安徽合肥市第三十中学2025-2026学年下学期八年级英语期末试卷

2025一2026学年春季学期八年级英语期末考试卷 试题卷 2026.6 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分） 1.短对话理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题给出的A,B.C三个选项中选出 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍 1.Where are the speakers? MUSEUM A. 2.What would Tom like to be when he grows up? 长 3.What will the boy bring for the picnic? A.Fruits. B.Drinks C.Sandwiches. 4.How does the boy feel now? A.Excited. B.Unhappy. C.Happy 5.What makes a great team according to the dialogue? A.Buying gifts.) B.Working hard. C.Sharing and helping. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题给出的A,B,C三个选项中选出 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 童 6.What's the matter with Susan? A.She has too many after-school classes. B.She has no real friends C.She has problems in study. 7.What does the boy tell her to do? A.To talk to her parents.B.To join a new club. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 C.To be more outgoing. 8.Why is Tom sad? A.He lost his keys. B.He was late for school.C.His team lost the game. 9.How long did Tom's team train for the match? A.For half a month B.For one month. 10.What advice does Mrs.Zhang give to Tom's teammates? C.For two months. A.Working together as a team. B.Asking others for help. C.Changing their teammates 第1页（共8页） Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A,B.C三个选 项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11.What is the speaker interested in? A.Math. B.Nature. C.Space. 12.Where will he study after high school? A.In the university B.In space. C.In the lab. 13.How long will the university course last? A.Three years. B.Four years. C.Five years. 14.What will he learn during the training? A.How to build rockets. B.How to live and work in space. C.How to communicate with aliens. 15.What's his biggest dream? A.He loves adventure. B.He wants to discover new planets. C.He wants to be famous Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文 读两 How to protect the environment .Tum off the 16 if it's not necessary. Ways .Walk to work or school when it's possible.It's 17 and healthy. .Take a cloth bag when we go shopping 18 of using plastic ones. .The government should make 19 to guide people's behavior. Result .The 20 people take action to protect the environment,the better the earth will be. 第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V.单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A,B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填人空白处的最佳选项。 21.It's for volunteers to receive training before doing the tasks. A.special B.possible C.necessary 22.Benjamin Franklin travelled the Atlantic Ocean eight times. D.comfortable A.across B.through C.by 23.Some ordinary families hardly D.on high living cost. such expensive houses and fancy cars because of the A.provide B.donate 24.-You C.afford be very tired after finishing all of those hard jobs. D.organize -Yes.I'll take a rest and make myself relaxed. A.should B.can 25.Exploring space is a C.may D.must A.job to human because there are many unknown difficulties B.challenge 26.Tony studies hard for the coming English test C.pioneer D.chance A.because of B.even though he can get good grades. C.as long as 27.-In last night's match,Fan Zhendong kept fighting until the very last second. D.so that -Yes.His spirit always encourages me A.probably B.sweetly when I feel stressed. C.especially D.surely 第2页（共8页） 28.-Who's your favorite teacher? -Miss Green.She makes us English in an interesting way A.believe in B.take part in C.come up with D.fall in love with 29.Language learning apps by more and more people these days. A.use B.used C.are used D.were used 30.-I think teenagers should be allowed to have part-time jobs. Studying isn't everything for them. A.No problem B.I disagree with you C.I can't agree more D.You can't be serious M.完形填空（共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A,B,CD四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A Karina and I first met in the Kung Fu summer camp.We were very 31.For example,we both liked climbing the mountains,watching old movies,and trying new foods.We both thought that we would always be friends and 32 argue. But 33 happened.Our camp was next to a piece of beautiful land with lots of trees.One day,one of our friends Levar told us a piece of news."People will 34 the trees to clear the land for building a store,"he said. “Such a fantastic thing！"I shouted.“The_35_will make new jobs for many people！" But Karina became 36."But I think all the birds will lose their homes! 37 I want people to have jobs,it doesn't mean cutting down trees."she explained sadly. "But don't you think people's jobs are more important?"I asked angrily Then we stopped arguing.After sitting quietly for a while,I understood something important. Although I expected Karina to agree with me,I knew she had her reason to 38 what she said. No two people think alike,and even best friends argue or 39 sometimes.When having different 40,we should try to understand and respect each other. 31.A.similar B.different C.popular D.familiar 32.A.always B.sometimes C.often D.never 33.A.anything B.something C.everything D.nothing 34.A.climb up B.throw away C.cut down D.pick up 35..A.store B.tower C.station D.square 36.A.shy B.serious C.happy D.outgoing 37.A.If B.Until C.Although D.Since 38.A.refuse B.support C.encourage D.solve 39.A.fight B.learn C.laugh D.help 40.A.dreams B.ideas C.interests D.plans What makesa great team?For most people,the answer is teamwork.A great team is not 41a group of people,but a group that can workith and believe in eachr Inou clss study group.every member can alk and share ideas freely.We 42 our problems and hopesh each othernd ei when we have uti When omoe has ifferent ideasw don't rgu n the conrryw tak4d ind the est way to solve problems together. A good team also needs to 44 mistakes.Making mistakes is not terrible.The important 第3页（共8页） thing is to learn and not make the same ones again.In difficult times,we 45 each other and never give up. Our group leader is Lily.She is kind and always 46 us to do our best.She says a good leader should 47 responsibility in times of disagreement.But the most important thing is that every member works hard for the team 48 teamwork,we can finish our tasks better and faster.It teaches us to trust and care about others.I believe that if we keep this spirit,our team will always be 49.Teamwork is truly the 50 to success！ 41.A.almost B.even C.yet D.just 42.A.tell B.share C.ask D.answer 43.A.carefully B.quickly C.completely D.hardly 44.A.hear from B.learn from C.come from D.suffer from 45.A.help B.miss C.find D.call 46.A.order B.pushes C.encourages D.forces 47.A.get B.take C.make D.do 48.A.With B.Without C.For D.About 49.A.strange B.weak C.strong D.common 50.A.step B.result C.value D.key I.补全对话（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填人空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 Alan:Hi,Mike.What are you doing these days? Mike:I am busy preparing for the marathon in our city.51 Alan:A volunteer?You are great!When will it be held? Mike:Next month. Alan:52 Mike:A lot of things.I'll clean up the streets,offer water to the runners and take photos for them. Alan: That sounds cool.I want to be a volunteer,too.53 A.What should I do? Mike:You should sign up on the Internet by B.I will work as a volunteer C.It's a good idea to run in the marathon. Friday first Alan:Anything else? D.You will also have an interview after getting a Mike:Yes.54 I'm sure you can make it. call. Alan:55 E.What will you do in the marathon? Mike:Good luck!I'm looking forward to F.I hope so. working with you. G.I have taken part in many running races before. 第三部分阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Care Workers Do you have the ability to care for others?Can you understand how old people feel?Are you good at talking?Do you listen well?Can you work at weekends?We need you!Welcome to Happy Old People's Home. Email:happycare@home.com 第4页（共8页） Writers Wanted Kids'Magazine is looking for writers.We need people good at writing.Pay depends on your articles.You can get free books to read.You can rest at weekends.It's a good chance for work experience. Email:kidmag@126.com Guides Needed Do you like travelling?Are you good at talking?Are you ready to help visitors?You can work at Green Lake Tourist Centre.You work 55 hours a week.You can only rest on Tuesdays Call:6897-2345 Email:greenlake@163.com Volunteers Wanted Do you like reading?Are you helpful?Can you work at weekends?Do you want to work in a library?Working here helps you learn more and help others. Ca1:8765-4321 56.What kind of workers do Happy Old People's Home and Green Lake Tourist Centre need? A.Workers who are good at travelling. B.Workers who are good at writing. C.Workers who are good at talking. D.Workers who are good at drawing 57.If Tom wants to have a rest at weekends,which job can he choose? A.A care worker. B.A writer. C.A guide. D.A library volunteer 58.Where may the text be from? A.A storybook. B.A travel magazine. C.A job website D.A postcard. David,aged 14,wants everyone in his school to know they're important members of the school.People are connected with each other.No one is an island. One day.David saw a sad boy on the playground.After talking with the boy,he knew that the boy felt lonely because he couldn't fit in well in the school.David remembered seeing some other students who felt lonely,too.This made David come up with an idea.He wanted to give something special to everyone in the school to remind them that they were connected.David told his parents his idea.And they were very glad to support him. After discussing the idea with his teachers and classmates,he decided on buttons () Together with his classmates,David printed the buttons with the sentence "You Belong Here!" Then they gave the buttons to each student in the school.David hoped that the buttons would help the students remember that they all belonged here.He also hoped the students could make friends actively. Now,almost all the students in the school are wearing the buttons.The students in the school spend more time with each other than before.Even the students who were lonely before are interacting (a lot more with others.David is very happy because he knows that he has really made a differenceIn David'seyes,everyone should give more care and kindness to people around. 59.What is David's idea? A.To help students feel connected. B.To make more friends at school. C.To design a new school uniform D.To organize a sports meeting. 第5页（共8页） 60.How should we treat people around in David's eyes? A.By giving more books and pens. B.By giving more care and kindness. C.By giving more attention and advice. D.By giving more food and drinks. 61.What is the passage mainly about? A.Sports news. B.Family life. C.Travel plans. D.School life. It is not always easy to find yourself.Froma young age,I hadasron feeling of who Iwould become-but an accident changed everything. For me,skating was more important than anything else in the world.Nothing else filled my heart with so much happiness.I spent 24 hours a week developing my abilities.I had no social life or interests except skating.And I got the first place in nearly every match. Unluckily,during one match,I fell and was badly hurt.The doctor told me that I couldn't skate any more.The pain in my back was hard to bear and even everyday life became difficult. The accident took away all of my happiness and success.I lost heart and had no idea who I would become.After being in great pain for eight months,something had to change.I didn't sit around and waste my days any longer.I began to work for the local community.By volunteering as a swimming coach and summer reading teacher for kids,I got an idea of who I wanted to become. After a few months,I found a new interest.Little by little,I stepped out of the pain and rebuilt my confidence My accident was a big challenge for me.It didn't stop me from reaching success.Today,I'm a very confident person and I always face my life with a smile. Sometimes,challenges in life will get in our way.Would you choose to stay behind or try to get past? 62.Which sport is the most important to the writer? A.Swimming. B.Skating. C.Jogging. D.Surfing. 63.What does the underlined word"bear"mean in Paragraph 3? A.挑战 B.移动 C.忍受 D.折磨 64.What volunteer work did the writer do after the accident? A.Working as a swimming coach and reading teacher for kids. B.Helping clean the community park every day C.Teaching skating lessons for kids. D.Working in a local hospital. 65.What's the best title of this passage? A.A big challenge in life. B.My Favorite Sport-Skating. C.A Terrible Accident in My Life. D.Stay Strong,Find Yourself. D In the traditional Chinese farming calendar,a year is divided into 24 solar terms and there are six terms in each season..Grain Rain（谷雨)，the sixth and final solar term of spring,usually falls in late April.Its name originates from the ancient saying,"Rain brings up the growth of hundreds of grains"showing the imporance of rainfall during this period for crop growth. Grain Rain is not just about farming,but also rich in cultural traditions.In southem China, people enjoyrkinsringenthisday.The tea is full of vitaminsand s believed to help people bettrd keep bad luckway Meawhleinrhe China,people usully eat ther too().This seasonal vegetable is known for being good for the stomach. nother interesintdtion belongs o co()fishermen.For many years,they have 第6页（共8页） celebrated the Grain Rain Festival,which marks their first fishing trip of the year.During the festival,they pray for safety at sand suessfu fishing season. Ranisreof chainthe close cob humans and nature in Chinese culture.As spring turns to summer,people follow old customs while nthture'hyhm.This harmony remindstrepet the arth's cyclesjus farmers and fishermen have'done for centuries. 66.The sixth and final solar term of spring is A.Rain Water. B.Grain Rain. C.Grain in Ear D.Minor Heat. 67.What do people in southem China enjoy doing on Grain Rain? A.Eating red toon.B.Drinking spring tea.C.Planting crops. D.Going fishing. 68.What can we infer about coastal fishermen? A.They dislike rainy days. B.They prefer farming to fishing C.They never celebrate festivals. D.They care about natural cycles. 69.What is the main idea of the passage? A.The history of Chinese solar terms. B.The cultural traditions of Grain Rain. C.The best time to grow crops in China. D.The dangers of fishing in the ocean. Wang Zhenyi was a famous scientist in Chinese history.She lived in the Qing Dynasty,from 1768 to 1797.She was good at astronomy,math,and writing.She was one of the few women scientists in old China. When Wang was young,she loved reading and studying.Her family had a lot of books.She read books about stars,math,and nature.At that time,most people thought girls should not learn science.But Wang loved science very much.She studied by herself and never stopped leamning. Wang did many easy experiments to learn about the world.She used lamps and round things to study the moon and sun.She knew that the Earth is round,not flat.She also learned math rules well and wrote down her studies. She wrote many books to share her ideas.She studied stars,the sun,the moon,and numbers. Her work helped people know more about nature. Wang Zhenyi died young,a the age of 29.But people never forget her.Today,a place on the msmdaftrher.She teaches us that with hard work and love for leaming,we can do great things. 70.What did people use to think about the Earth at Wang Zhenyi's time? A.The Earth was round. B.The Earth was flat. C.The Earth moved around the moon. 71.Which of the following is TRUE? D.The Earth was smaller than the sun. A.Wang Zhenyi lived to be more than 60 years old. B.People at that time all agreed that girls should study science. C.Wang Zhenyi knew the Earth is round,not flat. D.No place on the moon is named after Wang Zhenyi. 72.What's the structure of this passage? ①②③④ B ②③④⑤ ③④⑤ 第7页（共8须） 第二节阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 F In a small village in Yunnan,there lives a young man named Li Wei.He was once a migrant (worker in a big city,but he decided to retur to his hometown two years ago.His goal was to use the Internet to help villagers sell their oranges. At first,many villagers didn't believe in him.They thought no one would buy fruits online.Li Wei didn't give up.He learned how to film and edit short videos.He showed the beautiful orange orchards()and the process of picking fresh oranges.He also told stories about the hardworking villagers.His videos became very popular on social media. Soon,orders started pouring in from all over China.The villagers were amazed.In the first year,they sold three times as many oranges as before.Now,Li Wei has taught many young villagers how to do live stream().Their village has become famous as"Orange Live Streaming Village".Li Wei's success shows that with creativity and technology,young people can make a big difference in their hometowns. 73.When did Li Wei retum to his hometown?(不超过10个词) 74.What was Li Wei's goal?(不超过10个词) 75.What can we leam from Li Wei's success?(不超过l5个词) 第四部分写（共两大题，满分25分） X.单词拼写（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76.It's necessary to master a useful s (技巧)for every student. 77.Don't be afraid if you f (失败)because you can try again.. 78.The doctor was glad to find that the soldier was still a (活着的) 79.The little boy b (打破)the window with a ball yesterday, 80.Ad of tear rolled down her face. X.书面表达（共1小题：满分20分） 课余时间是我们放松和成长的好机会。你平时在空闲时间会做什么？你如何合理安排课 余生活，让自己的生活更充实、更有意义？请根据以下提示内容，写一篇80词左右的英语短文， 分享你的课余生活安排。 内容要点：L,你通常在课余时间做哪些活动（如运动、阅读、微家务等）： 2.你是如何合理安排这些活动的： 3.这些活动带给你什么收获或意义 要求：1.内容涵盖所有要点，可适当发挥。 2.文中不得出现你的真实姓名和学校名称， 3.词数80左右，文章的开头已给出，不计入总词数 How to Make Free Time More Meaningful It's important for us to make good use of our free time 第8页（共8页）2025一2026学年春季学期八年级英语期末考试卷 听力原文 2026.6 I.短对话理解 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出一 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1.W:Look at those monkeys!They're cute. M:Yes,there are so many lovely animals in the zoo today. 2.W:What do you want to be when you grow up,Tom? M:I want to be a cook. 3.W:For the picnic,I'll bring some sandwiches.Can you bring fruits? M:Sure,I'll bring apples and bananas. 4.M:Mum,I really love this pair of shoes.They look fashionable.Can I have them? W:Sorry,Jack,you can't.You've got many of this kind. 5.W:How can we make a great team? M:By sharing ideas and helping each other.That's the secret. Ⅱ.长对话理解 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出一 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 W:I'm so tired,Jason.I have piano lessons,math classes,and swimming practice after school every week. M:That's a lot,Susan.Do you have any free time? W:Almost none.I feel stressed. M:You should tell your parents how you feel.Maybe they can change your timetable. W:I guess you're right.I'll talk to them tonight. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 M:Hi,Mrs.Zhang.Our team lost the football match yesterday morning. W:I know you're sad,Tom,but keep on practising. M:We practised hard for half a month and were sure that we could win this time. W:I know you all did your best,but Joe made two mistakes. M:What should we do now? W:You just need to practise playing as much as possible and be careful when you kick the ball. M:You're right.We should do as you say. W:Tell your teammates to stay relaxed and work together as a team during the match. M:Thanks.I will. 第1页（共4页） Ⅲ.短文理解 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选 项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 M:When I grow up,I want to be an astronaut because I'm interested in space.I am deeply fascinated by the vast universe and countless shining stars.After high school,I plan to study space programmes in the university.The university course will last four years,where I'll lay a strong base in science.During training,I'll learn to live and work in space,and do scientific experiments.My biggest dream is to discover a new planet.Though it's difficult,I believe hard work will make my dream come true. V.信息转换 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文 读两遍。 W:The environment is very important to us.Today I'd like to introduce some simple but useful ways that we can follow easily in our daily lives.Firstly,tum off the lights if it's not necessary.Secondly,go to work or school by bus,underground or bike.We can even walk to work or school when it's possible.It's cheap and healthy.Thirdly,try our best to reuse things like books, paper,magazines and so on.And we can also take a cloth bag when we go shopping instead of using plastic ones.Last but not least,the government should make laws to guide people's behavior. The earlier we take action to protect the environment,the better the earth will be. 第2页（共4页） 参考答案 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分） I.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1-5 ABABC Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 6-10 AACAA Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 11-15 CABBB V.信息转换（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 16.lights 17.cheap 18.instead 19.laws 20.earlier 第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V.单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 21-25 CACDB 26-30 DCDCC I.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 31-35 ADBCA 36-40 BCBAB 41-45 DBABA 46-50 CBACD I.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 51-55 BEADF 第三部分阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）》 56-58 CBC 59-61 ABD 62-65 BCAD 66-69 BBDB 70-72 BCC 73.Two years ago.He returned to his hometown two years ago. 74.To use the Internet to help villagers sell their oranges. 75.With creativity and technology,young people can make a big difference in their hometowns. 任务型阅读评分标准： 1基本回答出要点，首字母不大写、句末无标点、超词，每项扣0.5分，累计扣分不超过1分； 2.抄原句，该转换的地方未转换、有个别语法错误，每项扣0.5，语法错误较多扣1分，累计扣分 不超过1分； 3开放性试题，答案合理，无拼写、语法等错误即给分。 第四部分写（共两大题，满分25分） .单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 76.skill 77.fail 78.alive 79.broke 80.drop X.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 参考范文 How to Make Free Time More Meaningful It's important for us to make good use of our free time.I always do meaningful things in my spare time. First,I often read books to open my mind.Sometimes I go outside to get close to nature and relax myself.I also like to help others,such as helping old people or cleaning the park. These activities make my free time colorful.I feel happy and grow a lot.I hope everyone can enjoy their free time fully. 第3页（共4页） 作文评分标准： 评分标准： 一、评分原则： 1.本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以档次的要求来衡量，结合 内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。 3考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。 4.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。 5.拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内减去1分。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档（很好）：(17-20分) 涵盖所有内容要求，运用较多的语法结构和词汇，语言基本无误，有效地使用了语句间的连 接成分，使全文结构紧凑，内容充实，体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑，具备了较强的语言运用 能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（好）：(13-16分) 涵盖所有内容要求，运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，有少量错误，但不影响对所 写内容的理解，运用了简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯、完整，表达清楚，基本达到了 预期的写作目的。 第三档（一般）：(9-12分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务，运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求，有一些错误，但 不影响对所写内容的理解，内容不够连贯，信息基本可以传达。 第二档（较差）：(5-8分) 明显漏掉主要内容，语法结构简单，词汇贫乏，有较多的错误，影响对所写内容的理解，缺乏 语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯，信息未能清楚传达。 第一档（差）：(0-4分) 明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，有大量的错误，所写内容无法理解，信息未能传达。 第4页（共4页）