2025-2026学年人教版七年级英语下册期末摸底考试卷

**基本信息** 100%覆盖七年级下册核心知识点，以基础题为主（75%），通过多模块综合检测语言能力与基础知识掌握情况，适合期末摸底自测。 **综合设计** |模块|题量/典例|题型特征|知识逻辑| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |单项选择|15题|考查冠词、时态等语法点|覆盖Unit1-12基础语法，形成从词法到句法的逻辑链| |完形填空|15题|上下文语境理解与词汇运用|围绕日常活动主题，整合时态（一般现在时/过去时）与高频词汇| |阅读理解|20题（含多模态）|信息获取与文化认知|包含个人生活、春节文化等话题，关联跨文化意识与细节理解能力| |词汇/句型/任务型|30题|单词拼写、语法转换与步骤理解|从词汇积累到句型运用，构建“输入-内化-输出”语言能力逻辑| |书面表达|1题|语篇组织与信息整合|结合周末活动提示，综合运用过去时态与日常交际表达|

人教版七年级下册英语期末摸底考试卷 考试时间：90 分钟 满分：120 分 命题说明：本卷为纯基础摸底卷，100% 覆盖人教版七年级下册 Unit1-Unit12 核心知识点，基础题占 75%，中等题占 20%，难题占 5%，无偏题怪题，真实反映学生基础掌握情况，适合期末前一周摸底自测。 一、单项选择（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 ( )1. —Can you play ______ piano? —No, but I can play ______ basketball. A. the; the B. /; the C. the; / D. /; / ( )2. —______ do you usually go to bed? —At nine o'clock in the evening. A. How long B. What time C. How often D. How far ( )3. It takes me half an hour ______ to school every day. A. walk B. walks C. walking D. to walk ( )4. —Don't ______ in the classroom. —Sorry, I won't do it again. A. eat B. eating C. to eat D. eats ( )5. —Why ______ you like koalas? —Because they are very cute. A. are B. do C. does D. is ( )6. Listen! The birds ______ in the tree. A. sing B. sings C. are singing D. sang ( )7. —______ there a bank near here? —Yes, ______ is. A. Is; there B. Are; there C. Is; it D. Are; it ( )8. —What does your brother look like? —He ______ tall and he ______ short hair. A. is; has B. has; is C. is; is D. has; has ( )9. —Would you like ______ coffee? —Yes, please. A. any B. some C. many D. much ( )10. —How ______ your birthday party last week? —It was great. We ______ a good time. A. is; have B. was; had C. is; had D. was; have ( )11. —Did you ______ a movie yesterday? —No, I ______ my homework. A. see; do B. saw; did C. see; did D. saw; do ( )12. —______ did you go last summer vacation? —I went to Sanya with my parents. A. What B. Where C. When D. How ( )13. —______ is the weather today? —It's sunny and warm. A. How B. What C. Where D. When ( )14. —I will have a math test tomorrow. —______ A. Good luck! B. Well done! C. Thank you! D. You're welcome! ( )15. —Excuse me, how can I get to the hospital? —Go along this street and turn right ______ the second crossing. It's on your left. A. in B. on C. at D. for 二、完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 My name is Li Ming. I am a student in No. 1 Middle School. I go to school 16 Monday to Friday. I usually get up at six thirty in the morning. Then I have breakfast at seven. I 17 to school at seven thirty. School starts at eight o'clock. We have four classes in the morning and two in the afternoon. My favorite subject is English. It is very 18 . My English teacher is Miss Wang. She is very kind to us. We all like 19 very much. After school, I often play basketball with my classmates. It is my favorite 20 . I get home at five thirty. I have dinner at six. Then I do my homework. I go to bed at nine o'clock. ( )16. A. from B. on C. in D. at ( )17. A. go B. goes C. went D. going ( )18. A. boring B. difficult C. interesting D. bad ( )19. A. he B. she C. him D. her ( )20. A. food B. sport C. subject D. color Last Sunday, I had a great time. I 21 to the zoo with my family. We 22 at the zoo at nine o'clock in the morning. First, we saw the tigers. They were very strong. Then we saw the pandas. They were black and white and very 23 . I took many photos of them. After that, we saw the monkeys. They were very 24 . They jumped up and down and played with each other. We had lunch in a restaurant near the zoo. The food was delicious. In the afternoon, we went to the park. We 25 kites there. We went home at four o'clock. We were tired but happy. ( )21. A. go B. goes C. went D. going ( )22. A. arrive B. arrived C. arrives D. arriving ( )23. A. ugly B. scary C. cute D. dangerous ( )24. A. clever B. lazy C. shy D. quiet ( )25. A. fly B. flew C. flies D. flying 三、阅读理解（共 20 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容选择最佳答案。（每小题 2 分，共 30 分） Passage 1 Hello, everyone! My name is Tom. I am thirteen years old. I am from America. Now I live in Beijing with my parents. I study in No. 5 Middle School. I go to school from Monday to Friday. I usually get up at seven o'clock. I have breakfast at seven thirty. Then I go to school by bike. School starts at eight o'clock. We have four classes in the morning and two in the afternoon. My favorite subject is Chinese. It is difficult but interesting. I also like P.E. I can play basketball very well. After school, I often play basketball with my friends. I go home at five o'clock. I have dinner at six. Then I do my homework. I go to bed at nine thirty. ( )26. How old is Tom? A. 12. B. 13. C. 14. D. 15. ( )27. Where is Tom from? A. China. B. America. C. England. D. Australia. ( )28. How does Tom go to school? A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot. D. By car. ( )29. What is Tom's favorite subject? A. English. B. Math. C. Chinese. D. P.E. ( )30. What does Tom often do after school? A. He plays basketball. B. He plays football. C. He watches TV. D. He reads books. Passage 2 The Spring Festival is the most important festival in China. It usually comes in January or February. People celebrate it to welcome the new year. Before the Spring Festival, people usually clean their houses and buy a lot of food. On New Year's Eve, families get together and have a big dinner. They eat dumplings, fish and other delicious food. After dinner, they watch the Spring Festival Gala on TV. On the first day of the new year, people wear new clothes and visit their relatives and friends. They say "Happy New Year" to each other. Children can get red envelopes from their parents and grandparents. Everyone has a good time during the Spring Festival. ( )31. When does the Spring Festival usually come? A. In March or April. B. In January or February. C. In May or June. D. In September or October. ( )32. What do people usually do before the Spring Festival? A. They clean their houses and buy a lot of food. B. They wear new clothes and visit their relatives. C. They watch the Spring Festival Gala on TV. D. They eat dumplings and fish. ( )33. What do people eat on New Year's Eve? A. Dumplings and fish. B. Noodles and rice. C. Hamburgers and hot dogs. D. Cakes and bread. ( )34. What can children get during the Spring Festival? A. New clothes. B. Red envelopes. C. Delicious food. D. Books. ( )35. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The Spring Festival is not important in China. B. People celebrate the Spring Festival to welcome the new year. C. On New Year's Eve, people watch movies after dinner. D. On the first day of the new year, people go to work. Passage 3 Last weekend, I went to the beach with my family. The weather was sunny and hot. We got to the beach at nine o'clock in the morning. First, my father and I went swimming in the sea. The water was very clean. Then my mother and my sister built a sandcastle on the beach. It was very beautiful. After that, we had lunch under a big umbrella. We ate sandwiches, fruit and drank juice. In the afternoon, we played beach volleyball. It was very fun. At about four o'clock, we went home. We were tired but very happy. I hope to go to the beach again next summer. ( )36. Where did the writer go last weekend? A. To the park. B. To the zoo. C. To the beach. D. To the museum. ( )37. What was the weather like? A. Sunny and hot. B. Cloudy and cool. C. Rainy and cold. D. Snowy and cold. ( )38. What did the writer and his father do first? A. They built a sandcastle. B. They went swimming. C. They had lunch. D. They played beach volleyball. ( )39. What did they eat for lunch? A. Dumplings and fish. B. Noodles and rice. C. Sandwiches, fruit and juice. D. Hamburgers and hot dogs. ( )40. When did they go home? A. At nine o'clock in the morning. B. At twelve o'clock. C. At four o'clock in the afternoon. D. At six o'clock in the evening. 第2节 多模态阅读理解（每小题 2 分，共 10 分） School Art Festival Time: December 20th-22nd, 2025 Place: School Hall and Playground Activities: Singing Competition (9:00 a.m. - 11:00 a.m., December 20th, School Hall) Dancing Competition (2:00 p.m. - 4:00 p.m., December 21st, School Hall) Painting Show (9:00 a.m. - 5:00 p.m., December 20th-22nd, Playground) English Play (7:00 p.m. - 9:00 p.m., December 22nd, School Hall) Rules: All students can join the activities. Please arrive 10 minutes before the activity starts. Don't talk loudly during the activities. Don't take photos without permission. ( )41. When is the School Art Festival? A. November 20th-22nd, 2025 B. December 20th-22nd, 2025 C. January 20th-22nd, 2026 D. February 20th-22nd, 2026 ( )42. Where will the Singing Competition be held? A. School Hall B. Playground C. Classroom D. Library ( )43. What time does the English Play start? A. 9:00 a.m. B. 2:00 p.m. C. 5:00 p.m. D. 7:00 p.m. ( )44. How long will the Painting Show last? A. For one day B. For two days C. For three days D. For four days ( )45. Which of the following is NOT a rule of the Art Festival? A. All students can join the activities. B. Please arrive 10 minutes before the activity starts. C. Don't talk loudly during the activities. D. You can take photos anywhere. 四、词汇运用（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 根据句意及首字母或汉语提示，写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 46. I can s______ English very well. 47. —How f______ is it from your home to school? —It's about one kilometer. 48. Don't run in the h______. It's dangerous. 49. Pandas are from C______. They are very cute. 50. I like elephants because they are s______ and friendly. 51. I'd like a large b______ of beef noodles. 52. We ______ (参观) the Great Wall last summer. 53. The weather was ______ (下雨的) yesterday. We stayed at home. 54. There are many ______ (绵羊) on the farm. 55. He is ______ (感兴趣的) in playing computer games. 五、句型转换（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 按要求改写下列句子，每空一词。 56. He can play the guitar.（改为一般疑问句） ______ he ______ the guitar? 57. I usually go to school by bus.（改为否定句） I ______ usually ______ to school by bus. 58. She is cooking dinner now.（对画线部分提问） ______ ______ she ______ now? 59. There are some apples on the table.（改为否定句） There ______ ______ apples on the table. 60. He went to the park yesterday.（对画线部分提问） ______ ______ he ______ to the park? 六、任务型阅读（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。 How to make a fruit salad? It's very easy. Let me tell you how to make it. First, prepare some fruit. You need apples, bananas, oranges and strawberries. Wash the fruit clean. Then peel the bananas and oranges. Cut all the fruit into small pieces. Next, put the fruit pieces into a big bowl. Then add some yogurt and honey. You can also add some ice cream if you like. Finally, mix them up. Your delicious fruit salad is ready. You can share it with your family and friends. 61. What do we need to make a fruit salad? _________________________________________________ 62. What do we do first? _________________________________________________ 63. What do we do after peeling the bananas and oranges? _________________________________________________ 64. What do we add to the fruit pieces? _________________________________________________ 65. Is it difficult to make a fruit salad? _________________________________________________ 七、书面表达（满分 20 分） 假设你是李华，你的英国笔友 Peter 想了解你上周末的活动。请你给他写一封邮件，介绍你上周末做了什么。 提示： 1. 周六上午：做作业，打扫房间 2. 周六下午：和朋友去公园踢足球 3. 周日上午：和妈妈去购物 4. 周日下午：看电影，晚上看电视 要求： 1. 内容完整，涵盖所有提示要点 2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写规范 3. 词数：60-80 词 4. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数 Dear Peter, I'm glad to tell you about my last weekend. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ What about your last weekend? Please write to me soon. Yours, Li Hua 参考答案及评分标准 一、单项选择（每小题 1 分，共 15 分） 1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.B 11.C 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.C 二、完形填空（每小题 1 分，共 15 分） 16.A 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.B 三、阅读理解（每小题 2 分，共 40 分） 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.A 31.B 32.A 33.A 34.B 35.B 36.C 37.A 38.B 39.C 40.C 41.B 42.A 43.D 44.C 45.D 四、词汇运用（每小题 1 分，共 10 分） 46.speak 47.far 48.hallways 49.China 50.smart 51.bowl 52.visited 53.rainy 54.sheep 55.interested 五、句型转换（每小题 2 分，共 10 分） 56.Can; play 57.don't; go 58.What is; doing 59.aren't; any 60.When did; go 六、任务型阅读（每小题 2 分，共 10 分） 61.We need apples, bananas, oranges, strawberries, yogurt, honey and some ice cream. 62.First, prepare some fruit and wash it clean. 63.Cut all the fruit into small pieces. 64.We add some yogurt, honey and some ice cream. 65.No, it isn't. It's very easy. 七、书面表达（满分 20 分） 参考范文： Dear Peter, I'm glad to tell you about my last weekend. On Saturday morning, I did my homework and cleaned my room. In the afternoon, I went to the park and played football with my friends. On Sunday morning, I went shopping with my mother. We bought some food and clothes. In the afternoon, I watched a movie with my brother. In the evening, I watched TV at home. I had a happy weekend. What about your last weekend? Please write to me soon. Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $