江西赣州市南康区2025-2026学年度第二学期期末检测试卷七年级英语

2025至2026学年度第二学期期末质量检测试卷，七年级英语听力测试现在开始。请听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。won. What would you like for dinner today? Tony. chicken or fish? I'd like some fish, please. What would you like for dinner today? Tony, chicken or fish? I'd like some fish, please. Two, what's your favorite animal? I like penguins best, because they are so cute. What's your favorite animal? I like penguins best because they are so cute. Three, jack, take some warm clothes though. It's very hot in shanghai. It's cold in australia. Okay, I will. Mom, thank you. Jack, take some warm clothes though. It's very hot in shanghai. It's cold in australia. Okay, I will. Mom, thank you. L, hi, mike. What are you doing? I'm watching a socket game on T. V. Hi mike. What are you doing? I'm watching a socket game on T. V. Five, Peter, how was the dinner in slide seafood restaurant yesterday? Oh, I wouldn't go there again. Peter, how was the dinner in a seafood restaurant yesterday? Oh, I won't go there again. B请听下面三段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你都将有时间阅读各小题，每段对话或独白读两遍。请听第一段对话，完成第六至第八小题。Hi, Steve. What's your favorite food? I like volleyball best, and i'm on a volleyball team. Ema. wow, that's cool. How often do you play volleyball? I usually play IT on wednesday and saturday. Do you enjoy IT? Yes, I love IT. It's tired, that fun, and my team is really great. Hi Steve. What's your favorite food? I like volleyball best, and i'm on a volleyball team. Ema. wow, that's cool. How often do you play volleyball? I usually play IT on wednesday and saturday. Do you enjoy IT? Yes, I love IT. It's tired about fun and my team is really great. 请听第二段对话，完成第九至第十一小题。Mary, do you have any rules at . your home? Yes, I have a lot of . rules at home today. Well, I have to stay at home on school nights. Me too, but sometimes I can study with my friends. What about your weekends? I can go to the park with friends on saturday evenings. Mary, do you have any rules at your home? Yes, I have a lot of . rules at home. What today? Well, I have to stay at her on school nights. Me too, but sometimes I can study with my friends. What about your weekends? I can go to the park with friends on saturday evenings. 请听第三段对话，完成第十二至第十五小题。Hello, this is lisa . speaking. Hello, lisa, this is tony. Where are you now? I'm . visiting my uncle in beijing. really? How's IT going? Pretty good. I'm having a good time with my cousins. How's the weather in beijing? Is is cold? No, IT isn't. It's Sunny and warm these days. I like the weather in china. That's good. It's rainy in new york today, and I stay at home all day. It's boring. Hello, this is lisa . speaking. Hello, lisa, this is tony. Where are you now? I'm . visiting my uncle in beijing. really? How's IT going? Pretty good. I'm having a good time with my cousins. How's the weather in beijing? Is a cold? No, IT isn't. It's Sunny and warm these days. I like the weather in china. That's good. It's rainy in new york today, and I stay at home all day. It's boring. C请听下面一段独白，独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，独白读两遍。请听独白，完成第十六至第二十小题。Hi everyone. I'm tom. I'd like to share our school trip lost friday with you. IT was really a day to remember. We visited a nature park, and IT was wonderful. We learned about different kinds of trees and birds, and we also help clean up the park. The most special part was learning how to tell the trees age by its rings. IT was really amazing. Teacher said, trees are like nature's story books. We took a lot of photos and had lunch together. The trip was not only fun, but also useful. I hope we can go on another one like IT next year. Hi everyone, i'm tom. I'd like to share a school trip last friday with you. IT was really a day to remember. We visited a nature park, and IT was wonderful. We learned about different kinds of trees and birds, and we also help to clean up the park. The most special part was learning how to tell a three age by its rings. IT was really amazing. Our teacher said. Trees are like native story books. We took lots of photos and had lunch together. The trip was not only fun, but also useful. I hope we can go on another one like IT next year. 听力测试到此结束。 2025-2026学年度第二学期期末检测试卷 七年级英语 说明: 1. 本试题卷满分120分, 考试时间120分钟。 2. 按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答, 答在试题卷或其它位置无效。 一、听力理解 (本大题共20小题, 每小题1分, 共20分) A) 请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What would Tony like for dinner? A. Some fish. B. Some tofu. C. Some chicken. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What’s the boy’s favourite animals? A. Pandas. B. Penguins. C. Monkeys. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 How’s the weather in Australia? A. Cool. B. Hot. C. Cold. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is Mike doing now? A. Watering the flowers. B. Watching a game. C. Playing soccer. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the boy mean? A. He didn’t like the food there. B. He didn’t have dinner yesterday. C. He liked the restaurant very much. B) 请听下面3段对话。每段对话后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前你都将有时间阅读各小题。每段对话或独白读两遍。 请听1段对话,完成以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. What is Steve’s favourite sport? A. Volleyball. B. Football. C. Baseball. 7. How often does Steve practice it? A. Twice a week. B. once a month. C. Three times a year. 8. How does Steve feel about this sport? A. It’s easy but great. B. It’s tiring but fun. C. It’s difficult and sad. 请听1段对话，完成以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 9. What are they talking about? A. School rules. B. Home rules. C. Weekend plans. 10. When does Mary have to stay at home? A. On Saturday evenings. B. On school nights. C. On Sunday afternoons. 11. What can Mary do on Saturday evenings? A. Study with friends. B. Watch TV. C. Go to the park. 请听1段对话,完成以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 12. Where is Lisa now? A. In China. B. In Canada. C. In America. 13. How’s the weather in New York? A. Warm. B. Sunny. C. Rainy. 14. What is Tony doing in New York? A. Visiting his uncle. B. Staying at home. C. Playing with his cousins. 15. What can we get from the conversation? A. Lisa is visiting her uncle. B. Tony thinks staying at home is great. C. Tony is having a good time with his cousins. C) 请听下面一段独白, 独白后有5个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听独白前你将有时间阅读各小题。独自读两遍。 请听独白,完成以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 16. When was the school trip? A. Last Monday. B. Last Friday. C. Last Sunday. 17. What did Tom do to help the park? A. Planted trees. B. Did some cleaning. C. Fed the birds. 18. How did Tom know a tree’s age? A. By looking at its leaves. B. By looking at its height. C. By looking at its rings. 19. What did Tom think of the trip? A. Boring. B. Terrible. C. Useful. 20. Which of the following is true? A. Tom went to the nature park with his parents. B. Tom took many photos at the park. C. Tom learned about different kinds of fish. 二、基础知识与运用 (本大题共20小题, 每小题1分, 共20分) 语音知识。阅读下面对话, 从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A farmer worked in the field every day. One day, a rabbit ran fast and hit a tree. It died. The farmer picked it up and took it home. He was very happy. After that, he waited by the tree every day. He wanted more rabbits, but no rabbit came. What a poor farmer! 21. Which word has the same sound of “c” from the word “came”? A. catch B. city C. delicious D. nice 22. Which word has a different sound of “ed” as in “picked”? A. helped B. laughed C. finished D. enjoyed 23. Which word has the same sound of “or” as in “worked”? A. short B. world C. for D. horse 24. Which word has a different sound of “wh” from the word “what”? A. where B. why C. which D. whose 25. Which sentence has the same stress pattern (重读模式) as “He was very happy.” ()? A. They play football well. B. I love my cat. C. She is a teacher. D. Do you see rabbits? B) 根据句意和首字母提示写出单词, 使句子通顺、合理、意思完整。 (每小题1分) 26. We need to eat breakfast because food can give us e________. 27. The elephants are very p________ and love to play in the water. 28. When you meet someone for the first time, it’s p________ to smile at them and say hello. 29. I really want to climb the mountain, but it is raining h________. 30. —What’s the w________ like in Shanghai? —It’s sunny and windy. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中, 每词仅用一次。 instead of health true improve something Do you like watermelons? Some people think sweet watermelons have additives (添加剂) , but that is wrong. Farmers do not put ____31____ into the fruit. Why are watermelons sweeter today? Better farming helps. Scientists ____32____ the way to grow them. The fruit tastes very good now. Some people say seedless (无籽) watermelons are GMO (转基因) . That is not ____33____ either. Scientists use safe ways ____34____ GMO. Also, eating watermelon with other fruit will not cause any ____35____ problems. Just keep the fruit clean and cool, and enjoy! D) 请根据所给的单词和标点符号组成句子, 使句子通顺、合理、意思完整。按句子书写规则将答案写在四线格里。 (每小题 1 分) 36. like, cake, would, a, noodles, you, birthday, or (? ) ____________________________________________________________________________________ 37. make, breakfast, I, before, have, my, to, bed (.) ____________________________________________________________________________________ 38. beautiful and smart, animals, giraffes, favourite, they’re, because, my, are, (.) ____________________________________________________________________________________ 39. two, table, of, were, the, milk, there, on, a few minutes ago, bottles (. ) ____________________________________________________________________________________ 40. you, play, do, often, how, football (? ) ____________________________________________________________________________________ 三、单项填空 (本大题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分) 请阅读下面各小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 41. —These plants are growing so well. How do you make it? —I take good care of them and ________ them every day. A. save B. grow C. treat D. water 42. —It takes an artist weeks to finish a work. But AI only needs a few minutes! —Really? That sounds________. A. scary B. terrible C. awful D. magical 43. They work together to ________ a beautiful painting in the art class. A. create B. teach C. realize D. remove 44. —Did you go fishing yesterday? —No, because it________ rained and we had to stay at home instead. A. hopefully B. exactly C. suddenly D. slowly 45. —Why is Simon angry with Daniel? —Simon is angry because Daniel didn’t keep his ________. A. experience B. promise C. result D. practice 46. Emma studies very hard and she makes great_________ this term. A. progress B. result C. experience D. choice 47. —Are those books your parents’? —No, they aren’t. _________ are on the desk. A. Ours B. His C. Hers D. Theirs 48. —Do you like jogging? —Yes. I ________ do it on weekends with my parents. A. seldom B. often C. hardly ever D. never 49. Look! Judy________ games on the playground. Let’s go and have fun together! A. is playing B. plays C. played D. will play 50. He helped his mother clean the rooms and then ________ his homework yesterday afternoon. A. do B. doing C. does D. did 四、完形填空 (本大题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分) 请先阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意。然后从各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 I love visiting museums when I go on a trip. One ____51____ in Chengdu is very special to me. It ____52____ stories about the past things long ago. There is a true story about an old man of the Chinese People’s War of Resistance Against Japanese Aggression (抗日战争) in 1943. A bullet (子弹) was in his body for many ____53____ . When he learned the museum was being built in 1980, he asked doctors to take the bullet ____54____ . He wanted to give ____55____ to the museum. I went to the museum ____56____ to look for that bullet. The first time, I saw many old guns, uniforms, and names of heroes in the exhibition. However, it was ____57____ to find just one bullet. The second time, I went on Qingming Festival. I heard a little boy ask his father, “ ____58____ are these statues (雕塑) ?” His father said, “They are the people we ____59____ remember. We come here to show our respect.” Then I understood. Maybe that bullet is not something you find in a glass box. It is there to make us remember the hard times and the brave people who ____60____ homes for us. 51. A. library B. museum C. park D. shop 52. A. tells B. says C. talks D. speaks 53. A. days B. months C. years D. hours 54. A. out B. off C. away D. down 55. A. it B. them C. him D. her 56. A. once B. twice C. three times D. four times 57. A. easy B. hard C. interesting D. perfect 58. A. Why B. When C. Which D. What 59. A. can B. may C. must D. could 60. A. bought B. built C. found D. painted 五、阅读理解 (本大题共20小题, 每小题2分, 共40分) A) 阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Join us for your holiday! We have a great tour for every season. Spring Kunming, Yunnan ¥2,399 Spring is the best time to visit Kunming. It is warm and sunny. You can see many flowers and walk around Dianchi Lake. The air is clean and fresh. Summer Urumqi, Xinjiang ¥2,199 Summer is great for visiting Urumqi. It is not too hot. You can go to the Tianshan Mountains and see the beautiful Tianchi Lake. You can also try fresh grapes and mutton skewers. Autumn Beijing ¥1,299 Autumn in Beijing is cool and nice. The Great Wall looks beautiful with red and yellow leaves. You can walk on the Mutianyu Great Wall. There are fewer tourists. Winter Harbin, Heilongjiang ¥2,899 Winter is the best time to visit Harbin. There is an Ice and Snow Festival. You can see big ice castles and colorful lights. It is very cold, so wear warm clothes. You’re going to have a great time on your holiday with Happy Tours! 61. What is the best time to visit the Tianchi Lake? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Autumn. D. Winter. 62. Tom likes to take photos of flowers and walk around a lake. Where can he go? A. Kunming. B. Urumqi. C. Beijing. D. Harbin. 63. What can you know from these ads? A. Harbin is warm and sunny in winter. B. You can see ice castles in Urumqi in summer. C. You can spend ¥2,399 visiting Beijing in autumn. D. The Great Wall in autumn has red and yellow leaves. B Li Yunyun is a tai chi teacher. On Chinese New Year’s Eve, she played on the Spring Festival Gala (春晚) for a few seconds. She showed a special tai chi move. For her, those seconds meant a lot. Li started learning martial arts (武术) at age seven. Her father took her to a martial arts school, but she wanted to learn dancing. At first, she cried every day. Later, she fell in love with martial arts. At school, Li did not like tai chi at first. She thought it was too slow. But after she practiced it, her body felt better. Tai chi also helped her with sports injuries (损伤). Now Li teaches tai chi at a school. Her students are young people. At first, some of them thought tai chi was for old people. But after learning from Li, they found it helpful for their mind and body. One student said tai chi helped her feel less stressed. Li also makes short videos of tai chi. Many people watch them online. She wants more people to know about tai chi culture. She said tai chi is not just a sport—it is a way of life. 64. Where did Li Yunyumn show her special tai chi move? A. At her school B. On the Spring Festival Gala C. In a short video online D. At a martial arts school 65. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph2 refer to? A. tai chi B. martial art C. dancing D. body 66. What can we infer (推断) from the last paragraph? A. Few people learn tai chi from her videos. B. Tai chi is only fit for young people. C. Li sees tai chi as more than just a sport. D. Li makes short videos mainly to become famous. 67. What is the best title for this passage? A. How a Tai Chi Teacher Became Famous Online B. The Importance of Tai Chi for Old People C. A Tai Chi Teacher Sharing Her Love for Tai Chi D. Why Tai Chi Is Better Than Other Sports C April 8 is International Rare Animal Protection Day (国际珍稀动物保护日). On this day, we remember to save animals in danger. Huang Hongxiang is 38 years old. He has worked to save animals for 13 years. He says people are the biggest danger to these animals. Some people sell them or cut down their forests. That is why saving animals is about helping people follow the rules. Huang’s job is to stop those people. He works in Africa, South America and Southeast Asia. Now, he is trying to stop people from selling pangolins (穿山甲) in Laos. These animals are in great danger. What he does every day is not playing with animals. He talks with those people and stops them. His work is not easy. Sometimes he feels sad because bad things still happen. But he does not give up. He keeps on working to save animals. Huang also teaches young people how to save animals. He wants them to learn how to take care of animals. “I hope young people know that saving animals is not easy. But once they know it’s a big challenge (挑战), they can help make the world a better place.” Huang says. 68. What is Huang Hongxiang’s job? A. To save animals. B. To sell pangolins. C. To talk with people. D. To play with animals. 69. What does the writer mean by saying “saving animals is about helping people follow the rules”? A. Animals need to learn to follow people’s rules. B. Protecting animals is less important than making rules. C. The real problem is not the animals themselves but people’s activities. D. Only by making more rules can we stop people from selling animals. 70. What can we infer from the last paragraph? A. Huang thinks young people are too weak to face the challenge. B. Huang believes that understanding the challenge can encourage young people to help. C. Huang wants young people to give up and leave the work to others. D. Huang thinks saving animals is an easy job for young people. 71. What is the passage mainly about? A. A man who keeps working to save animals. B. How to stop people from selling animals. C. The challenges of saving animals. D. Why young people should learn to take care of animals. D A few hundred years ago, each town had its own time. But when trains began to carry people across different towns, train schedules (时刻表) became confusing. Why? Because every town where the train stopped had a different time. The first country to set a standard (标准的) time was Britain. People used London time as the standard. The Great Western Railway (铁路) was the first to use it, in November 1840. In less than seven years, almost all railways in Britain used London time. The US had the same problem. In 1878, a Canadian named Sir Sandford Fleming said: let’s divide (划分) the globe into 24 time zones. Each time zone is 15 degrees of longitude (经度) wide. Each is one hour apart. In 1883, US railway companies started using Fleming’s time zone. The next year, at a meeting in Washington, D.C., people chose Greenwich, England as the Prime Meridian (0 degrees longitude). They also set 24 time zones. Today, most countries still use Fleming’s time zone, but some do not. All of China uses only one time zone, even though it spans (横跨) five. Australia has three time zones. Some countries in the Middle East and South Asia use half-hour time zones. So now, there are 37 time zones in the world. 72. What does the underlined word “confusing” mean? A. Boring. B. Interesting. C. Unclear. D. Easy. 73. What problem did the US have with their railway schedules? A. The railway companies often changed the schedules. B. There was a different time in every place where the train stopped. C. The US could not decide which city’s time to use as the standard. D. There were too many time zones, and people could not remember them. 74. What’s the correct order of the following events? a. Sandford Fleming suggested dividing the globe into 24 time zones. b. People chose Greenwich as the Prime Meridian and set 24 time zones. c. Almost all railways in Britain used London time. d. US railway companies used Fleming’s time zone system. A. a-d-c-b B. c-a-d-b C. c-b-a-d D. a-d-b-c 75. What’s the best title of the passage? A. The History of Time Zones B. Different Time Zones in the World C. The Use of Time Zones D. The Problems of Time Zones 请阅读下面短文, 然后根据短文内容回答问题, 并将答案写入答题卡相应位置上。 Long ago, birds flew in any way they liked. Some flew high. Some flew low. Some flew quickly. Some flew slowly. The sky was very noisy and not in order. One day, an old eagle called a meeting. “We need rules,” he said. “Without rules, there is only chaos (混乱). That means no order.” A little sparrow (麻雀) laughed. “Rules? How boring! I want to fly free.” Many birds agreed with him. The next day, a big storm came. The wind was very strong. Without any rules, the birds flew in different directions. Many got lost. Some flew into each other. A few young birds fell into the river. After the storm, the old eagle spoke again. “You see? Without rules, we cannot stay safe. Let’s make some simple rules. We will fly in groups. We will take turns to fly first.” This time, all the birds listened. They made rules. From that day on, they flew in a V-shape. The strong birds were in front. The weak birds followed. They could fly a long way and stay safe. The little sparrow said, “Now I understand. Rules are not to punish us. They help us work together.” 76. What did the birds do before they had rules? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 77. Who called the meeting? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 78. What happened to the birds during the big storm? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 79. What rules did the birds make after the storm? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 80. What did the little sparrow learn at the end of the story? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 六、补全对话 (本大题共5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分) 请阅读下面对话, 根据对话内容从七个选项中选择五个填入空白中, 使对话通顺、合理, 意思完整, 一空一句。 (Mr Smith is in a restaurant. Mr Smith=M, The waiter=W) W: Good morning, sir. ____81____ M: Yes. I’d like mutton noodles. W: OK. ____82____ M: A large one, please. W: Would you like some soup? ____83____ M: Are there any onions in the beef soup? W: Yes. M: Oh, that’s bad. W: ____84____ M: No, I don’t want any soup. W: I see. ____85____ M: I’d like some orange juice. W: I see. Wait a moment, please. A. How much are the mutton noodles? B. May I take your order now? C. We have beef soup. D. What would you like to drink? E. Do you want a different soup? F. What size would you like? G. We have tomato soup. 七、书面表达 (15分) 86. 健康的生活是成长和成才的保障。请结合自己的真实情况， 用英语写一篇短文，介绍你喜欢的食物、你的日常饮食习惯，并反思可以如何改进。 写作要点: 写作要求: 1. 短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚, 行文连贯，可适当发挥; 2. 短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名; 3. 词数不少于70词，短文开头和结尾已给出, 不计入总词数。 Everyone has eating habits. Some are good, some are bad. Here are my eating habits. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Good habits take time. I will start with one small change today. 2025-2026学年度第二学期期末检测试卷 七年级英语 说明: 1. 本试题卷满分120分, 考试时间120分钟。 2. 按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答, 答在试题卷或其它位置无效。 一、听力理解 (本大题共20小题, 每小题1分, 共20分) A) 请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A B) 请听下面3段对话。每段对话后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前你都将有时间阅读各小题。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~8题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. A 8. B 【9~11题答案】 【答案】9. B 10. B 11. C 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A C) 请听下面一段独白, 独白后有5个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听独白前你将有时间阅读各小题。独自读两遍。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. B 二、基础知识与运用 (本大题共20小题, 每小题1分, 共20分) 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. D B) 根据句意和首字母提示写出单词, 使句子通顺、合理、意思完整。 (每小题1分) 【26题答案】 【答案】 energy##nergy 【27题答案】 【答案】 playful##layful 【28题答案】 【答案】 polite##olite 【29题答案】 【答案】 heavily##eavily 【30题答案】 【答案】 weather##eather 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. anything 32. improved 33. true 34. instead of 35. health D) 请根据所给的单词和标点符号组成句子, 使句子通顺、合理、意思完整。按句子书写规则将答案写在四线格里。 (每小题 1 分) 【36题答案】 【答案】 Would you like a birthday cake or noodles? 【37题答案】 【答案】 I have to make my bed before breakfast. 【38题答案】 【答案】 Giraffes are my favourite animals because they’re beautiful and smart.##My favourite animals are giraffes because they’re beautiful and smart. 【39题答案】 【答案】 There were two bottles of milk on the table a few minutes ago. 【40题答案】 【答案】How often do you play football? 三、单项填空 (本大题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分) 请阅读下面各小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 【41题答案】 【答案】D 【42题答案】 【答案】D 【43题答案】 【答案】A 【44题答案】 【答案】C 【45题答案】 【答案】B 【46题答案】 【答案】A 【47题答案】 【答案】D 【48题答案】 【答案】B 【49题答案】 【答案】A 【50题答案】 【答案】D 四、完形填空 (本大题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分) 【51~60题答案】 【答案】51. B 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. B 58. D 59. C 60. B 五、阅读理解 (本大题共20小题, 每小题2分, 共40分) A) 阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A 【61~63题答案】 【答案】61. B 62. A 63. D B 【64~67题答案】 【答案】64. B 65. A 66. C 67. C C 【68~71题答案】 【答案】68. A 69. C 70. B 71. A D 【72~75题答案】 【答案】72. C 73. B 74. B 75. A 【76~80题答案】 【答案】76. They flew in any way they liked. 77. An old eagle. 78. Many got lost, some flew into each other and a few young birds fell into the river. 79. They would fly in groups and take turns to fly first. 80. Rules are not to punish them but help them work together. 六、补全对话 (本大题共5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分) 【81~85题答案】 【答案】81. B 82. F 83. C 84. E 85. D 七、书面表达 (15分) 【86题答案】 【答案】 Everyone has eating habits. Some are good, some are bad. Here are my eating habits. I like eating vegetables and drinking milk very much. Cabbage is my favorite vegetable because it is delicious and healthy. As for my eating habits, I have some good ones. For example, I eat an apple every day and I never eat junk food. However, I also have some bad habits. I sometimes eat too much meat for dinner, which makes me feel uncomfortable. To improve my eating habits, I think I should eat more fruit and vegetables instead of too much meat. Also, I shouldn’t eat late at night. Good habits take time. I will start with one small change today. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $