初升高(新高一)衔接能力测试卷(基础版) -2026年人教版英语必修第一册暑假衔接专项练习

**基本信息** 聚焦初升高衔接，以生活化素材（如养植物、共享单车）与文化传承（中国结、传统礼仪）为载体，通过分层题型全面考查语言理解、表达及跨文化思维能力，适配暑期过渡需求。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |阅读理解|20题/50分|细节理解、词义猜测、主旨归纳|A篇植物养护渗透责任教育，D篇共享单车引导辩证思维| |完形填空|15题/15分|词汇辨析、语境理解|志愿者支教故事凸显情感体验与价值观塑造| |语法填空|10题/15分|定语从句、非谓语动词等|以在线学习为情境，考查语法在真实语境中的运用| |书面表达|2题/40分|应用文写作、读后续写|邮件写作融合跨文化交际（气候、礼仪），续写故事培养逻辑与共情能力|

-------------------------------初升高衔接能力测试卷(基础卷)-------------------------------- 满分 120 分 时间 90 分钟 亲爱的同学，在过去三年的初中英语学习中，或许你能秒完填杀阅读，最难的短文语法填空也统统满分拿下，每次考试的高分非你莫属，那么想对你说，初中的你，真的很棒！到了高中，面对长篇幅陌生词汇陡增的阅读，面对更刁钻的完形填空和综合知识全面考察的语法填空，你，是否依然能从容自信面对？那么下面的测试祝你好运！ 第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 常规阅读（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Many teenagers love keeping small plants at home, but few know how to take care of them properly. A small potted plant can not only make your room beautiful but also bring you peace of mind during busy study days. Here are some easy and useful tips for new plant growers. First, sunlight is important but too much sunlight is harmful. Most indoor plants prefer bright but indirect light. Putting them near a window with thin curtains is a perfect choice. Direct strong sunlight in summer will burn their leaves and make them turn yellow. Second, water your plants correctly. A common mistake for beginners is watering too often. The soil should be dry on the top before you water again. Too much water will make the roots rot. Usually, watering once every two to three days is enough for most indoor plants in spring and autumn. Finally, small plants need simple care. You can wipe the dust off their leaves once a week to help them “breathe” better. Moving them to a new place suddenly may make them grow slowly, so try to keep them in a fixed position. Growing plants is a great hobby. It teaches teenagers patience and responsibility, and adds a little warmth to daily life. 1. What is the main benefit of growing indoor plants for teenagers? A. Helping them get better grades B. Beautifying rooms and calming minds C. Saving money on home decoration D. Making them more outgoing 2. What does the underlined word “rot” in Paragraph 3 mean? A. 腐烂 B. 生长 C. 枯萎 D. 发芽 3. What can we learn from the text? A. Plants need strong direct sunlight every day B. Watering plants every day is a good habit C. Dust on leaves may influence plants’ growth D. Moving plants often helps them grow faster B When I was in junior high school, I was afraid of public speaking. I was a shy boy who never dared to speak in front of the whole class. Every time my teacher asked someone to give a speech, I would lower my head and pray not to be chosen. Things changed in Grade 9. My English teacher noticed my problem. One day, she asked me to take part in a school English speech contest. I refused at once, saying I was not good enough. The teacher smiled and told me, “Courage is not having no fear, but moving forward with fear.” Her words encouraged me deeply. In the following weeks, I practiced hard every day. I wrote my speech repeatedly, corrected my pronunciation and practiced in front of the mirror. I also asked my classmates for advice. At first, I still felt nervous, but I kept telling myself not to give up. On the day of the contest, my hands shook and my heart beat fast. When I stood on the stage, I took a deep breath and began to speak. To my surprise, I finished my speech smoothly. Although I only won the third prize, I was extremely proud of myself. This experience taught me a valuable lesson. Growth always happens outside of our comfort zone. Now I am no longer shy, and I am brave enough to try new things. 4. Why did the writer refuse the speech contest at first? A. He was too busy with study B. He lacked confidence and was shy C. He thought the contest was too hard D. He disliked speaking English 5. What can we infer about the writer’s teacher? A. She is strict and serious B. She is helpful and encouraging C. She only cares about top students D. She is good at giving speeches 6. What does the writer learn from the experience? A. Practice makes perfect B. Failure is the mother of success C. Growth lies in stepping out of comfort zones D. Good luck brings great progress C Traditional Chinese knotting is a famous folk art with a history of more than 3,000 years. It is popular all over China and loved by people around the world. Chinese knots are made of simple red ropes, but they carry rich cultural meanings. In Chinese culture, red stands for luck, happiness and warmth. Different shapes of Chinese knots have different special meanings. The double happiness knot is used for weddings, wishing new couples a happy marriage. The lucky knot means peace and good fortune for families. The butterfly knot symbolizes freedom and beauty. In the past, Chinese knots were often used as decorations on clothes, bags and doors. People also hung them in their houses during festivals like the Spring Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival. Nowadays, this traditional art has new changes. More young people start to learn knotting. They design new-style knots to match modern clothes and gifts. Chinese knots have become popular cultural gifts for foreign friends. As a symbol of Chinese traditional culture, Chinese knotting is not only a kind of art, but also a carrier of people’s best wishes. It has been passed down from generation to generation and will keep shining in the future. 7. What color are traditional Chinese knots usually? A. Yellow B. Red C. Blue D. Green 8. Which knot is suitable for a wedding gift? A. Lucky knot B. Butterfly knot C. Double happiness knot D. Simple round knot 9. What is the present situation of Chinese knotting? A. It is disappearing slowly B. It keeps traditional styles with no changes C. Young people create new designs for it D. It is only popular among old people 10. What is the best title for the text? A. The History of Chinese Festivals B. The Beauty and Meaning of Chinese Knots C. How to Make Traditional Chinese Knots D. Different Kinds of Folk Arts in China D Nowadays, more and more people choose to ride bicycles for short-distance travel. Bicycle-sharing services have become common in cities. However, every coin has two sides. Bike-sharing brings convenience as well as problems. On the one hand, bike-sharing is very convenient. It solves the “last kilometer” problem of public transport. People can pick up and park bikes anywhere near their homes or subway stations. It is also a green and low-carbon way of travel. Riding bikes helps reduce air pollution and traffic jams. Besides, it is a cheap way to travel and good for people’s physical health. On the other hand, it causes some troubles. Some users park bikes randomly on sidewalks, blocking roads and influencing pedestrians’ walking. Some people even damage the bikes on purpose or lock them for personal use. Too many shared bikes also take up public space, which affects the city’s appearance. To solve these problems, cities have made strict rules for bike-sharing management. Users need to park bikes in fixed areas and will be fined for random parking. Companies also check and repair bikes regularly. With proper management, bike-sharing can serve people better and play a greater role in green city development. 11. What does the underlined sentence “every coin has two sides” mean? A. Everything has advantages and disadvantages B. Coins can be used in two ways C. All things in life are perfect D. Every problem can be solved 12. What is one advantage of bike-sharing? A. It takes up no public space B. It helps improve air quality C. It needs no management rules D. It is free for all users 13. Which is a problem caused by shared bikes? A. Increasing traffic jams B. Making public transport useless C. Random parking blocking roads D. Raising people’s living cost 14. How do cities deal with bike-sharing problems? A. Stop providing shared bikes B. Make strict management rules C. Increase the price of riding D. Let users repair bikes themselves 15. What is the writer’s attitude towards bike-sharing? A. Completely negative B. Totally supportive C. Objective (客观的) D. Doubtful 第二节 七选五（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Develop a Good Reading Habit Reading is one of the best ways to improve ourselves. It opens up a new world and enriches our knowledge. However, many students find it hard to keep a reading habit. 16._________. First, choose books that interest you. If you pick a book that is too boring or too difficult, you will soon give up. You can start with storybooks, travel books or sports books that you like.17._________ Second, set a fixed reading time. You don’t need to read for a long time every day. 18._________ For example, you can read for 15 minutes before going to bed every night. Fixed time helps you form a habit gradually. Third, make reading a relaxing activity. Don’t treat reading as a heavy task. Put aside your study pressure and enjoy the stories and knowledge in books. 19._________ Finally, keep reading every day. Habit comes from long-term insistence. Even on busy days, finish a little reading. As the old saying goes, “Little by little, one goes far.” 20._________ A. Just 10 to 20 minutes a day is enough. B. Here are some useful suggestions for you. C. You will get more fun and growth from reading. D. Reading can help you get good grades easily. E. Gradually, you will fall in love with reading. F. It’s better to read thick books all the time. G. Interest is the best teacher for reading. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last summer, I took part in a volunteer activity in a mountain village. Before I went there, I thought it would be a hard and boring trip. However, it turned out to be the most 21._____ experience in my life. The village was small and quiet. The roads were not wide, and the houses were simple. But the air was fresh and the scenery was 22._____ I worked as a volunteer teacher there, helping village children with their English and Chinese. At first, the children were very 23._____ and shy. They dared not talk to me or ask questions in class. I tried my best to 24._____ them. I told funny stories and played games with them after class. Slowly, they became active and 25._____ to communicate with me. Every morning, I walked to the small village school with the children. They shared their homemade snacks and interesting village stories with me. In class, they listened 26._____ and studied very hard. They were thirsty for knowledge and hoped to change their 27._____ through study. During the activity, I not only taught them knowledge but also learned a lot from them. Their simplicity and diligence deeply 28._____ me. They never complained about the poor living conditions and always kept 29._____. I used to think rural study conditions were tough and might make kids lose passion. But these children totally 30._____ my old opinions. They cherished every minute in class and treasured the chance to learn new things. When the one-week activity finally ended, I felt extremely 31._____ to leave the lovely kids. They prepared many hand-drawn pictures as special 32._____ for me, with warm wishes written on them. This special experience made me deeply 33._____ the true meaning of volunteer work. Happiness does not come from getting, but from giving. Helping others can bring us true joy and make our life more 34._____. I have decided to take part in more volunteer activities in the future, to pass on warmth and create more social 35._____. 21. A. terrible B. wonderful C. difficult D. strange 22. A. ugly B. common C. beautiful D. dark 23. A. quiet B. excited C. happy D. brave 24. A. refuse B. encourage C. stop D. watch 25. A. afraid B. unwilling C. ready D. nervous 26. A. carelessly B. patiently C. lazily D. casually 27. A. family B. village C. future D. hobby 28. A. moved B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried 29. A. sad B. positive C. tired D. bored 30. A. supported B. doubted C. challenged D. confirmed 31. A. proud B. regretful C. glad D. relaxed 32. A. gifts B. tasks C. rules D. lessons 33. A. imagine B. prepare C. remember D. understand 34. A. boring B. colorful C. simple D. meaningless 35. A. value B. pressure C. risk D. trouble 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Online learning has become more and more popular in recent years. It is a new way of learning 36._________ is different from traditional classroom learning. With the development of the Internet, students can learn knowledge at home 37._________ (easy). There are many advantages of online learning. First, it saves time. Students don’t need 38._________ (travel) to school every day. Second, it provides more learning resources. Students can watch different teaching videos and choose courses39._________ (they) like. Third, it is convenient for students to review what they have learned. However, online learning also has shortcomings. If students spend too much time 40._________(look) at screens, their eyesight will be hurt. Besides, some students can’t focus on study without teachers’ supervision, so they may become lazy and lose self-control. In my opinion, online learning is 41._________ useful tool. We should make good use of it. We need to make a proper study plan every day and stick to 42._________ (we) goals. At the same time, we should take breaks regularly to protect our eyes and keep a healthy lifestyle. Last term, I 43._________ (use) online learning to make up for my weak subjects. I improved my English a lot. I believe online learning 44._________ (help) more students improve themselves in the future if we use it 45._________ (wise). 第三部分 书面表达（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Tom即将来华参加暑期研学活动，他写信询问他来华后的生活、学习安排及注意事项。请你给他回一封邮件，内容包括： 1. 欢迎他来华； 2. 简要介绍研学活动（中文学习、传统文化体验、城市游览）； 3. 提醒相关注意事项（气候、礼仪、随身物品）。 要求:词数80左右；格式规范、内容完整、语言流畅;可适当增加细节,使行文连贯。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。 It was a sunny Saturday afternoon. I walked home happily after finishing my weekend study. On the way, I noticed an old grandma standing by the roadside, looking worried. She held a small cloth bag in her hand and kept looking around. I walked up to her and asked if she needed help. The grandma told me that she had come to visit her grandson who lived in this community. But she was new here and had lost her way. She couldn’t remember the exact building number and her phone was dead, so she couldn’t contact her family. I felt sorry for the helpless grandma. I decided to help her. First, I took her to the community service center nearby. The staff there were warm and kind. They tried to check the resident information for us, but they found no useful results. 注意： 1.续写两段，每段开头已给出，不得改写； 2.词数150左右； 3.情节合理，细节丰富，语言通顺。 Paragraph 1 Seeing the grandma’s anxious look, I thought of another idea._______________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2 Finally, the grandma’s grandson rushed to the community center.____________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 答题卡 考试说明 1. 本答题卡满分120分，考试时间90分钟 2. 选择题答案必须用2B铅笔填涂，非选择题用黑色签字笔规范书写 3. 所有答案必须作答在答题卡对应区域，超出答题区域无效 姓名：__________ 班级：__________ 考号：__________ 得分：__________ 第一部分 阅读理解（满分50分） 第一节 常规阅读（15小题，每小题2.5分，共37.5分） 填涂说明：请将正确选项对应的方框涂黑 1 A□ B□ C□ D□ 2 A□ B□ C□ D□ 3 A□ B□ C□ D□ 4 A□ B□ C□ D□ 5 A□ B□ C□ D□ 6 A□ B□ C□ D□ 7 A□ B□ C□ D□ 8 A□ B□ C□ D□ 9 A□ B□ C□ D□ 10 A□ B□ C□ D□ 11 A□ B□ C□ D□ 12 A□ B□ C□ D□ 13 A□ B□ C□ D□ 14 A□ B□ C□ D□ 15 A□ B□ C□ D□ 第二节 七选五（5小题，每小题2.5分，共12.5分） 16 A□ B□ C□ D□ E□ F□ G□ 17 A□ B□ C□ D□ E□ F□ G□ 18 A□ B□ C□ D□ E□ F□ G□ 19 A□ B□ C□ D□ E□ F□ G□ 20 A□ B□ C□ D□ E□ F□ G□ 第二部分 语言知识运用（满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 21 A□ B□ C□ D□ 22 A□ B□ C□ D□ 23 A□ B□ C□ D□ 24 A□ B□ C□ D□ 25 A□ B□ C□ D□ 26 A□ B□ C□ D□ 27 A□ B□ C□ D□ 28 A□ B□ C□ D□ 29 A□ B□ C□ D□ 30 A□ B□ C□ D□ 31 A□ B□ C□ D□ 32 A□ B□ C□ D□ 33 A□ B□ C□ D□ 34 A□ B□ C□ D□ 35 A□ B□ C□ D□ 第二节 语法填空（10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分） 答题区域：规范书写单词，每空一词 36. _________ 37. _________ 38. __________ 39. __________ 40. __________ 41. _________ 42. _________ 43. __________ 44. __________ 45. __________ 第三部分 书面表达（满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（15分） 答题区域：词数80左右，超出区域作答无效 ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 读后续写（25分） 答题区域：两段续写，总词数150左右，超出区域作答无效 Paragraph 1 ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2 ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 得分统计栏（阅卷使用） 阅读理解：______ 语言知识运用：_______ 书面表达：______ 总分：_______ 参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 阅读理解 第一节 常规阅读 1-3: BAC 4-6: BBC 7-10: BC CB 11-15: ABCBC 第二节 七选五 16-20: BGAEC 第二部分 语言知识运用 第一节 完形填空 21-25: BCABC 26-30: BCABC 31-35: BADBA 第二节 语法填空 36. that/which 37. easily 38. to travel 39. they 40. looking 41. a 42. our 43. used 44. will help 45. wisely 第三部分 书面表达（范文+评分标准） 第一节 应用文写作 参考范文 Dear Tom, I’m glad to hear that you will come to China for the summer study tour. Warm welcome to you! During the activity, you will learn basic Chinese courses and experience traditional Chinese culture like paper-cutting and tea art. We will also visit local scenic spots to know more about our city. It’s hot in summer here, so please bring light clothes. Besides, remember to follow local manners. You’d better take a power bank in case your phone runs out of power. Looking forward to your arrival! Yours, Li Hua 评分标准：格式规范（3分）、要点齐全（6分）、语言流畅、句式丰富（4分）、词数合规（2分） 第二节 读后续写 参考范文 Paragraph 1 Seeing the grandma’s anxious look, I thought of another idea. I asked the grandma carefully for more details about her grandson. She told me that her grandson was a middle school student and he liked playing basketball. With the help of the community staff, we checked the recent activity records. Soon we found that a boy matching the description often played basketball in the community playground. We hurried to the playground and looked for him, but we didn’t see him there. Paragraph 2 Finally, the grandma’s grandson rushed to the community center. He was very worried and thanked us repeatedly. He said his grandma seldom went out alone and accidentally got lost. The grandma smiled happily and held her grandson’s hand tightly. Watching them leave safely, I felt a strong sense of achievement. This small thing taught me that kindness is always valuable. Helping others not only warms others’ hearts, but also makes our own world full of sunshine. 评分标准：情节连贯合理（10分）、细节描写丰富（8分）、语言语法准确、句式多样（5分）、词数合规（2分） 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $