安徽合肥市蜀山区琥珀集团联考2025-2026学年八年级下学期6月期末英语试题

2025 — 2026学年度第二学期八年级期末质量调研 英语参考答案 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分） I．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1-5 CBBAC II．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 6-10 CBCAB III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 11-15 BACAC IV．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 16. Friday 17. talk 18. invited 19. busy 20. 15 / fifteen 第二部分 英语知识运用（共三大题，满分30分） V．单项选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 21-25 CDDAB VI．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 26-30 DCBAA 31-35 DBABC 36-40 BAABC 41-45 CCDAD VII．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 46-50 DEAGF 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） VIII．阅读理解（共17小题；每小题2分，满分34分） 51-53 ABC 54-56 CAD 57-59 CBC 60-62 DBD 63. New technology. / Modern technology. 64. Because many home machines use touch screens. / Because of touch screens on many home machines. 65. They need more understanding and real help for their needs. / More understanding and real help for their needs. 言之有理均可，答出1条即可满分。 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分20分） Ⅸ．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 66. term 67. lazy 68. reminds 69. energy 70. afford Ⅹ．书面表达（共1小题；满分15分） Nature and Us We have a close relationship with nature. It provides us with air, water and food. Also, nature is full of wonders waiting for us to discover. For example, scientists found a dinosaur feather in amber. This amazing discovery showed that some dinosaurs had feathers. There is also a boiling river in the rainforest. Its water can reach 86 degrees, and scientists are still doing research to find out why. I think that nature still has many secrets. To live in harmony with nature, we must protect it. We must stop littering and try our best to keep public places clean. What’s more, we can choose to walk or ride bikes instead of taking cars to cut down pollution. If we respect nature, it will give us a better future. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025 — 2026学年度第二学期八年级期末质量调研 英 语 （试题卷） 温馨提示： 1．试卷6页，共四部分，共十大题，满分100分，考试时间90分钟，请合理分配时间。 2．请你仔细核对每页试卷下方页码和题数，核实无误后再答题。 3．请将答案写在答题卷上，在试卷上答题无效，考试结束只收答题卷。 4．请你仔细思考，认真答题，不要过于紧张，祝考试顺利！ 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） I．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Linda’s dream job? A. B. C. 2. How does Emily want to travel? A. B. C. 3. What competition is Fred preparing for? A. A singing competition. B. A speaking competition. C. A writing competition. 4. How long has the woman been ill? A. For two days. B. For three days. C. For four days. 5. Which book is the most interesting to the boy? A. The science book. B. The history book. C. The storybook. II．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。 6. When did Jeff start wearing glasses? A. One year ago. B. Two years ago. C. Three years ago. 7. Where did Jack use to work? A. At the fire station. B. At the school. C. At the hospital. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. What did Peter think of his holiday? A. Terrible. B. Boring. C. Fantastic. 9. Why didn’t Peter go swimming? A. Because he was ill. B. Because it was rainy. C. Because the water was cold. 10. When will the woman probably go to the beach? A. Next week. B. Next month. C. Next year. III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Who can become a member of the group? A. People aged 16 to 30. B. People aged 13 to 60. C. All the young people. 12. How many kinds of volunteer work are talked about? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 13. What can animal lovers do for homeless dogs and cats? A. They can train them. B. They can help look after them. C. They can find new homes for them. 14. What does the speaker want to do? A. He wants to look after the children. B. He wants to care for the old people. C. He wants to take care of the animals. 15. How can you join the group if you want to be a volunteer? A. By emailing them. B. By writing to them. C. By calling them. IV．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 School’s Open Day Time On 16. _______. Activities • The headteacher will give a 17. _______. • Students will share their experiences at school. • After that, visitors will be 18. _______ to join in a school tour. Tips • Open days are often very 19. _______, so only up to two adults from each family are allowed to attend the activity. • Remember to arrive 20. _______ minutes early. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共三大题，满分30分） V．单项选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. To deal with the growing traffic jams, the government is looking for smart _______ to the problems. A. positions B. conditions C. solutions D. inventions 22. Because of the strong wind, people in the seaside town _______ to stay indoors yesterday. A. warned B. have warned C. are warned D. were warned 23. — I’m new here. I wonder _______ there is a bank near here. — Yes, there’s one around the corner. A. when B. where C. why D. whether 24. Our school club will _______ to clean up the river this Saturday. A. take action B. spring up C. turn down D. show off 25. — Dad, I fail again. It’s difficult for me to make a sky lantern. — _______! I believe you can. A. Well done B. Keep trying C. Take care D. Hard to say VI．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）) 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Last week, our class had a group project to design a poster about team spirit. We needed to work in teams of four. At first, I thought I could 26 everything better by myself. But my teacher said teamwork could help us understand each other’s strengths and overcome our 27 . I doubted it and still wanted to work alone. My team included Tom and Lisa, a shy girl, who was short of 28 . I decided to do all the work by myself. However, the project was much harder than I thought. Soon, I gave up because I couldn’t finish it on time. Then Tom 29 a creative idea. I realised that everyone had something 30 to offer. Lisa was very careful and found several mistakes that I had 31 . We began to communicate 32 with each other. When I felt nervous about the presentation, they encouraged me and helped me 33 my confidence. This support warmed my heart. 34 we met some problems later, we worked together to solve them. Finally, our poster won the first prize in the class. I will never forget this experience. With 35 , we can achieve much more. Now I always believe in the power of teamwork. 26. A. give up B. put off C. cheer for D. work out 27. A. illnesses B. chances C. weaknesses D. advantages 28. A. silence B. confidence C. difference D. service 29. A. shared B. continued C. hated D. accepted 30. A. special B. lucky C. crazy D. awful 31. A. gave B. sent C. cut D. missed 32. A. angrily B. actively C. strictly D. silently 33. A. build B. hide C. lose D. shake 34. A. Because B. Although C. Unless D. If 35. A. courage B. friendship C. teamwork D. knowledge B Joseph was known for being forgetful. One sunny afternoon, he was playing in the backyard with his dog. When he tried to go back inside, he 36 that his house key was missing. He searched all his pockets, but the key was nowhere to be found. He started to feel 37 as he thought about being locked out. Joseph searched the whole yard. He looked under the rocks, in the flower bed, and even in the sandbox. 38 , the key was still not there. He felt even more worried when he imagined how 39 his parents would be. Just then, Mrs. Johnson, Joseph’s kind neighbor, saw him. She came over and asked what was wrong. After hearing the problem, she 40 to help him look for the key. Together, they searched the yard carefully. After a few minutes, Mrs. Johnson 41 the key lying under a large leaf. She picked it up and gave it to Joseph. Joseph felt a great sense of 42 . He thanked Mrs. Johnson again and again, and 43 that he would never be so careless again. That day, Joseph learned a valuable 44 . He realised that losing something important could cause a lot of worry. More importantly, he learned to be thankful for the kindness of a helping neighbor. From then on, he always put his key in the same place as soon as he got home. He also decided to help others just 45 Mrs. Johnson. As the sun began to set, Joseph went inside with a warm heart. He knew that kindness could always bring light to a difficult moment. 36. A. forgot B. realised C. hoped D. explained 37. A. worried B. excited C. amazed D. relaxed 38. A. However B. So C. Then D. Instead 39. A. happy B. disappointed C. thirsty D. proud 40. A. refused B. remembered C. offered D. learned 41. A. made B. heard C. found D. drew 42. A. fear B. humor C. happiness D. hunger 43. A. started B. forgot C. knew D. promised 44. A. lesson B. gift C. game D. subject 45. A. for B. about C. against D. like VII．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Bob! We will give a report about dream jobs next Monday. 46 B: Yes, I have. A: 47 B: I want to be a craftsman (手艺人) and I’m going to learn Chinese paper-cutting. A: Oh, I see. You took a paper-cutting class in the Hefei Culture Center last month. It was fun, right? B: 48 I’ve fallen in love with this beautiful traditional art. What are you going to be? A: I want to work as a tour guide in Hefei. B: Why do you want to do that? A: 49 B: Your hometown is really fantastic. I’ve visited Chaohu Lake and it’s beautiful. A: There are some other wonderful places, such as Sanhe Ancient Town and Baohe Park. 50 B: Wow! Remember to be my guide when I go there one day. A: With pleasure. A. Of course. B. How about you? C. Why not cook with us? D. Have you finished it yet? E. What do you want to be? F. They’re all great places to visit. G. Because I want to introduce my hometown to more people. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分30分） VIII．阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Growing up comes with different kinds of pains. To help students face growth troubles and get better growth, our school will hold a special speech activity. Here is the key information: Topic: Face Growing Pains, Enjoy Growing Gains Time and Place: 4:00 p.m., June 13th (Monday) in the School Hall Speaker: Mr. Smith (Grade Head) Contents: 1. Share common teenage growing pains: study pressure, family arguments and shy feelings. 2. Teach students easy ways to relax and solve problems. 3. Encourage students to get courage and growth from difficulties. Notes: *All Grade 8 students must attend on time. *A related parents’ meeting will take place on Tuesday morning. 51. When will the speech activity be held? A. On Monday afternoon. B. On Tuesday morning. C. On Monday morning. D. On Tuesday afternoon. 52. Which of the following is TRUE about the speech activity? A. It welcomes students of all grades to join. B. It teaches students ways to solve problems. C. It will be held in the classroom after school. D. The speech is given by a math teacher. 53. What does the school want students to do through the speech? A. To study harder for high grades. B. To refuse to face growing difficulties. C. To deal with growing pains bravely. D. To make more friends at school. B With the 2026 World Cup around the corner, everyone is talking about soccer. In ancient China, there was a sport very similar to today’s soccer called cuju. Cuju first appeared in the Warring States Period. It’s quite similar to today’s soccer. Two teams tried to kick the ball into the goal. But a cuju team had more than 11 players. The ball used in cuju was made of animal skin and filled with hair. In the Han Dynasty, cuju was mainly used for army training. Emperors even had cuju fields in the palace. Later, it became a popular activity for rich people. In the Tang Dynasty, everyone played cuju. Women played too, and many were very good at it. The Song Dynasty was the golden age of cuju. Emperor Zhao Kuangyin was a huge cuju fan. The sport became so popular that people played it in almost every open space. After the Song and Yuan dynasties, cuju slowly started to disappear. However, cuju is still important as a part of soccer history. It won the acceptance by FIFA in 2004 as the earliest form of soccer. In 2006, it was listed as a national intangible cultural heritage (国家非物质文化遗产). Today, students in many schools are learning about this ancient sport. 54. How many players did a cuju team have? A. 11. B. 22. C. Over 11. D. Not mentioned. 55. When did FIFA recognize cuju as the earliest form of soccer? A. In 2004. B. In 2006. C. In the Song Dynasty. D. In the Han Dynasty. 56. What is the best title for this passage? A. The 2026 World Cup B. FIFA and Its History C. How to Play Cuju D. Cuju — An Ancient Chinese Sport C At the 2026 Junior & Cadet Fencing World Championships (世界青少年击剑锦标赛), 13-year-old Zhang Yixin won a silver medal in April. She became the youngest Chinese player to win a medal at the event. One of her hardest matches was against the Russian player, Belykh Uliana. The match went into overtime, and one more point would decide the winner. During those scary seconds, Zhang remembered her training. “I didn’t think about winning or losing,” she said. “I told myself: Trust the training, and I can win this point.” With one quick move, she scored the winning touch. This match taught her an important lesson. “Fencing is not only about skills,” she said. “It’s also about who can stay calm in difficult moments.” As the youngest player, Zhang was often seen as the underdog. But she sees it differently: “Being younger means I have more chances to learn from mistakes and break my own limits,” she said. Behind Zhang’s success is another important person her father, who is also her fencing coach. “He is very strict during training,” Zhang said. “But in daily life, he becomes a kind father again and always cares about my feelings.” Before competitions, her parents carefully check her equipment (装备). “These small things make me feel warm,” Zhang said. “They make me feel that someone is always supporting me.” 57. What helped Zhang Yixin win the final point in her hardest match? A. Her father’s instructions. B. A mistake by the other player. C. Her staying calm and trusting her training. D. Her lucky day. 58. What does the underlined word “underdog” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. A person who is very tall. B. A person who is expected to lose. C. A person who always wins. D. A person who likes dogs. 59. Why does Zhang mention her father in the last paragraph? A. To complain (抱怨) about her father’s strict training. B. To explain why she started fencing. C. To show that her father supports her in different ways. D. To show that her father is a better fencer. D A 20,000-km walk from Africa to the Arctic Circle has started. The walk is called The Herds (动物木偶巡游活动). It will raise people’s understanding of the climate problem and will take four months. The project includes hundreds of real-size puppets (木偶) of lions, zebras, monkeys, and other animals. Over 2,000 people will make more puppets, all from materials that can be used again. The Herds organizers want to show how climate change is influencing animals. A spokesperson said: “The Herds is public art and climate action on a very large level. It’s an exciting coming together of culture and climate.” The animal puppets will visit more than 20 cities across Africa and Europe, including Casablanca, Paris and London. The final event will be in August. Each city will host street performances. These will focus on how we can help the Earth. An environmental group said: “The Herds is going to reach millions of people and bring the beauty of nature right onto the streets and into people’s lives.” Another group said: “The Herds shows the twin problems of climate change and loss of wildlife, and the journey we must all make towards a brighter future.” 60. How long will The Herds walk take? A. One month. B. Two months. C. Six months. D. Four months. 61. Why do cities host street performances? A. To make more puppets. B. To help the Earth. C. To welcome the walkers. D. To sell gifts. 62. Where might this passage most likely come from? A. A storybook for children. B. A cookbook. C. A math textbook. D. A magazine. 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。 E Close your eyes and imagine not being able to see anything, but still having to go out by yourself every day. For Li Mengqi, a 31-year-old blind woman who works in Beijing, life was difficult more than 10 years ago. But now, things are different. “New technology has made my life much easier.” Li said. In the past, it was hard for her to shop or take a taxi. Now, online shopping and ride-hailing (叫车服务) apps make these things easier. The subway’s accessibility services (无障碍服务) also help her travel around the city more easily. She can ask workers for help getting on the subway and changing lines. In 1990, China set the third Sunday of May as a national day to support people with disabilities. On Sept 1, 2023, China introduced its first law on barrier-free environment construction (无障碍环境建设). It covers both offline and online services. Still, Li believes there is a lot to improve. For example, many home machines now use touch screens, so it is hard for blind people to tell buttons (按钮) apart. This year, China included better support for people with disabilities in the 15th Five-Year Plan. To improve accessibility services, the government, companies and the public all need to work together. In Li’s opinion, disabled people do not need too much pity. “We enjoy more understanding and real help for our needs.” she said. 63. What has made Li Mengqi’s life much easier? （不超过5个词） ________________________________________________ 64. Why is it hard for blind people to tell buttons apart? （(不超过10个词） ________________________________________________ 65. What do disabled people need according to Li Mengqi? （不超过10个词） ________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分20分） IX．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 66. I will try my best this t ______ (学期) and make every day count. 67. I used to be too l ______ (懒惰的) to try new things, but now I know that every effort makes me a better person. 68. My mother’s warm hug always r ______ (使想起) me that I am deeply loved. 69. Eating healthy food gives you more e ______ (能源) to train harder for sports and reach your goals. 70. Thanks to the government, every family in the village could a ______ (负担得起) to send their children to school. X．书面表达（共1小题；满分15分） 人类一直在探索自然，假定你是李华，你的学校英语校刊正在举办以 Nature and Us 为主题的征文活动，请你根据以下提示写一篇短文投稿： 1．简述人与自然的关系；2．列举人类探索自然的两项惊人发现；3．提出至少两点保护自然的建议。 要求：1．条理清晰，语句通顺，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；2．文中不能出现真实的校名和人名；3．词数80 ~ 100。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $