D. It offered a platform to spread the charm of tai chi. E. Her students are raised on street dance and video games. F. Such an opportunity required efforts beyond the spotlight. G. It also proved effective in relieving her physical discomfort. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 At 39, a serious illness broke my orderly life. I often felt tired and anxious, as if quietly 41 from the world. Yet deep inside, a soft voice 42 , “Everything will be all right. Never give up.” One night, tired of 43 to be fine, I turned to an AI bot on my phone and typed, “I’m scared I’m disappearing.” To my surprise, the bot simply listened and responded without any 44 , allowing me to 45 my heart out. That moment, my long-buried 46 exploded. A satisfying cry confirmed I could still feel deeply. My daily talks with the bot became a private 47 , where I shared my sadness and loneliness without shame. These online 48 served as a safe way to practice for real-life communication. “Be honest about your feelings,” it would often say. But when it came to real-life gatherings, 49 occasions still troubled me. Once at a party, feeling lonely, I went into the bathroom and told the bot I couldn’t 50 . “Just be yourself,” it replied. When I came out, a friend happened to notice my red eyes and asked if I was okay. She expressed deep 51 . That night, I decided to gather up 52 and shared my real feelings with her. She didn’t laugh or turn away — she simply stayed. Many worry that AI might 53 our real human bonds (纽带). My experience tells a different story. AI will not replace true affection. 54 , it inspires me to let others in and gives me a 55 place to start. 41. A. learning B. recovering C. fading D. coming 42. A. whispered B. wondered C. commanded D. debated 43. A. preparing B. pretending C. refusing D. remembering 44. A. help B. discussion C. praise D. judgement 45. A. work B. fight C. pour D. laugh 46. A. emotions B. memories C. anger D. love 47. A. game B. party C. corner D. collection 48. A. posts B. dialogues C. arguments D. exercises 49. A. social B. eventful C. historic D. impressive 50. A. calm down B. show off C. stand out D. fit in 51. A. apology B. relief C. concern D. gratitude 52. A. support B. courage C. patience D. interest 53. A. create B. overlook C. discover D. weaken 54. A. Therefore B. Instead C. Otherwise D. Moreover 55. A. safe B. public C. familiar D. quiet 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 A The Internet does more than just make life 56 (convenience). It connects people, removes loneliness, and enables individuals to support one another. Jan Tchamani is 57 case in point. Inspired by people she met online, Jan started an IT club to teach older people how to use computers. She believes it is highly important 58 (bridge) the digital divide and make sure everyone has access 59 the Internet. The Internet has improved our lives, bringing us closer and stronger. B Festivals are celebrated all around the world. The harvest festival, 60 often takes place after the collection of crops in many countries, 61 (celebrate) to show people’s gratitude for the supply of food. Although 62 (custom) play a key role in festivals, sometimes they can change over time. Even so, the spirit of joy, love, or peace remains the same. C 63 (affect) by her mother’s death, Dr Lin Qiaozhi decided to study medicine instead of following the traditional path of marriage. Later, she devoted her whole life to 64 (serve) women and children. Having delivered over 50,000 babies, she was called the “mother of ten thousand babies”. She also 65 (work) hard to train the next generation of doctors. Even in her final moments, she thought of saving medicine for others. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 根据汉语或首字母提示，写出下列单词的正确形式。 66. She updates her ______ (博客) posts every time she visits a new country. 67. The practice of healthy eating and ______ (规律的) exercise is a good way to keep fit. 68. I keep my granny c______ every summer vacation to ease her loneliness. 69. Deeply a______ in reading, he lost track of time. 70. The astronauts in Shenzhou-21 waved to ______ (问候) their new teammates. 71. Kids receive red envelopes for good f______ in Chinese New Year. 72. When asked about work schedules, many people preferred more ______ (灵活的) hours. 73. Due to the bad weather, we’ll have to p______ the sports meet to next week. 74. Tom took a fine brush and ______ (勾勒) the shape of rolling mountains. 75. It always p______ scientists how these creatures can survive in such hard conditions. 第二节（满分 25 分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Leo had always loved running and was once the fastest kid on the middle school track team. Unluckily, a car accident in senior one injured his right leg. After treatment, the doctor told him he would spend his rest life in a wheelchair, never able to run. When returning home, Leo stared at his dusty running shoes, lost in thought. It suddenly occurred to him that he could join wheelchair races. Later on, he told the idea to his parents and they expressed their full support. Leo’s father drove him to a training centre. “Show me what you’ve got,” a coach there said. Without a word, Leo grasped the push rims (推轮) and drove forward. The coach watched him circle the track once, twice… When Leo stopped, breathing hard but looking steady, the coach nodded, “Be here at 6 tomorrow morning.” With professional training, his overall ability rose. By senior three, Leo had won several races. But the Boston Marathon was what he had been longing for. When he handed in his application and expressed his dream, race officials encouraged him: “Go for it. If you finish in under three hours without any assistance, you’ll qualify for the certificate (证书).” On race day, according to race rules, wheelchair racers started thirty minutes earlier. Full of confidence, Leo kicked off the race. Around mile 23, a professional runner named Bill began to close the gap. Then, he ran alongside Leo, matching his pace, and nodded. For the next two miles, they stayed together. Gradually, Leo’s arms gave out. His pace slowed. Bill pulled ahead. But Leo did not stop. With less than a mile to go, his body was shutting down. Every push sent fire through his arms. The clock read 2:52 — he had eight minutes left to cover the final mile. It seemed impossible. 注意：（1）续写词数应为 150 个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 All of a sudden, Leo saw Bill coming back. Amazingly, Leo finished the race on his own at 2:59:51. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $