浙江省温州市龙湾区永兴中学等联考2025-2026学年八年级上学期期中质量检测英语试卷

现在是2025学年第一学期，龙湾初中协作校八年级期中质量检测英语听力考试。该部分分为第一第二两节。注意听力部分，答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题纸上请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。One, what's your plan for the weekend, tom. I am going to play tennis with my dad is fun. Two, you studied all the week for the exam. Yeah, but I still . worry about the questions. Don't worry, and just take IT easy. Three, should I bring a jacket tomorrow? Don't forget your umbrella. IT will rain heavily tomorrow. For the museum show closes at five PM. It's for now. Then let's hurry. We still have an hour to visit IT. Five helsa, your room number is three zero to breakfast is from seven to nine AM. thanks. Where's the left? IT is on the left over there. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面三段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍，听下面一段对话，回答第六至第7两个小题。Jack, your room is usually so tidy. How often do you clean? IT, thanks. Well, I cleaned twice a week, usually on wednesdays and sunday. That's a good habit. By the way, what do you usually do on weekends? On saturdays, I often play football with my friends in the park is my favorite thing to do. Jack, your room is usually so tidy. How often do you clean? IT, thanks. Well, I cleaned twice a week, usually on wednesday and sunday. That's a good habit. By the way, what do you usually do on . weekends? On saturdays, I often play football with my friends in the park. It's my favorite thing to do. 听下面一段对话，回答第八至第13个小题。Hey, kate, what are you up to? Oh. hi mark. I'm reading a book about australia. It's for my geography project. Wow, you seem to know a lot about IT already. How do you know so much? Well. I lived there for two years when I was Younger. My dad worked in sydney. That's so cool. What was IT like? Did you like the food there? Oh, the food was delicious, especially the seafood. I still miss IT sometimes. Hey kate, what are you up to? Oh. hi mark. I'm reading a book about australia. It's for my geography project. Wow, you seem to know a lot about IT already. How do you know so much? Well, I lived there for two years when I was Younger. My dad worked in sydney. That's so cool. What was IT like? Did you like the food there? Oh, the food was delicious, especially the seafood. I still miss IT sometimes. 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15 5个小题。Hello everyone, my name is anna, and i'm a zoo keeper at Green city zoo. I work five days a week, usually from ADM two four PM, so that's forty hours a week. My main job is to take care of the animals. Every morning I prepare food for the lions, giraffes and monkeys. I love birds the most, so I spend extra time feeding the parrots and penguins. When I was little, my father took me to the zoo every month. He was a vet, and he taught me how animals live. This inspired me to develop an interest in animals. That's why I chose this job instead of being a teacher. Some people ask why I clean the animal houses every day. Well, it's not just to make the zoo look nice. Clean places help animals stay healthy and happy when visitors see them playing, they learn to love nature too. Hello everyone, my name is anna, and i'm a zoo keeper at Green city zoo. I work five days a week, usually from ADM to four PM, so that's forty hours a week. My main job is to take care of the animals. Every morning, I prepare food for the lions, giraffe and monkeys. I love birds the most, so I spend extra time feeding the parrots and penguins. When I was little, my father took me to the zoo every month. He was a vet, and he taught me how animals live. This inspired me to develop an interest in animals. That's why I chose this job instead of being a teacher. Some people ask why I clean the animal houses every day. Well, it's not just to make the zoo look nice. Clean places help animals stay healthy and happy. When visitors see them playing, they learn to love nature too. 第二节到此结束，现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。听力测试到此结束。 2025学年第一学期龙湾初中协作校八年级期中质量检测 英语试卷 考生须知： 1．本试卷满分100分，考试时间90分钟。 2．所有答案均需填写在答题卡上，请在答题卡相应位置准确填写姓名、准考证号等信息，所有答案不得超过答题区域，否则不得分。 3．考试结束，试题卷与答题卷均需上交。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What will the boy do this weekend? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Play volleyball. B. Play basketball. C. Play tennis. 2. How does the man feel about the exam? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Worried. B. Nervous. C. Bored. 3. How will the weather be tomorrow? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Windy. 4. What will they probably do next? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Watch a movie. B. Go boating. C. Visit a museum. 5. Where does the conversation probably take place? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. At a hotel. B. At a bank. C. At a train station. 第二节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分) 听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下两个小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. How often does Jack clean his room? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day. 7. What does Jack often do on weekends? A. Play football. B. Go shopping. C. Watch TV. 听下面一段对话，回答以下三个小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. What is Kate doing now? A. Doing homework. B. Reading a book. C. Cooking dinner. 9. Why does Kate know a lot about Australia? A. Because she lived there. B. Because she watched a program. C. Because her friend told her. 10. What does Kate think of Australian food? A. It’s hot. B. It’s delicious. C. It’s too sweet. 听下面一段独白，回答以下五个小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. How many hours does Anna work in a week? A. 40 hours a week. B. 60 hours a week. C. 80 hours a month. 12. What animals does Anna like most? A. Lions and giraffes. B. Monkeys and parrots. C. Parrots and penguins. 13. Who encouraged Anna to become a zookeeper? A. Her mother. B. Her father. C. Her teacher. 14. Why did Anna choose to be a zookeeper instead of a teacher? A. Because she is interested in animals. B. Because her father was a teacher. C. Because she likes biology. 15. Why does Anna clean the animal houses every day? A. To make visitors take photos. B. To keep the animals healthy. C. To practice her cleaning skills. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共12小题，A篇每小题1分，B、C篇每小题2分，满分20分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 A December Walk for Books Charity Event Are you a book lover? Do you enjoy spending time outdoors? Would you like to help children in your community? If you say “Yes” to these questions, then join our “Walk for Books” event! The walk will start at Riverside Park. You can choose to walk 5,10, or 15 kilometers. Last year, walkers helped us raise ¥95,000. All the money was used to buy new books for the town library. This year, we hope to raise more money to buy books for schools in the countryside. Start finding sponsors (赞助商) now and just come on the day. Please read the following details. We look forward to seeing you on Saturday,15th December START TIMES: 15km: 8:30 a.m. 10km: 9:30 a.m. 5km: 10:30 a.m. CLOTHING: Please wear comfortable clothes and sports shoes. If the sun is strong, remember to wear a hat. ROUTE (路线) MAPS: They can be picked up at the starting point in Riverside Park. Our volunteers will be along the route to help you if you need it. BUSES: A bus will be at the Green Lake stop to bring walkers back to Riverside Park. The first bus leaves at12:00 p.m., and then every hour. This service is free for all walkers. 16. Where will the “Walk for Books” event start? A. Green Lake. B. Riverside Park. C. The town library. D. A countryside school. 17. What did they do with the money raised last year? A. They built a new town library. B. They repaired Riverside Park. C. They bought new books for the library. D. They helped schools in the countryside. 18. What can we learn from the text? A. Volunteers are not available along the route. B. You can get a free bus back from Green Lake. C. If you walk 10 kilometers, you will start at 8:30 a.m. D. You can get the maps of the route along the route. 19. Where is this text most likely from? A. A story book. B. A science textbook. C. A travel website. D. A community news board. B Jim’s Grandpa had a beautiful garden. He knew everything about gardening. Every weekend, Jim got his hands dirty in the soil with Grandpa. Best of all, he loved seeing the daffodils (水仙花). One Saturday, Jim was helping Grandpa in the garden. “Will we plant daffodils this year?” asked Jim. “Yes, but give it a few more days,” said Grandpa, handing Jim a gardening fork. “We need to get the weeds (杂草) out first.” “Why do you like planting daffodils?” asked Jim. “For Grandma,” said Grandpa. “On the day we first met, I gave her a bunch of daffodils. Seeing the sweet smile on her face, I promised her to plant daffodils every year.” “Wow! I can’t wait to plant daffodils,” said Jim. A few days later, Grandpa got a terrible headache and was sent to hospital. He needed to have an operation (手术). The following Sunday, Jim sat in the garden, unhappy and concerned, wondering if he could ever finish the flower bed without his grandpa’s guidance. Grandma came to him. “Jim, you can do some gardening if you like,” she said. “But I know nothing about gardening without his help,” said Jim. “He isn’t here but he surely has taught you something, hasn’t he?” said Grandma. “I guess he has really taught me a lot,” said Jim. Jim thought about how happy Grandpa would be when he came back and saw the daffodils. He put on his rubber boots and spent the whole day tidying, digging, planting and watering. When spring came, all the daffodils opened and Grandpa returned home. “You wonderful boy,” said Grandpa. “Grandma and I are proud of you.” “I remember everything you’ve taught me.” said Jim. “Grandpa, you and Grandma are good teachers!” 20. Why did Grandpa plant daffodils every year? A. Because he loved gardening and knew everything about it. B. Because he wanted to teach Jim how to take care of flowers. C. Because it was a promise he made to Grandma when they first met. D. Because daffodils were the most beautiful flowers in his garden. 21. What does the underlined word “concerned” most probably mean? A. Worried. B. Lonely. C. Excited. D. Surprised. 22. What made Jim decide to plant the daffodils by himself? A. He wanted his Grandpa to tell him the whole story. B. He wanted to give the daffodils to his friends as gifts. C. He knew his Grandpa would be happy to see the daffodils. D. He knew everything about gardening and didn’t need help. 23. What is the best title for the story? A. How to Plant Daffodils B. Grandpa’s Illness C. The Magic of Daffodils D. A Lesson in Love C ①Sugar painting, as the name suggests, is a painting made of sugar. It’s the sugar for us to taste, and the painting for us to enjoy. ②Since the Warring States Period, people have loved sweets and had different ways of making sugar. In the Tang Dynasty, people greatly improved sugar-making skills. So sugar, the rare thing that once could only enter the homes of the kings, also went into ordinary people’s homes. During the Song and Yuan Dynasties, people became less interested in only tasting sweetness. In the Ming Dynasty, some people added pictures with good luck to the bowl of sugar, and sugar painting came out. ③Sugar painting is different from other paintings. Sugar painters use syrup (糖浆) as the material, a spoon as the “paintbrush”, and a smooth table as the “paper”. To make syrup, they have to make sugar hot before painting. Since syrup may become hard if it cools, the painters have to do the work very quickly. They move the spoon full of syrup up and down, left and right. Soon a sugar painting is finished. ④________ The sugar painting that used to be rich in shapes (形状) has become poorer and poorer because of fewer needs. What’s worse, only a few old sugar painters are willing to pass on this kind of art. ⑤But even so, sugar painting is important. It’s more than just a sweet treat. For most people, painting is a kind of art and difficult to understand. However, sugar painting has entered people’s lives. Through it, we may see the spiritual (精神的) support of people across centuries. Now, sugar painting has been an intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in China. So we Chinese should remember, miss and pass on the art forever. 24. According to the passage, when did sugar painting first appear? A. During the Warring States Period. B. In the Tang Dynasty. C. In the Ming Dynasty. D. During the Song and Yuan Dynasties. 25. According to Paragraph 3, which of the following about sugar painting is TRUE? A. Sugar painters use a special brush to create sugar paintings. B. The syrup for sugar painting needs to be heated first. C. Sugar painters can take their time to make a sugar painting. D. A stone table is often used as the “paper” for sugar painting. 26. Which of the following can be put back into ________? A. However, it’s a pity that this art is dying recently. B. As a result, learning sugar painting is considered easy and fun. C. So sugar painting has become more popular than ever before. D. For this reason, the material for sugar painting remains very expensive. 27. What can we infer from the passage about the future of sugar painting? A. It will be made by old painters. B. It will become less popular than before. C. It will be learned and protected by people. D. It will be more difficult to enter people’s daily lives. 第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入第1-4小题，并回答第5小题。 Hug (拥抱) a tree? Recently, many people have shared their experience of hugging trees online, and they turned to trees to help with their stress. ____28____ I wrapped my arms around it and rested my face on the trunk. I closed my eyes, took a few deep breaths and felt really calm during that moment. Hugging a tree is a different experience from hugging a person or an animal. Although it sounds strange, there is a science behind the act of tree-hugging. It can be explained by the “biophilia hypothesis” (亲生命假说). A US scientist Edward Wilson pointed it out in 1984. ____29____ Humans’ love for nature is “in our DNA”. This idea helps to explain why people like natural, green views better than city views. Besides, spending time with trees can reduce your stress hormones (压力荷尔蒙) and make you feel relaxed. ____30____ These oils protect trees from illnesses and germs. They are also good for human health, because they can make your immune system (免疫系统) stronger. Also, hugging a tree lets you take a close look at it. ____31____ Hugging trees gives you a deeper connection (联系) to nature. You begin to enjoy nature more. A. In addition, trees give off some special oils. B. Because of this, you will want to help the environment. C. You can smell it, touch it and listen to the sound of its leaves. D. He said that humans are born to love being around other living things. E. A month ago, I hugged an orange tree in a nearby park for the first time. 28. ________ 29. ________ 30. ________ 31. ________ 32. Do you want to hug the trees? Why or why not? (不超过20词) _____________________________________ 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分35分) 第一节 完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。 Ava is worried about going back to school. She has been out of ____33____ for many weeks because of the holiday break. She is ____34____ to learn new things and make new friends again. Her mother says Ava can take her stuffed animal (毛绒玩具) to school. Ava loves the ____35____ and quickly finds her favorite stuffed bear, Teddy. On the first day of school, Ava goes to school with Teddy bear in ____36____ schoolbag. Before walking into the classroom, she is a little worried. ____37____ she feels better when she takes out Teddy and hugs (拥抱) it. At break time, Ava sees a boy Lucas ____38____ a stuffed dog—Bingo. She walks up to Lucas and asks about the stuffed dog. Lucas says Bingo makes him feel ____39____ at school. Ava knows they are ____40____. After that, they often play together and become good friends. They even ____41____ the Stuffed Animal Club at school. Now, many children are in the club. They share stories and play different games together. It’s so much fun! Because of the ____42____, many children have new friends and feel safe at school, too. 33. A. party B. store C. school D. hospital 34. A. afraid B. happy C. excited D. sorry 35. A. pet B. idea C. story D. holiday 36. A. her B. his C. my D. your 37. A. So B. But C. Or D. Because 38. A. walk with B. live with C. play with D. help with 39. A. safe B. cute C. sad D. angry 40. A. small B. bored C. welcome D. similar 41. A. hear B. keep C. forget D. find 42. A. class B. club C. song D. gift 第Ⅱ卷 第二节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Andrew was an old man who loved reading newspapers. He visited the nearest store to buy newspapers every day. The shopkeeper there, seeing that Andrew only bought newspapers, showed no respect and was always angry ____43____ him. Every time Andrew went to buy newspapers, the shopkeeper threw the newspaper when giving the change (零钱). He didn’t even look the old man straight in the eye. One of Andrew’s ____44____ (friend) was very surprised so he asked, “Andrew, since the shopkeeper treats you like that, why don’t you go to other places to buy newspapers?” Andrew smiled at his friend and ____45____ (say) slowly, “If I am mad at him and go to another place to buy newspapers, I’ll have to take a detour (绕路). This will not just waste my time ____46____ also bring some trouble. Anyway, it’s his problem that he has bad manners. ____47____ should I let the things he does change my mood (心情)?” One day, ____48____ new shopkeeper came to the store. This new shopkeeper always ____49____ (greet) Andrew with a smile, and kindly gave him his newspapers. Andrew ____50____ (happy) talked with the new shopkeeper together each time. The old shopkeeper began to think about his own actions. He said, “I ____51____ (realize) how bad I treat Andrew now.” From then on, the old shopkeeper changed his ways. He ____52____ (become) so patient and respectful that Andrew was also happy to accept his change. 第三节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A． 用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 complete talk with everyone argue and In our everyday lives, friends play a priceless role. ____53____ needs friends, as we all long to feel connected to someone. It feels comforting to have a friend to ____54____ and share experiences. Although no two people are exactly the same, true friendship helps us accept our differences ____55____. Even when friends ____56____ or feel uncertain at times, it doesn’t mean they stop caring. Often, they learn to see things differently ____57____ understand each other’s feelings. By doing so, they realise how wise it is to appreciate one another. Perhaps what makes friendship so special is that it allows us to see the good in others. B． 阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。 Last Sunday, our school organized a science fair. The weather was fine, and the gym was decorated with many ____58____ (有创造力的) models. At first, the judges were uncertain about which ____59____ (任务) should win the top prize. Some liked the robot that could help with ____60____ (日常的) jobs, while others preferred the ____61____ (人造的) heart model. Finally, after a long discussion, they reached an ____62____ (一致；相合). The winning invention was a smart ____63____ (机器) designed by Grade 8 students. It could ____64____ (警告) people of potential dangers at home. We all ____65____ (真正地) admired their imaginative work. Although we didn’ t ____66____ (成功), we valued this learning experience. It was a ____67____ (无价的) opportunity to apply our knowledge. 第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分15分) 68. 你校英语社正在举行“My challenge in knowing myself”的英语征文比赛，请你结合自身经历，写一篇征文稿分享你的成长故事。 My challenge in knowing myself Which part of yourself were you not happy with? □ my small eyes □ my black skin □ too shy □ have no talent □ ... What experience or person changed your opinion? □ my mother □ a competition □ … What have you learned from it? □ I am what I am. □ We don’t need to be perfect. □ … 注意：1．稿件需包含以上信息，适当增加细节，以使行文连贯; 2．稿件中不得出现真实的校名、姓名等信息; 3．词数80词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。 I suppose everyone has something they don’t like about themselves. For me,____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025学年第一学期龙湾初中协作校八年级期中质量检测 英语试卷 考生须知： 1．本试卷满分100分，考试时间90分钟。 2．所有答案均需填写在答题卡上，请在答题卡相应位置准确填写姓名、准考证号等信息，所有答案不得超过答题区域，否则不得分。 3．考试结束，试题卷与答题卷均需上交。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分) 听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. A 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. A 10. B 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. B 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共12小题，A篇每小题1分，B、C篇每小题2分，满分20分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 A 【16~19题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. B 19. D B 【20~23题答案】 【答案】20. C 21. A 22. C 23. D C 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分) 【28~32题答案】 【答案】28. E 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. Yes, I do. Because hugging trees can help me feel relaxed and closer to nature. 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分35分) 第一节 完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 【33~42题答案】 【答案】33. C 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. B 第Ⅱ卷 第二节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 【43~52题答案】 【答案】43. with 44. friends 45. said 46. but 47. Why 48. a 49. greeted 50. happily 51. realize 52. became 第三节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A． 【53~57题答案】 【答案】53. Everyone 54. talk with 55. completely 56. argue 57. and B． 【58~67题答案】 【答案】58. inventive##creative 59. task 60. daily##everyday 61. man-made 62. agreement 63. machine 64. warn 65. truly 66. succeed 67. priceless 第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分15分) 【68题答案】 【答案】 I suppose everyone has something they don’t like about themselves. For me, I was unhappy because I was too shy. I used to be too afraid to speak in class. I thought I had no talent for public speaking. What really changed me was a speech competition. My mother encouraged me to take part. At first, I wanted to refuse, but she said, “Just try your best.” So, I practiced every day. I successfully completed the competition. Everyone clapped for me. From this experience, I learned that we don’t need to be perfect. I am what I am, and that’s enough. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $