内容正文:
2025至2026学年度第二学期期末考试卷七年级英语听力材料。第一节听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。When Lucy, do you . get a bad half past six? No, rick, I get up at six thirty, but you get up at six o clock every day. When Lucy, do you get a bad half past six? No, rick, I get up at six thirty, but you get up at six o'clock every day. Too, let's go to the zoo this saturday, Lucy. Sorry, I want to read books in the light in this weekend. Too, let's go to the zoo this saturday, Lucy. Sorry, I want to read books in the life really this weekend. Three, I love pandas. Best word about you. I like elephants. They are very big and gentle. Three, I love pandas. Best word about you. I like elephants. They are very big and gentle. For lets go out to play basketball. I'm afraid weekend it's wining heavily outside. For lets go out to play basketball all. I'm afraid weekend it's raining heavily outside. Five, blind, are you watching TV now? No, i'm washing both in the kitchen. Five blind, are you watching T, V now? No, i'm washing both in the kitchen. 第二节听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳答案,每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第六至第7两个小题。Tom, how do you go to school every day? Do you take the bus? No, I ride my bike to school. How long does IT take you? About fifteen minutes. Tom, how do you go to school every day? Do you take the bus? No, I ride my bike to school. How long does IT take you? About fifteen minutes. 听下面一段对话,回答第八至第13个小题。Hello, welcome to our school clubs. Which club do you want to join? I want to join the art club. I like drawing. Can you draw? Well, yes, I draw pictures every day after school. Our club activity is every wednesday afternoon. You can come then. Hello, welcome to our school clubs. Which club do you want to join? I want to join the art club. I like drawing. Can you draw? Well, yes, I draw pictures every day after school. Our club activity is every wednesday afternoon. You can come then. 听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15 5个小题。Mike is my new class mate. He comes from australia. He is thirteen years old. His favorite subject is geography because he loves learning about different countries. After school, my usually plays basketball with his friends on the playground. He plays IT very well. Mike wants to be a musician in the future. He practices playing the piano every evening. Mike is my new class. May he comes from australia. He is thirteen years old. His favorite subject is geography because he laughs learning about different countries. After school, mike usually plays basketball with his friends on the playground. He plays IT very well. Mike wants to be a musician in the future. He practices playing the piano every evening. 第三节听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成16至20小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。读白读两遍。Summer vacation is coming and makes her travel plan. SHE will go to change you with her parents by playing. SHE wants to eat delicious hot part there. They will stay in chengdu for two weeks. SHE also plans to visit the pad base and take many photos. SHE thinks this trip will be wonderful. Summer vacation is coming and makes her travel plan. SHE will go to chengdu with her parents by plane. He wants to eat delicious hot pot there. They will stay in chengdu for two weeks. He also plans to visit the panda ase and take many photos. SHE thinks this trip will be wonderful. 听力到此结束,请继续做笔试部分。
2025-2026学年度第二学期期末考试卷
七年级英语
注意事项
1.本试卷共六大题,11页,满分:120分 考试时长:100分钟
2.答题前,请将姓名、班级、考号填写在答题卡指定位置。
3.所有答案均需写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
4.听力播放完毕后,方可开始作答笔试部分。
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。
1.What time does Rick get up every morning?
A. At 6:00 B. At 6:30 C. At 7:00
2.Where does Lucy want to go this weekend?
A. The zoo B. The park C. The library
3.What animal does the boy like best?
A. Pandas B. Tigers C. Elephants
4.What’s the weather like today?
A. Sunny B. Rainy C. Windy
5.What is Linda doing now?
A. Reading a book B. Washing dishes C. Watching TV
第二节听下面几段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题
6.How does Tom go to school every day?
A. By bus B. By bike C. On foot
7.How long does it take Tom to get to school?
A. Ten minutes B. Fifteen minutes C. Twenty minutes
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题
8.What club does the girl want to join?
A. The music club B. The art club C. The sports club
9.What can the girl do?
A. Draw pictures well B. Play the guitar C. Swim fast
10.When is the club activity?
A. Every Monday afternoon B. Every Wednesday afternoon C. Every Friday afternoon
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题
11.Where is Mike from?
A. Canada B. Australia C. America
12.How old is Mike?
A. Twelve B. Thirteen C. Fourteen
13.What’s Mike’s favorite subject?
A. Math B. English C. Geography
14.What does Mike usually do after school?
A. Play soccer B. Play basketball C. Play volleyball
15.What does Mike want to be in the future?
A. A teacher B. A doctor C. A musician
第三节 听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成16-20小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。独白读两遍。
16. Where will Anna go?
A. Sanya B. Chengdu C. Xi’an
17. Who will she go with?
A. Her parents B. Her sister C. Her friends
18. How will they get there?
A. By train B. By plane C. By car
19. What food does she want to eat?
A. Hot pot B. Seafood C. Noodles
20. How long will she stay there?
A. One week B. Two weeks C. Three weeks
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读A、B、C、D四篇语言材料,然后按文后的要求做题。
A
Hello, everyone. My name is Wang Mei, a Grade Seven student from No.3 Middle School. The summer vacation is coming soon, and I make a strict plan for these two months. First of all, I will finish all my summer homework in the first three weeks. My math is not good, so I plan to do two pages of math exercises every morning to improve my calculating skills. After finishing homework, I will read at least two English storybooks each week. I love reading foreign stories because they let me know different cultures in other countries.
In my free time, I will help my parents do housework. My mom is always busy with cooking and cleaning after work. I can sweep the floor, wash my own clothes and set the dinner table every day. On weekends, my family will take me to visit my grandparents in the countryside. My grandpa has a big farm with many fruit trees, such as peach trees and pear trees. I can pick fresh fruits and feed little chickens there. It’s much more fun than staying at home playing mobile games.
I also want to learn a new skill this summer—swimming. My dad will take me to the community swimming pool every Tuesday and Thursday afternoon. Swimming is great exercise, and it can make me strong. I hope I can swim alone without any floating boards before the vacation ends. I won’t spend too much time on short videos or computer games. Instead, I will go cycling in the neighborhood park for an hour every evening. Fresh air and sports can keep me healthy both in body and mind.
I believe this meaningful summer vacation will make me grow a lot. I won’t waste any time, and I will stick to my plan every single day.
21. What subject is Wang Mei weak in?
A. English B. Math C. Geography D. History
22. How many English storybooks will Wang Mei read every week?
A. At least two B. At least three C. At most two D. At most three
23. Where are Wang Mei’s grandparents living?
A. In a big city B . In a small town C. In the countryside D. Near the swimming pool
24. When will Wang Mei learn to swim?
A. Every Monday and Friday B. Every Tuesday and Thursday
C. Every Wednesday and Saturday D. Every Sunday afternoon
25. What’s the main idea of the passage?
A. Wang Mei’s school life B. Wang Mei’s summer vacation plan
C. Wang Mei’s favorite sports D. Wang Mei’s family rules
B
If you want to make new friends at school, you need some simple but useful skills. Many middle school students feel nervous when talking with strangers, but small changes in your behavior can help you get on well with classmates easily. Here are four great tips for you.
First, wear a warm smile when you meet others. A smile is the most friendly language in the world. When you walk in the hallway, look at your classmates’ eyes and smile gently. People will think you are easy to get close to, and they will take the first step to talk with you. If you always keep a straight face, others may think you are unfriendly and dare not talk to you.
Second, learn to listen carefully when others talk. Lots of students only want to share their own stories but ignore their friends’ words. When your deskmate tells you his or her happy or sad things, put down your pen, look at him or her and respond properly, like saying “That sounds great!” or “I’m sorry to hear that”. Good listeners are always popular among students. No one likes talking with people who don’t care about their feelings.
Third, take part in group activities actively. Schools hold many interesting activities every term, such as sports meetings, singing contests and volunteer work. Don’t stay in your classroom alone during these activities. Join different groups, work together with your classmates and finish tasks side by side. When you finish a hard task together, you will build deep friendship with your partners.
Last, remember small details about your new friends, like their favorite food, favorite animals or their birthdays. When you talk with them next time, mention these small things, they will feel you really pay attention to them. It will make your friendship much stronger.
Making friends is not hard at all. Just be polite, warm and sincere, and you will have lots of good friends around you soon.
26. How many pieces of advice does the writer give us to make friends?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
27. What does the underlined word “ignore” mean in Chinese?
A. 重视 B. 忽视 C. 理解 D. 安慰
28. Which action can make you popular with classmates?
A. Keeping quiet all day long B. Only talking about yourself
C. Listening to others patiently D. Refusing all school activities
29. What can we learn from the passage?
A. A cold face makes more friends.
B. Group activities help build friendship.
C. We don’t need to remember friends’ hobbies.
D. Students can’t talk with strangers at school.
30. The passage is written for ______.
A. teachers B. parents C. doctors D. middle school students
C
Four Special Wild Animals
Here is a table introducing four kinds of lovely wild animals. You can know their living places, eating habits and living problems clearly.
Animal
Living Place
Food
Daily Habit
Dangerous Situation
Red Panda
High mountains of China, Nepal
Fresh bamboo leaves, fruit, eggs
Sleep in tree holes during daytime; look for food at night
People cut bamboo forests; caught for fur
Koala
Eastern Australia forests
Eucalyptus leaves only
Sleep 18–20 hours every day; slow-moving
Forest fires destroy their homes
Giraffe
African grasslands
Tree leaves, especially acacia leaves
Stand when sleeping; long necks help get high leaves
Hunters kill them; grasslands become farmland
Sea Turtle
Worldwide warm seas
Seaweed, small fish, jellyfish
Swim thousands of miles to lay eggs on beaches
Plastic pollution; people take their eggs
Red pandas are not pandas. They have red-brown fur and long fluffy tails. They are only the size of a big cat. Many tourists mix them up with giant pandas, but they belong to different animal families. They cannot live without bamboo, just like giant pandas.
Koalas look cute and lazy. Eucalyptus leaves have little nutrition, so koalas sleep most time to save energy. They hardly drink water. The word “koala” means “no water” in local Australian language. Wild fires are their biggest enemy in recent years. Thousands of koalas lose their lives every time a big fire breaks out.
Giraffes are the tallest land animals on Earth. Their long necks let them eat leaves other animals cannot reach. They do not sleep for a long time. They only rest for 20 minutes to two hours each day. Now more and more African grasslands are turned into farms, so giraffes have less space to move around.
Sea turtles have lived on Earth for millions of years, but they are now in great danger. They often take plastic bags as jellyfish and eat them by mistake. Plastic will stay inside their bodies and kill them slowly. Besides, many people dig turtle eggs from beaches for food.
All four animals are protected wild animals. Governments make strict rules to stop illegal hunting. As students, we can learn more about wild animals and tell people around us to protect nature.
31. Where do red pandas mainly live?
A. Australian forests B. Chinese high mountains
C. African grasslands D. Warm sea water
32. Why do koalas sleep almost all day?
A. They are too lazy to move
B. Their food has little nutrition
C. They are afraid of other animals
D. They have nothing to eat at night
33. What food do giraffes love most?
A. Bamboo leaves B. Eucalyptus leaves
C. Acacia tree leaves D. Seaweed
34. What makes sea turtles in danger?
A. Forest fires B. Less bamboo
C. Plastic pollution D. No grasslands
35. What is the main idea of the text?
A. The introduction of four endangered wild animals
B. Different ways wild animals sleep every day
C. How governments protect forest animals
D. Students’ ways to visit wild zoos
D
Nowadays, many students take after-school classes on weekends. Some students go to math, English or physics training classes, while others take art, dancing and piano lessons. Different students have different ideas about after-school classes. Let’s listen to three students’ opinions.
Li Jia, 13 years old: I have six after-school classes every weekend. My parents think good grades can help me get into top high schools in the future. I get up at seven on Saturday morning and finish all classes at eight in the evening. I almost have no free time to do what I like. I love drawing cartoons, but I haven’t touched my sketchbook for two months. Every night I feel tired and stressed. I hope my parents can understand me and cut down some training classes for me. I just want one day to relax, read comic books or walk with my pet dog.
Zhang Hao, 12 years old: I only take an English speaking class every Sunday morning. I don’t feel pressured at all. My mom doesn’t force me to take many classes. She says learning should be fun instead of a heavy task. In the speaking class, our teacher plays interesting English games and watches cartoon videos with us. I make three new friends there, and we practice talking in English together after class. This class improves my oral English a lot, and I still have lots of time to play basketball with my friends on weekends. I think proper after-school classes are helpful for students.
Chen Xi, 13 years old: I don’t take any after-school classes. My teachers say listening carefully in class and finishing homework seriously are enough for learning school subjects. When my classmates are busy rushing to different training centers, I stay at home to do my homework, help my mom cook or go mountain climbing with my dad. I have enough time to develop my hobbies, such as growing flowers and writing short stories. My grades are always in the top ten of our class. I believe self-study is more important than expensive after-school classes.
36. How many after-school classes does Li Jia take every weekend?
A. Three B. Four C. Six D. Eight
37. What is Li Jia’s hobby?
A. Playing basketball B. Drawing cartoons
C. Growing flowers D. Writing stories
38. Why does Zhang Hao take the English speaking class?
A. His mom forces him to study hard
B. The class is fun and improves his oral English
C. He wants to get the highest scores in exams
D. All his classmates take this class
39. What does Chen Xi do on weekends?
A. Takes math and art classes
B. Practices speaking English with friends
C. Does homework and develops hobbies
D. Rushes between different training centers
40. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Different students’ ideas on after-school classes
B. Good ways to get high exam grades
C. Popular hobbies among Grade Seven students
D. Useful skills to learn English well
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
阅读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的ABCD四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
Last month, our school held a one-day volunteer activity to clean the city park. All students in Grade Seven took part in it, and I still remember that special day clearly.
It was a sunny Saturday morning. We 41 at the school gate at eight o’clock. Our head teacher divided us into eight small groups, and each group got big rubbish bags and long garbage tongs. We walked to the city park together, and it only 42 us twenty minutes on foot.
When we arrived at the park, we were shocked to see so much trash everywhere. Plastic bottles, snack bags and waste paper 43 on the grass, under the benches and beside the lake. Some visitors threw rubbish casually without using the trash cans nearby. We started to work right away. My group was responsible for cleaning the lake side. There were many plastic bags floating on the water, and we used tongs to pick them up one by one. It was 44 work, but no one in our group complained.
A little boy about five years old walked over and watched us for a long time. Then he ran home and came back with a small paper bag. He helped us pick up small candy wrappers on the ground. His mother walked to us and said “Thank you” many times. We felt very warm when we heard her words. An old grandpa who was doing morning exercise also gave us a box of mineral 45 to show his thanks.
We kept working for hours. Some classmates cleaned the roads, some pulled out plastic from the lake, and others swept fallen leaves. We 46 stopped to have a rest until ten thirty. At noon, we finished all the cleaning work. The whole park looked clean and tidy. We put all the rubbish into different bins for recycling. Our teacher told us that plastic waste would pollute water and soil if people threw it everywhere. It was an important 47 for all of us. We learned that protecting public places is everyone’s duty.
Before leaving, we wrote warm signs and put them up beside every trash can. The words told visitors not to drop litter everywhere. We hoped more people would keep the park 48 in the future. On the way back to school, we talked happily about this activity. At first, I thought volunteering was 49 and hard. But after this experience, I changed my 50 completely. Helping others and making the city beautiful bring strong happiness.
I decide to join volunteer activities once a month from now on. When I go out with my family, I will ask them to 51 rubbish and put it in bins. I also tell my classmates to take part in small volunteer jobs on weekends. Small good habits can make a big difference to our 52 .
This activity taught me much more than textbooks. It lets me know we should not wait for others to protect public places. Every small action of ours can make our city a better 53 . I will never 54 this meaningful volunteer day, and I will keep doing good things to protect our living 55 .
41.A. met B. slept C. studied D. cooked
42.A. spent B. took C. paid D. used
43.A. flew B. ran C. lay D. jumped
44.A. lazy B. hard C. easy D. funny
45.A. water B. food C. books D. toys
46.A. seldom B. never C. always D. sometimes
47.A. problem B. lesson C. rule D. game
48.A. clean B. dirty C. quiet D. noisy
49.A. boring B. interesting C. popular D. dangerous
50.A. plan B. dream C. hobby D. idea
51.A. put up B. give up C. pick up D. cut up
52.A. school B. home C. environment D. classroom
53.A. world B. place C. village D. town
54.A. stop B. start C. forget D. finish
55.A. world B. school C. environment D. classroom
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节 阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺,意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
child, relax, shop, sun, swim, they, enjoy, friend, read, walk
Summer is my favorite season. The weather is usually bright and 56 Every summer vacation, I go to the coastal town with my 57. There are clear blue seas and soft sandy beaches there.
In the morning, we get up late and take a slow 58 along the seaside road. Some little 59 build sand castles near the water. My parents love 60 in small fruit stores to buy fresh mangoes and coconuts.
At noon, the temperature is high, so we stay in the hotel to keep cool. I spend my free time 61 English storybooks on the balcony. My parents listen to light music to make 62 feel relaxed.
In the late afternoon, the wind becomes cool. We go to the sea to go 63 The seawater is warm and comfortable. We play water games with other tourists and make new 64
At night, we sit by the sea and 65 delicious seafood dinner. This summer trip always makes me feel comfortable and happy.
第二节 阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,使短文通顺完整,每空一词。
Do you often watch animals in the zoo? Pandas are one of the most popular animals all over the world. They look cute with black and white fur. Pandas only live 66 China. Their favorite food is bamboo, and they eat lots of bamboo every day.
Many tourists come to zoos to see pandas every year. But wild pandas are in great danger now. People cut down bamboo forests, 67 pandas lose their food and homes. There are not many wild pandas left in nature.
Our government sets up many special panda reserves to protect them. Workers plant thousands of bamboo trees there. People cannot hunt pandas or break 68 living places.
As students, we can also do small things to help pandas. We can tell our family and friends 69 the danger pandas face. We should stop buying things made of animal fur. If everyone tries their best, we can help pandas live 70 safe and comfortable life.
五、补全对话(每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
Tom: Hi, Amy. 71.
Amy: Sure, I love animals very much. I’m free all day tomorrow.
Tom: Great! 72.
Amy: I like pandas best. They are so quiet and lovely. What about you?
Tom: I like elephants. 73. They are smart and friendly.
Amy: OK, we can visit the panda house and elephant house first. 74.
Tom: Let’s meet at the school gate at 8:00 tomorrow morning.
Amy: 75.
Tom: We can take the No.12 bus, it takes only fifteen minutes.
Amy: Sounds good! See you tomorrow.
Tom: See you!
六、书面表达(20分)
暑假将至,学校英语广播站开展题为“My Meaningful Summer Vacation”的征文活动。请你根据以下提示写一篇英语短文投稿。
提示要点:①学习安排:完成作业,每天阅读英语读物;②实践活动:帮助父母做家务,参加社区志愿活动;③兴趣发展:学习一项新技能(如游泳、绘画、骑行等);④你的感受。
要求:①词数不少于80词;②条理清晰,语句通顺,语法正确;③不得出现真实姓名、班级、学校名称;④可适当拓展内容。
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2025-2026学年度第二学期期末考试卷
七年级英语
听力原文
第一节 听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。
1.M: Lucy, do you get up at half past six?
W: No, Rick. I get up at six thirty, but you get up at six o’clock every day.
2.M: Let’s go to the zoo this Saturday, Lucy.
W: Sorry, I want to read books in the library this weekend.
3.W: I love pandas best. What about you?
M: I like elephants, they are very big and gentle.
4.M: Let’s go out to play basketball.
W: I’m afraid we can’t. It’s raining heavily outside.
5.M: Linda, are you watching TV now?
W: No, I’m washing bowls in the kitchen.
第二节听下面几段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题
W: Tom, how do you go to school every day? Do you take the bus?
M: No, I ride my bike to school.
W: How long does it take you?
M: About fifteen minutes.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题
M: Hello, welcome to our school clubs. Which club do you want to join?
W: I want to join the art club. I like drawing.
M: Can you draw well?
W: Yes, I draw pictures every day after school.
M: Our club activity is every Wednesday afternoon. You can come then.
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题
Mike is my new classmate. He comes from Australia. He is thirteen years old. His favorite subject is geography, because he loves learning about different countries. After school, Mike usually plays basketball with his friends on the playground. He plays it very well. Mike wants to be a musician in the future. He practices playing the piano every evening.
第三节 听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成16-20小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。独白读两遍。
Summer vacation is coming. Anna makes her travel plan. She will go to Chengdu with her parents by plane. She wants to eat delicious hot pot there. They will stay in Chengdu for two weeks. She also plans to visit the panda base and take many photos. She thinks this trip will be wonderful.
参考答案
一、听力理解
1-5: A C C B B 6-10: B B B A B 11-15: B B C B C 16-20: B A B A B
二、阅读理解
21-25: B A C B B 26-30: C B C B D 31-35: B B C C A 36-40: C B B C A
三、完形填空
41-45: A B C B A 46-50: B B A A D 51-55: C C B C C
四、语篇填空
第一节
56.sunny 57.friends 58.walk 59.children 60.shopping
61.reading 62.themselves 63.swimming 64.friends 65.enjoy
第二节
66.in 67.so 68.their 69.about 70.a
五、补全对话
71 Do you want to go to the city zoo with me tomorrow?
72.What’s your favorite animal?
73.I want to see elephants first.
74.Where shall we meet?
75.How do we get to the zoo?
6、 书面表达
参考范文
My Meaningful Summer Vacation
The summer vacation is coming soon, and I have a great plan to make it meaningful.
First, I will finish all my homework carefully. Every morning I will read English books for half an hour to improve my reading skills.
In my free time, I will help my parents do housework, like cleaning rooms and washing dishes. I also plan to take part in community volunteer activities to clean the neighborhood park.
I want to learn swimming this summer. I will go to the swimming pool with my dad three times a week. It is a healthy sport and a new skill for me.
I believe this vacation will be busy but wonderful. I can learn new things and become more independent. I am looking forward to it.
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