内容正文:
2025-2026学年第二学期期末学业水平测试
七年级英语试题答案
第一部分 听力 (共三节, 满分20分)
第一节 1-5 ABACB
第二节 6-10 CABAC 11-15 CABCB
第三节16. village 17. three/3 18. cloudy 19. cousin 20. tired
第二部分 阅读 (共两节, 满分35分)
第一节 (共15小题; 每小题2分, 满分30分)
21—23 BAB 24—27 DCCA 28—31 ABDC 32—35 DBAC
第二节36—40 F A C D B
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节, 满分20分) 第一节 41—45 B C DA B 46-50 A C D B C
第二节51. stories 52. am reading 53. saw 54. his 55. lucky
56. to sit 57. and 58. of 59. an 60. waiting
第四部分 写作 (共两节, 满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分)
61. They are eating seafood and drinking Qingdao Beer.
62. They are working in their offices./ In their offices.
63. They can see elephants and giraffes. / Elephants and giraffes.
64. They are jogging, walking and riding bikes. / Jogging, walking and riding bikes.
65. are people doing in different places (cities)
第二节 (共1小题;满分15分)
66. 参考答案:Hi! I’m Li Hua. I went to Beihu Park with three classmates last Saturday. It was sunny. In the morning, we went boating and played basketball there. At noon, we had lunch at a restaurant near the lake. We ate rice, Gongbao chicken, Mapo tofu and cabbage salad, and drank orange juice. In the afternoon, we rode bikes around the lake and played badminton. It was really fun. I felt very excited and happy. I learned that spending time with friends makes days more meaningful and wonderful.
1. 评分原则:
(1)本题总分为15分,按四个档次给分。
(2)评分时,应根据所写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
(3)评分时应注意的主要方面:内容要点的完整性, 语法、词汇的丰富性, 文本结构的逻辑性,语言应用的准确性和流畅性。
(4)如书写较差,影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
2. 各档次的给分范围和要求:
四 档
(12~15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。涵盖所有提示要点,内容完整,表述清晰;语法结构和词汇应用丰富,并具有较强的语言运用能力;有效使用了一些语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑;语言基本无误(不超过3处);书写规范;词数符合要求。
三 档
(9~11分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。包括绝大部分提示要点,内容较完整,表述较清晰;语法结构和词汇基本满足任务要求;应用了简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构较紧凑;语言运用基本准确,虽有部分错误,但基本不影响意义表达;书写较为规范;词数基本符合要求。
二 档
(5~8分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉部分提示要点,内容不完整,表述不清晰;语法结构单调,词汇运用有限,语言错误较多,对写作内容有一定影响;较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容不够连贯;书写基本规范;词数不足50。
一 档
(0~4分)
未完成试题规定的任务。只对个别提示要点进行描述或只写出了一些与要点相关的词汇;多数语句欠完整,语言错误多,影响意义表达;书写不够规范;词数不足30。
凡书写内容与写作主题无关的,一律判为零分。
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$
2025 — 2026 学年度第二学期期末检测
七年级英语试题
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必先用黑色签字笔将本人的学校、班级、姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡相应位置。
2.作答选择题时,用 2B 铅笔将正确选项填涂在答题卡相应位置。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。作答非选择题时,务必将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共三节,满分 20 分)
做题时,可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面 5 个句子。听完每个句子后,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. Yes, they are. B. Yes, they did. C. No, they don’t.
2. A. It’s mine. B. Twice a week. C. It is my favorite.
3. A. Sure, I’d love to. B. No, I am busy. C. That’s true.
4. A. It is dirty. B. It was 7 o’clock. C. It was amazing.
5. A. It’s interesting. B. The Ugly Duckling. C. Yes, he does.
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
听下面几段对话。每段对话后有一个或几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第 1 段对话,回答第 6 小题。
6. How does the girl like the monkey?
A. Cute. B. Friendly. C. Playful.
听第 2 段对话,回答第 7 小题。
7. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Family rules. B. School rules. C. Library rules.
听第 3 段对话,回答第 8 小题。
8. Where are they now?
A. In a library.
B. In a restaurant.
C. In a clothes shop.
听第4段对话,回答第9、10小题。
9. What is Ted doing?
A. Sitting on a boat.
B. Having dinner.
C. Taking photos.
10. How is the weather in London?
A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy.
听第5段对话,回答第11、12小题。
11. What does Nancy think of the story?
A. Exciting. B. Relaxing. C. Interesting.
12. What does the story want to tell us?
A. We should tell the truth.
B. We should help each other.
C. We shouldn’t trust anyone.
听第6段对话,回答第13-15小题。
13. How did Alice go to the Flower Town?
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By subway.
14. What did Alice do there?
A. She flew a kite.
B. She swam in the lake.
C. She enjoyed beautiful flowers.
15. When will Alice show the photos to Jack?
A. This evening. B. Tomorrow. C. Next week.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题,根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词,每空限填一词。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
Gina’s Weekend
Where
In the 16 .
How far
About 17 hours’ bus ride.
Weather
On Saturday, it was 18 . On Sunday, it snowed.
Activities
Gina and her 19 played in the snow and made a really big and fun snowman.
Feeling
We were 20 but happy.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 35 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Red Star Farm
Horse Riding Summer Camp (马术夏令营)
(for children between 8 and 14 years old)
Time
Monday — Friday
26 May — 25 July
8:30 a.m. — 1:30 p.m.
Activities
• Learn how to ride a horse
• Play games on horseback
• Take horse care lesson
• Have horse shows on Fridays
Price
750 yuan every week
▲Parents can’t stay on the farm.
▲Each child will get a horse T-shirt and a riding helmet (头盔) for free.
▲Children can bring carrots and apples to feed horses.
▲Don’t wear glasses or a watch when riding a horse.
Call Ms Wood at 395-3786 if you have questions.
21. Who can join the summer camp?
A. A 6-year-old boy.
B. A 10-year-old girl.
C. A 15-year-old student.
D. A 20-year-old young man.
22. How long does the camp open every day?
A. Five hours. B. Six hours. C. Seven hours D. Eight hours.
23. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Horse shows are on Mondays.
B. You can call Ms Wood for more information.
C. Kids need to pay 750 yuan a day for the camp.
D. It’s OK to wear your watch when you ride horses.
B
Dear Helen,
How are you and how’s your holiday going? I am visiting my grandparents in Sydney now.
Guess what? The weather here is quite different from that in our hometown! It is winter from June to August. It is cold and sometimes there are snow storms. Now it is snowing heavily outside. All my family choose to stay in and have fun at home.
Look! My grandpa is practising calligraphy (书法) in the study. He is very interested in it. My grandma is also in the study. Every afternoon she reads books here. Where are my parents? They are preparing for our dinner in the kitchen at this moment. On cold snowy days, we usually eat hot pot together. I am so glad to spend time with my family. It is cold outside but warm in our home.
As for my life here, on days when the weather is great, I usually go out to watch some art shows. Now I am sitting in front of the computer and writing to you. What about you? Do you enjoy your holiday? I’m looking forward to your letter.
Yours,
Frank
24. What’s the weather like outside now?
A. It’s sunny. B. It’s windy.
C. It’s raining heavily. D. It’s snowing heavily.
25. What are Frank’s parents doing at the moment?
A. They are watching shows. B. They are having hot pot.
C. They are preparing dinner. D. They are talking with grandparents.
26. What does Frank do when the weather is fine?
A. He stays at home all day. B. He goes to visit friends.
C. He watches art shows outside. D. He practices calligraphy.
27. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Frank introduces his holiday life in Sydney.
B. Frank tells Helen how to spend winter.
C. Frank invites Helen to visit Sydney.
D. Frank talks about his favorite food.
C
Students must follow rules at schools. But some schools have special school rules.
In a school in the USA, students cannot wear some winter clothing like jackets or hats in class. Because they are “criminal symbols (犯罪标志)”. But it is freezing in winter and the students don’t understand why they cannot wear warm clothes in school.
An American college (大学) has many rules. One of them is that a student must make his bed by 9:00 a.m. every day. One student says if he wants to sleep on Saturday morning, he must get up to make his bed before 9 o’clock. Then he goes back to sleep on top of the quilt (被子). He thinks it is interesting.
Students in a school in Japan cannot bring food from home. They can get food from school during their lunch time. What’s more, students mustn’t talk at lunch. If a student doesn’t follow the rules, he has to sit on a chair with no table.
Teachers in some parts of the UK and Australia mustn’t grade their students’ homework with red ink (墨水). Because the schools think red colour makes children unhappy when they get their graded homework. Teachers must use other colors like blue, purple, yellow or even with a pencil.
28. The underlined word “freezing” in Para. 2 means ______.
A. very cold B. very hot C. quite cool D. a little warm
29. When must students in the American college make their beds every day?
A. Before 8:00 a.m. B. Before 9:00 a.m.
C. After 9:00 a.m. D. At 10:00 a.m.
30. What can’t students in the Japanese school do?
A. Eat food at school.
B. Have lunch at school.
C. Sit on chairs in class.
D. Bring home-made food to school.
31. Why do the schools in some places of the UK and Australia stop teachers from using red ink?
A. Because red ink is too expensive.
B. Because red ink is hard to buy.
C. Because red may make students feel sad.
D. Because red words are not clear enough.
D
In 2021, some wild Asian elephants in Yunnan walked more than 500 kilometers to the north. People didn’t know why they left their living places. Scientists found the reason could be not enough food and changes of weather. In 2026, elephants moved like this again, but people were better prepared.
The government used drones (无人机) and workers to watch the elephants. They gave food to lead elephants to safe places. Nobody wanted to hurt (伤害) the elephants. Farmers were nice. They kept their farm plants for elephants and did not trouble them. This tells us people and wild animals can live happily together.
Experts (专家) think looking after elephants’ habitat (栖息地) is the most important. If their forest home is destroyed (遭到破坏), elephants have to move away. Lots of young people join teams to grow trees and keep our world clean.
One student, Li Mei, started a school club to tell others about wildlife. She thinks everyone can help. “We live on the same earth. We need to do our part,” she said.
Scientists use high-tech-collars (智能项圈) to know how healthy the elephants are. With all people’s help, there are more and more elephants little by little.
32. Why did the Asian elephants leave their home in 2021?
A. For fun and travelling. B. Their habitat was too big.
C. People drove them away. D. Food shortage and weather change.
33. What can we know about the elephants’ movement in 2026?
A. It never happened before. B. People got ready for it.
C. Elephants travelled to the south. D. Scientists stopped it at once.
34. How did the government guide elephants to safe places?
A. By giving them food. B. By building new forests.
C. By driving with cars. D. By asking farmers to catch them.
35. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Li Mei set up a club to learn elephant feeding skills.
B. The number of elephants is becoming smaller now.
C. Scientists use collars to watch elephants’ health.
D. People hurt elephants when they travelled north.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Students are often very busy. It is difficult for them to get away from bad eating habits. 36 So, how can we have a good eating habit? Let’s read and learn more.
Eat breakfast. 37 Also, it’s bad for your health if you don’t have breakfast for a long time. And when you’re busy, you can just have a piece of bread and some juice. You can keep some of these things in your room. Something is better than nothing.
Choose fast food wisely (明智地). We all love fast food, especially pizza. However, too much pizza means too much fat. 38 Remember, don’t eat French fries or fried chicken too much, because there is also a lot of fat in them.
Eat healthy snacks. 39 You can choose snacks like fresh fruit.
Eat food with rich in calcium (钙). Young people need calcium to grow. If you don’t like milk, try to eat something like low-fat yogurt and cheese.
Drink enough water. Your body needs at least eight glasses of water a day. 40
Remember, food is important for the body. Enjoy it.
A. A delicious breakfast can help you start a beautiful day.
B. If you exercise often, you need to drink more water.
C. You can choose pizza with less cheese.
D. Keep healthy snacks on hand.
E. Talk with family.
F. But having a good eating habit can help them to feel better.
G. You can choose hamburgers.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Students at Sanhe Primary School in Chongqing enjoy playing football. It is an important part of 41 school lives. Now every student at the school has 42 football lesson once a week.
The school is in a mountain far from the city. At first, 43 students have a good future, Sun Xiaoming, head teacher of the school, sets up a football team (队) for girls. He chooses 20 girls from the 44 grade. And he also prepares clothes and food 45 them at school.
Primary school students are short and thin. It’s difficult for them to play basketball. 46 football is different. It is cheap and easy to learn. Students can 47 it as a team on the playground or at home. So football is an excellent choice for students.
The students fall in love with football. They train hard every day. Many of them play it 48 . Some of them get into great high schools. Some of them join football 49 and become professional (职业的) players.
Football opens a new window for those students and 50 their lives. It helps them enjoy good health, make new friends and learn to work with others.
41. A. they B. their C. them D. theirs
42. A. the B. an C. a D. /
43. A. helped B. helps C. help D. to help
44. A. fifth B. five C. fifteen D. fifteenth
45. A. with B. for C. of D. from
46. A. But B. So C. Because D. And
47. A. plays B. playing C. play D. to play
48. A. bad B. badly C. good D. well
49. A. games B. clubs C. parties D. players
50. A. change B. changing C. changes D. changed
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文并填空,然后将答案写到答题卡的相应位置(如有提示词,则填入提示词的正确形式;如无提示词,则填入 1 个适当的单词)。
I am Alice. I’m from the USA. I like Chinese traditional 51 (story). Now I 52 (read) a story — Waiting for the Hare. Here is the story.
Once upon a time, there was a farmer. He worked hard every day in his fields. One day, while working, he 53 (see) a hare run into a tree. Then the farmer went to the hare. To 54 (he) surprise, it died. The farmer was very happy. He picked up the hare and took it home. He cooked the hare for dinner. He thought, “How 55 (luck) I am! Maybe if I sit here, more hares will run into the tree, and I won’t have to work so hard.”
The next day, the farmer decided 56 (sit) by the tree and waited. He didn’t do any work at all. He just sat there 57 waited for more hares. But day after day, no more hares came.
As time went by, the fields were full 58 grass. The farmer didn’t get anything because he stopped working. At the end of the year, he had nothing to eat.
The story is easy, but it tells us 59 important lesson. Success and a good harvest (收获) never come from just sitting around and waiting for something good to happen. We should work hard instead of 60 (wait) for good luck to come. That’s the best way to have a good life.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按照题目要求用英语回答问题,并将答案写到答题卡的相应位置。
What is happening in different time zones (时区) around the world right now? What ________?
It’s 8 p.m. in Qingdao, China. Some people are rushing to get home from work. But others are not in a hurry! They are enjoying the city at night. Lights are shining brightly across the city. People are eating many different kinds of delicious seafood and drinking Qingdao Beer.
In Nairobi, Kenya, it’s 3 p.m. Many people are working hard in their offices. Some people are shopping for gifts, such as painting and bags in the markets. Many others are walking in the parks and looking at elephants and giraffes. In this city, people live side by side with many wonderful animals!
It’s 7 a.m. in New York, USA. It’s early, but the city is getting busy! Many people are rushing to the subway. They are going to work. Bright yellow taxis are picking up and dropping off passengers. Some people are jogging, walking and riding bikes in Central Park. Others are drinking coffee and eating breakfast in coffee shops.
61. What food are people having in Qingdao right now?
62. Where are many people working in Nairobi at 3 p.m.?
63. What animals can people see in the parks of Nairobi?
64. What are some people doing in Central Park in New York?
65. Complete the sentence in Para. 1 with proper words. (用合适的单词补全第1自然段的句子)
第二节(共 1 小题;满分 15 分)
66.假设你是李华,上个周六,天气晴朗,你和三个同学一块儿去了北湖公园(Beihu Park)游玩(上午:划船、打篮球;中午:在湖边餐馆吃了米饭、宫保鸡丁、麻婆豆腐和卷心菜沙拉;喝了橘子汁;下午:环湖骑行、打羽毛球)。现在你校英文网站以“A Day to Remember”为题举办征文活动,请你根据所有提示,写一篇英语短文投稿,描述你在北湖公园游玩的经历并谈谈感受。
要求:
1.需包含提示的所有信息,可适当发挥;
2.不得出现真实的人名、校名;
3.80 词左右(开头已给出,不计入总数)。
A Day to Remember
Hi! I’m Li Hua.
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$