山东济南市长清区2025-2026学年下学期七年级阶段检测 英语试题

七年级期末考试英语试题26.6 参 考 答 案 一、听力 1-5 BBCCA 6-10 BCCAB 11-15 BCABA 16-20 AABBC 二、阅读 21-25 ADBCB 26-30ABCBC 31-35BADBA 36-40DBCAB 三、七选五 41-45 EFCAB 四、对话 46-50 BAABA  五.完型填空51-55 ABCAB 56-60 CADAB 61-65 BACDB 六.阅读填空 66. a 67. with 68. their 69. cultures 70. really 71.getting 72. Although 73.were 74.found 75. meaning 七.情境 76. How often does he play badminton? 77. She often has bread and milk. 78. What’s the weather like? 79. He went to the museum. 80. Is he playing beach volleyball? 凡符合情境和语意的答案，均按评分标准给分。 评分意见： 1. 本试题满分150分。 2. 第1—20小题，每小题1.5分。凡与答案不同者不给分。 3. 第21—45小题，每小题2分。凡与答案不同者不给分。 4. 第46—65小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不同者不给分。 5. 第66—75小题，每小题1.5分。凡与答案不同者不给分。 第一节 评分标准： 本题共10分。第76—80小题，每小题2分。每个句子正确给2分；出现错误但关键信息正确给1分；关键信息错误给0分。 第二节 评分标准： （1）本题共25分。 （2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以致影响理解，可酌情扣1~2分。 （3）拼写错误酌情扣分（0.5~1分）。同样错误不重复计算。 （4）作文可分为五个等级： ①21~25分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（1~3处），表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。 ②16~20分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（4~5处），表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。 ③11~15分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数80词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。 ④6~10分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在40词以下，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 ⑤5分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意，信息未能传达给读者。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 七年级阶段检测 英语试题 本试题共10页，满分为150分，考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题部分，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。 1. A. We are having a holiday here. B. Swimming is good for me. C. I usually jog in the evening. 2. A. Keep your desk clean. B. Wear the school uniform. C. Walk in the hallway. 3. A. I’m doing homework. B. My sister is shopping. C. They’re having breakfast. 4. A. Where are giraffes from? B. How did the mouse help the lion? C. Whose badminton racket is this? 5. A. How was your school trip yesterday? B. Who did you go with? C. Where did John go last weekend? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。 6. What is Bill doing in Stockholm? A. Playing beach volleyball B. Building a snowman C. Sunbathing 7. What’s the boy’s bad eating habit? A. Eating too much salt. B. Not having breakfast. C. Eating a lot of fast food. 8. Why does Eva make the phone call? A. To do exercise with Jack. B. To teach Jack farming. C. To tell Jack to meet her. 9. Which one would the boy like to read? A. The Emperor’s New Clothes. B. The Ugly Duckling. C. Little Women. 10. What are they talking about? A. The holiday. B. The gift. C. The family. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What is David doing now? A. Doing homework. B. Watching the weather report. C. Making food. 12. What is the weather like tomorrow morning? A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy. 13. Why is Sally’s mom making food? A. Because she makes food for the trip. B. Because she likes cooking. C. Because Sally is hungry. 14. When will Sally’s family probably go to the park? A. Tomorrow morning. B. Tomorrow afternoon. C. This evening. 15. What does Sally’s dad always say? A. Be ready for bad weather. B. Weather is easy to know. C. Don’t go out when it rains. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. Where were Linda and her classmates first in the village? A. In a greenhouse. B. On a farm. C. In an old factory. 17. What did they learn to do in the greenhouse? A. Water plants and cut leaves. B. Plant trees and feed animals. C. Make juice and collect eggs. 18. Why did the farmer teach them to feed pigs? A. To show them farm work. B. To introduce the farming life. C. To tell them stories. 19. How long did they stay in the village? A. For six hours. B. For seven hours. C. For eight hours. 20. How did they feel about the school trip? A. Boring and tiring. B. Short but meaningful. C. Busy but enjoyable. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Four middle school students post their weekend activities online. Do you know what they are doing? I don’t like to go out. Now, I’m watching TV at home. My mum is making apple juice for me. I like it because it’s delicious. — Chris Today is Sunday. My family are all at the park. Dad and I are playing basketball. My sister Lisa is skating and she’s good at it. What about my mum? She’s using her phone to take some photos. We’re having fun. — Jenny Now, I’m at home. It’s so boring because my parents aren’t at home. I’m sitting by the window. Oh, I can see two children outside. They’re playing in the rain. They look happy. — Polly Now, I’m cleaning my house and I can finish it quickly. After lunch, I will call my cousin Bob. He says he wants to buy some food. We’ll meet in the supermarket at 2:30 p.m. — Rick 21. What is Chris doing now? A. He’s watching TV at home. B. He’s playing basketball outside. C. He’s drinking apple juice. D. He’s making juice for his mother. 22. Why does Polly say “It’s so boring”? A. Because she wants to go out. B. Because she has no friends. C. Because she has to do her homework. D. Because her parents are not at home. 23. Where is Jenny’s family on Sunday? A. At home. B. In the park. C. In the supermarket. D. By the window. 24. When will Rick meet Bob? A. In the morning. B. At noon. C. In the afternoon. D. In the evening. 25. What can we infer from the passage? A. All four students stay at home on weekends. B. Different students spend their weekend in different ways. C. It is not fun to stay alone at home at all. D. Rick will have dinner with Bob in the supermarket. B One day in John’s PE class, his teacher told them to play softball (垒球) outside. John felt bad. Softball was not his cup of tea. In fact, John was always unlucky when playing softball. No matter where he stood, the ball always came to him. When they arrived, a classmate gave John a glove and asked him to stand in the left field. It was far from the middle. He sat on the grass, waiting for the class to finish. In the first three minutes, nothing came. He felt a little bored, so he began to think about what to do after class. Suddenly, someone shouted “Catch it!” John looked up and saw a ball flying straight to him. He raised his glove. The ball fell into his glove! He caught it! All his classmates shouted happily. With his catch, his team won the game in the end! Life has many chances. Maybe you are not good at some things, but you should always try. You never know when you can turn a hard thing into a great thing. 26. What does “not his cup of tea” mean in paragraph 1? A. He didn’t like playing softball. B. He didn’t like drinking tea. C. He often forgot to play softball. D. He wanted to practice more. 27. What did John do before he caught the ball? A. He played other sports. B. He felt bored and thought about things after class. C. He practiced catching every PE class. D. He hoped to leave the playground. 28. Which of the following is the right order? ① John went to play softball. ② John caught the ball. ③ John thought on the grass. ④ John helped his team win. A. ①②③④ B. ②①④③ C. ①③②④ D. ③①②④ 29. What happened when John caught the ball? A. He fell on the grass. B. His classmates shouted happily. C. He left the playground. D. No one saw him. 30. What can we learn from the story? A. We must practice sports all the time. B. We should listen to teachers carefully. C. We should try our best to take chances. D. We should stay away from hard things. C Jiuzhaigou Valley (山谷) is in Sichuan Province. People call it a fairyland on earth. It has colourful lakes, high waterfalls and snowy mountains. The water is so clear that you can see fallen trees at the bottom of the lakes. The Five Flower Lake has bright colours like blue, green and yellow. Local people say it looks like a beautiful peacock (孔雀) opening its long tails. Nuorilang Waterfall is another great place. The water runs down the hillside, and rainbows often come out when the sun shines on the cloud. There are thick forests on the mountains. They are home to many lovely animals, such as giant pandas and golden monkeys. More than 140 kinds of birds also live here. So it is a wonderful place for anyone who loves nature. Autumn is the best time to visit Jiuzhaigou. Leaves turn red, orange and yellow, matching well with green lakes. In winter, waterfalls turn into ice sculptures, but the lakes still keep their bright colours. Jiuzhaigou became a UNESCO World Heritage Site (世界遗产地) in 1992. It is an important natural treasure. Visitors must follow the rules so that the valley can stay clean and safe. With fresh air and a quiet environment, Jiuzhaigou makes people feel close to nature. It is like a living painting that shows different beauty in every season. 31. What can people see at the bottom of the lakes in Jiuzhaigou? A. Some little fish. B. Fallen trees. C. Beautiful birds. D. Green plants. 32. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A. The Five Flower Lake. B. Nuorilang Waterfall. C. The colour. D. The mist. 33. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4? A. Different kinds of plants in the valley. B. How to take nice photos in Jiuzhaigou. C. The colours of the Five Flower Lake. D. The beauty of Jiuzhaigou in autumn and winter. 34. What can we know from the passage? A. Summer is the most beautiful season in Jiuzhaigou. B. Jiuzhaigou is well protected as a natural treasure. C. Visitors don’t need to follow any rules in the valley. D. All lakes in Jiuzhaigou lose colours in winter. 35. Where is the text probably from? A. A travel magazine. B. A math textbook. C. A storybook for kids. D. A science report. D Have you seen smart technology around us? In China, Artificial Intelligence (AI) makes our daily life easier and fun. Let’s learn about AI with small examples in our life. Many families use AI tools such as Xiaodu or Tmall Genie at home. These machines work with your voice. They can answer questions, play music and tell funny jokes when you feel bored. They know your living habits little by little and become good helpers at home. At school, AI apps help students learn English well. Some check your pronunciation (发音), and others give you right reading texts according to your study. Teachers say these tools help students improve reading faster. In hospitals, AI robots help doctors a lot. They can take medicine, show patients the way and do easy health checks. AI also works in many other places. Smart self-driving cars run on roads safely. AI helps save electricity (电) by controlling streetlights. On farms, AI machines check plants to use less water. Some museums use AI to show history to visitors. AI is changing our life and makes it safer and better. Since AI collects much personal information, the government makes strict rules to protect (保护) our privacy and keep AI safe. Experts say AI will not take the place of people. It will work with us to build a smart future. 36. What can AI family helpers do according to Paragraph 2? A. Cook meals for people. B. Wash clothes and clean rooms. C. Drive cars for family members. D. Answer questions and play music. 37. How do AI apps help students learn English? A. By telling funny stories and playing games. B. By checking pronunciation and giving reading texts. C. By carrying books and cleaning the classroom. D. By making food and drinks for students. 38. What does the underlined word “privacy” in Paragraph 5 probably mean? A. It means something about money and treasure. B. It means the speed of people’s work. C. It means personal information that others cannot know. D. It means the old culture of a country. 39. What is the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 40. What is the best title of the passage? A. How to Use AI Robots B. AI Makes Life Better in China C. The History of AI Technology D. Different Kinds of Smart Phones 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Dumplings, or jiaozi, are a kind of traditional Chinese food with a long history. People love them not only for their taste, but also for their special meaning. 41 Lots of families across the country eat them on important festivals. During the Spring Festival, making dumplings is a happy family activity. Family members work together to make them. 42 This special look has a good meaning. The round shape stands for being together, so it brings good luck to every family. Do you know how to make them? First, mix flour and water to make dough. Then roll (擀) it into thin pieces. 43 Fold it carefully and press the edges. At last, boil, steam or fry them. 44 Northern people like meat fillings (馅), while southern people enjoy seafood or vegetables. Different ways make dumplings more popular. Dumplings are more than just delicious food, 45 Whenever we eat them, we feel warm and happy. A. Different places have different kinds of dumplings. B. and they also carry love and best wishes for family. C. Put some delicious filling in the middle. D. Many people like to eat them with sauce (酱汁). E. They are really popular in China. F. They look like old gold coins (硬币). G. cooking them is not difficult. 第三部分 语言应用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Hi, Mike. Nice to meet you here. Do you like traveling? B: Yes. I like visiting different cities. I had a trip last week. A: 46 B: I went to Chengdu. It’s a wonderful city. A: Chengdu is very popular. 47 B: Yes, I did. I went to Chengdu Panda Base with my sister. A: 48 B: It’s great! The pandas are very cute and lovely. A: That’s cool! What special food did you eat there? B: I ate spicy hot pot and sweet noodles there. A: 49 Did you have a good time there? B: Of course! It was so fun. A: Next holiday, I want to go there too. B: 50 46. A. When did you go? B. Where did you go? C. What did you do? D. How did you go? 47. A. Did you visit any interesting places? B. Do you like pandas? C. Can you take photos there? D. Did you eat nice food? 48. A. What do you think of it? B. When did you get there? C. Who did you go with? D. Where will you go next? 49. A. It’s boring. B. That sounds amazing! C. You’re right. D. I’m sorry. 50. A. You’ll love it. B. That’s too bad. C. I don’t like it. D. That’s fine. 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 There is an old and meaningful story about a hard-working ant and a lazy grasshopper. It is a popular story and many kids 51 it. The story tells us a simple but important 52 . Hard work brings a good future. In hot summer, the weather is sunny and 53 . While most insects (昆虫) play outside every day, the little ant is always busy. He works from morning to evening 54 food for the cold winter. His friend, the grasshopper, lives a very 55 life. He sings, dances and plays all day long. He never worries 56 the coming winter. One day, the grasshopper saw the busy ant. He felt very 57 and asked, “Why are you working so hard? Come and play with me. Winter is still very 58 .” The ant smiled and said, “Winter will come soon. We need to prepare food 59 it. Or we will have nothing to eat.” The grasshopper didn’t listen. He thought the ant was silly. He kept 60 and enjoying his warm days. Soon, autumn passed and winter 61 . The wind blew hard and it was very cold. No plants grew and no food could be 62 . The ant had lots of food to eat and lived 63 at home. But the grasshopper had nothing. He felt cold and hungry. He finally 64 his mistake. It was too late for him to work hard. This story teaches us never to be lazy and always 65 for tomorrow. 51. A. know B. change C. forget D. miss 52. A. rule B. lesson C. problem D. idea 53. A. cold B. rainy C. hot D. windy 54. A. looking for B. waiting for C. asking for D. paying for 55. A. busy B. easy C. hard D. quiet 56. A. for B. with C. about D. at 57. A. surprised B. happy C. shy D. afraid 58. A. fast B. late C. near D. far 59. A. before B. after C. when D. if 60. A. working B. playing C. studying D. sleeping 61. A. left B. came C. stopped D. stayed 62. A. found B. lost C. used D. sold 63. A. sadly B. badly C. happily D. quickly 64. A. made B. saw C. heard D. knew 65. A. wait B. prepare C. ask D. look 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Nowadays, many young people and middle school students like Dear You (给阿嫲的情书). It is 66. ________ popular movie across the country these days. They often talk about it 67. ________ their classmates and share their ideas after class. This wonderful movie tells warm stories about family love. Overseas (海外的) Chinese usually write special Qiaopi letters to 68. ________ (they) family members who stay in their hometown. We can see different kinds of 69. ________ (culture) and old street views in the film. The simple and touching stories 70. ________ (real) make all of us moved. In the movie, a grandma looked forward to 71. ________ (get) nice news from her husband. 72. ________ she waited for him for many long years, she never gave up. There 73. ________ (be) lots of old letters in her home. One day, her grandson 74. ________ (find) these old letters. From those words, he knew the true 75. ________ (mean) of deep family love. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. — _________________________________? — He usually plays it twice a week 77. — What does she often have for breakfast? — _________________________________. 78. — _________________________________? — It’s windy and cold. 79. — What did Tengfei do the day before yesterday? — _________________________________. 80. — _________________________________? — No. I am enjoying the view. It’s relaxing. 第二节 作文（25分） 你校校刊英语专栏正在开展以“A School Trip”为题的征文活动，请你用英语写一篇短文向专栏投稿。叙述令你印象深刻的一次活动，并谈谈你参加活动的感受。 提示： 讲述参加活动的经历并描述参加活动后的感受 注意： （1）词数100左右：开头、结尾已给出，不计算词数内。 （2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； （3）不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 A school trip ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $