安徽安庆市望江县部分学校2026年中考考前预测英语试卷

2026年安徽省初中学业水平考试英语。一短对话理解，你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题请，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。Number one, father's day is coming. What gift will you get him? A Brown scarf. IT will match his coat well. Father's day is coming. What gift will you get him? A Brown scarf. IT will match his coat well. Number two, how are we getting to and lisa house this sunday? The bus right took forever last time. Your brother needs the car. Let's take the subway . instead. okay? How are we getting to and lisa house this sunday? The bus right took forever last time. Your brother needs the car. Let's take the subway . instead, okay? Number three, your drawings are so beautiful and you are so great. Thanks, Frank. Judie is good at drawing and SHE helps me a lot. Your drawings are so beautiful and you are so great. Thanks, Frank. Judie is good at drawing and SHE helps me a lot. Number four, look, the sea is so blue, and I can see several votes far away. Yes, I love standing on the beach. The view is wonderful from here. Look, the sea is so blue, and I can see several votes far away. Yes, I love standing on the beach. The view is wonderful from here. Number five, the show was great. Betty, there were so many amazing robots. I agree, and the inventors sharing made everything so clear to me. The show was great, Betty, there were so many amazing robots. I agree, and the inventors sharing made everything so clear to me. 2、长对话理解。你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题请，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六、七题。Tom looks excited. What's the good news? He and his teammates, one first place in the school volleyball match. They must have trained a lot. Yes, and they worked well as a team. That's . wonderful. By the way, what Price did they get? They got some small, worse things as the prize and decided to give them to the school sports club. They hoped more students would enjoy . sports sounds great. Tom looks excited. What's the good news? He and his teammates, one first place in the school volleyball match. They must have trained a lot. yes, and they worked well as a team. That's . wonderful. By the way, what Price did they get? They got some sports things. They ask the Price and decided to give them to the school sports club. They hoped more students would enjoy sports. Sounds great. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。Welcome back, liming. It's been years since we left . our hometown. Yes, I came back last month. The town has changed a lot. The changes started five years ago after a new highway was built near the town. I see there used to be many small houses, but now there are tall buildings and a big library near our old school. and there is a newly built shopping center in the middle of our town. Do you like the changes? It's hard to say life is much Better now, but the quiet old days are gone. I . understand changes can bring good things and bad things as well. Welcome back liming. It's been years since we left . our hometown. Yes, I came back last month. The town has changed a lot. The changes started five years ago after a new highway was built near the town. I see there used to be many small houses, but now there are tall buildings and big library near our old school. and there is a newly built shopping center in the middle of our town. Do you like the changes? It's hard to say life is much Better now, but the quiet old days are gone. I . understand changes can bring good things and bad things as well. 3、短文理解。你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题请，根据短文内容，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项，短文读两遍。Hello, i'm elsey. My school is near a small park. I often walk there after class. One day, I saw a bird eating rubbish in the park. I picked up the rubbish and threw IT into a bin. The next day, I shared the thing with my classmates. Finally, we decided to clean up the park on weekends. I also made colorful cards with the words keep our environment clean. I gave the cards to people around me soon. Many of them enjoyed in our clean up activity. Every saturday. We also did something to help the birds. Our teacher, miss lee, taught us to make birdhouses, and we put them in the trees. After several months, the park became clean again. People and birds could enjoy IT together. Hello, i'm elsey. My school is near a small park. I often walk there after class. One day, I saw a bird eating rubbish in the park. I picked up the rubbish and throw IT into a ban. The next day, I shared the thing with my classmates. Finally, we decided to clean up the park on weekends. I also made colorful cards with the words keep our environment clean. I gave the cards to people around me. Soon, many of them joined in our cleanup activity. Every saturday, we also did something to help the birds. Our teacher, miss ley, taught us to make birdhouses, and we put them in the trees. After several months, the park became clean again. People and birds could enjoy IT together. 4、信息转换。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空只填一词，短文读两遍。Dear students, our school radio station is looking for two hosts to join our team. As a host, you will run a fifteen minutes show every friday. You will read news and introduce songs to all the students. What do we need from you? You should have clear english pronunciation and a strong voice. Besides, you need to have enough time to practice after school once a week. Good team spirit and a sense of duty are also important. This is a great chance to improve your skills. Working with us can make your school life richer and more interesting. Come and let your voice be heard. Dear students, our school radio station is looking for two hosts to join our team. As a host, you will run a fifteen minute show every friday. You will read news and introduce songs to all the students. What do we need from you? You should have clear english pronunciation and a strong voice. Besides, you need to have enough time to practice after school once a week. Good teams, spirit and a sense of duty are also important. This is a great chance to improve your skills. Working with us can make your school life richer and more interesting. Come and let . your voice be heard. 2026年安徽省初中学业水平考试 英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will the boy give his father? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 2. How will the speakers go to Aunt Lisa’s house? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 3. Who helps Ann learn to draw well? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Grace. B. Judy. C. Frank. 4. Where is the girl now? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. In the sea. B. On the beach. C. On the boat. 5. What does Betty mean? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. She thinks the show was boring. B. The robots were her favorite part. C. She learned a lot from the inventor. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Why does Tom look so excited? A. Because he joined a club. B. Because he won a game. C. Because he made new friends. 7. What did Tom and his teammates decide to do? A. Give the prize to a club. B. Do other kinds of sports. C. Buy something new for sports. 听下面一段对话，回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. When did the changes in the town start? A. Last month. B. Five months ago. C. Five years ago. 9. What was built in the middle of the town? A. A new school. B. A big library. C. A shopping centre. 10. What does the woman’s last sentence show? A. Time flies. B. Every coin has two sides. C. East or west, home is best. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. Where did Elsie see the bird? A. In the classroom. B. In the school. C. In the park. 12. Who did Elsie share what she saw with? A. Her classmates. B. Her teacher. C. Her family. 13. What did Elsie give to people around her? A. Some cards. B. A video. C. A letter. 14. How often did people join in the clean-up activity? A Every day. B. Every week. C. Every month. 15. What did Ms. Li teach students to do? A. To feed birds. B. To plant trees. C. To make birdhouses. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Members Wanted Job ____16____ hosts. Tasks A fifteen-minute show every Friday: read news and ____17____ songs to all the students. Abilities ·Clear English pronunciation and a strong ____18____. ·Good team ____19____ and a sense of duty. Advantage ·Make your school life ____20____ and more interesting. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. In April 2026, China’s space program reached its 70th year, a sign of our great ________ in space research. A. doubt B. progress C. need D. service 22. — We all saw the same picture, but everyone described it ________. — That’s the fun of imagination. We just see things in our own ways. A. clearly B. perfectly C. suddenly D. differently 23. Adam decided to take the IT course because it ________ his future plan to become an engineer. A. ends B. tests C. fits D. copies 24. —What’s your secret to happiness, Jane? —It’s you, my friends. Being with you is something ________ to me. A. awful B. strange C. fantastic D. personal 25. —I’m not sure ________ our school tree-planting activity will begin. —We’ll start as soon as we get all the tools ready. A. when B. whether C. why D. where 26. The students spoke ________ during the meeting so that everyone could express their ideas. A. in turn B. for free C. by chance D. at once 27. —Our study tour this term was really unforgettable. —I agree. I am even ________ the journey in my mind now. A. giving up B. going over C. hearing about D. paying for 28. People can hardly see the stars well ________ we cut down on light pollution in cities. A. after B. since C. as D. unless 29. —I didn’t know how to improve my report on the Huizhou fish lantern. —Add a short video about it. I’m sure you ________ it well. A. finish B. finished C. will finish D. have finished 30. — I’m learning to make dumplings, but it is not easy to make them look nice. — ________. Learning a skill needs patience. A. Take your time B. That’s enough C. My pleasure D. Not really Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） A 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 It was my first hands-on class. We were going to build simple circuits (电路). I walked into the lab feeling ____31____. I didn’t know if I could do it right. But when I started connecting the wires (电线), I felt that the knowledge ____32____. I had never felt so excited about learning before. During the activity, our teacher asked us to ____33____ our own mistakes instead of being afraid of them. Once, my circuit did not work ____34____ I connected the wires the wrong way. I felt worried at first. Then the teacher came over to ____35____ me, and I checked my circuit carefully. With our teacher’s help, I found the ____36____—the wires were in the opposite place. After I connected the wires again, my bulb (灯泡) finally lit up, and I felt a strong sense of ____37____. By the end of the lesson, all of us were still ____38____. Everyone was sharing and testing their ideas busily. I really looked forward to the next project. I’ve ____39____ a new way of learning through the hands-on lesson. Also, I realize that sometimes the best lessons come from _____40_____. They are not failures, but part of learning. 31. A. bored B. nervous C. certain D. angry 32. A. came alive B. burnt away C. died down D. ran out 33. A. fix B. miss C. repeat D. avoid 34. A. though B. if C. because D. until 35. A. treat B. punish C. warn D. guide 36. A. problem B. result C. example D. choice 37. A. direction B. success C. humor D. peace 38. A. tidy B. quiet C. active D. empty 39. A. forgotten B. experienced C. recorded D. imagined 40. A. hobbies B. classics C. languages D. mistakes B 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Today, many students use smartphones or computers every day, but using them too much can cause trouble. To solve this, a family digital (数字化的) agreement can be very ____41____. The agreement is a family plan about how to spend time on ____42____. It helps family members use electronic devices in a reasonable and orderly way. It usually ____43____ ideas about screen time, online safety, and respectful communication online. It encourages you and your parents to ____44____ share ideas and communicate, instead of following strict rules made only by parents. Because you help to make the agreement, you understand it better and are more likely to ____45____ it. So how can you ____46____ one? First, read the agreement worksheet (工作表) before talking about it. Then choose a comfortable time and place to have a ____47____. Everyone can share their thoughts and suggest ____48____ that are fair, like no phones during meals. If the talk doesn’t go well, take a short break and ____49____ later. As you grow older, you can review and change the agreement together to make it just _____50_____ for your needs. This way, the agreement makes using the Internet healthier and helps families build trust. 41. A. funny B. dangerous C. helpful D. difficult 42 A. medicine B. homework C. business D. technology 43. A. compares B. includes C. collects D. supports 44. A. openly B. luckily C. silently D. madly 45. A. put off B. search for C. stick to D. take over 46. A. create B. hide C. choose D. divide 47. A. meal B. lesson C. chance D. discussion 48. A. tasks B. rules C. models D. prices 49. A. guess B. train C. continue D. leave 50. A. common B. right C. impossible D. cheap Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hey, Tom. Your desk lamp (台灯) looks different. B: Yes, it’s a smart lamp. A: ____51____ B: It can change the brightness and color. It can also report the weather and tell me to have a rest. A: Sounds amazing! ____52____ B: Of course. I just control it with my voice. A: Wow! ____53____ B: I agree. Thanks to modern inventions, our lives are improving day by day. A: ____54____ B: You can buy it online. It's not very expensive. A: Perfect. ____55____ Thanks. B: You’re welcome. A. Is it easy to use? B. I know nothing about it. C. I want one for my room. D. What’s special about it? E. It really makes life easier! F. I’ll look it up online tonight. G. Think twice before you decide. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy—so how do you spend your weekends? Last week, our School Research Group did a survey on weekend habits among 200 students. Here are the results. Q1 Can you balance study and play on weekends? Finish homework before Saturday noon Try one new fun activity each weekend Spend at least 4 hours on “pure play” Q2 What activities do you enjoy on weekends? Do sports activities 145 Take a trip 112 Watch TV at home 98 Go to a film / show 76 Check social media 43 Learn a life skill 35 Build models 19 =10 Q3 Why do you take part in weekend play? Learn more about the world Form closer relationships Avoid feeling tired of study Return to school with more energy Prepare for future jobs ※Notes: 1. dull (愚笨的) 2. balance (平衡) 3. pure (纯粹的) 4. energy (精力) 56. How many students spend at least 4 hours on “pure play”? A. 144. B. 106. C. 78. D. 39. 57. Among the following weekend activities, which one is the most popular? A. B. C. D. 58. Why do most students take part in weekend play? A. To make full preparations for future jobs. B. To know more about the world. C. To avoid getting bored with studying. D. To come back to school full of energy. B In Wangmalou Village, Anhui Province, a thousand-year-old skill, Wangjiang Tiaohua, is coming back to life in the hands of Fang Lili. “Blue and white, the same inside and outside,” Fang says. “A piece of Wangjiang Tiaohua work shows the beauty of embroidery(刺绣) and also the importance of being honest.” As a kid, Fang grew up seeing local women make beautiful patterns (图案). However, the skill was difficult to learn. Worried that the skill might disappear, Fang decided to learn and protect it. She visited many villages and collected more than 1,000 traditional patterns. In 2015, Fang started a village embroidery group. She taught many local women the skill and helped them sell their products. Fang believes traditional art should not only stay in museums. To bring it back to daily life, she created modern products such as key rings and necklaces (项链). In 2025, a necklace she helped make won an award (奖) in a national tourism product competition. “This is not only embroidery,” she says. “It helps traditional culture last longer and makes life better.” 59. What can the Wangjiang Tiaohua work show according to Fang Lili? A. The value of honesty. B. The importance of colors. C. The growth of modern art. D. The beauty of villages. 60. Which is the correct order of Fang Lili's experiences according to the text? a. She set up a village embroidery group. b. She grew up seeing local women make embroidery. c. She won a national award with a necklace. d. She decided to continue Tiaohua. A. d→c→b→a B. b→a→d→c C. d→b→a→c D. b→d→a→c 61 Which of the following best describes Fang Lili? A. Patient and cool-headed. B. Honest and warm-hearted. C. Creative and hard-working. D. Humorous and outgoing. C Have you ever thought, “I could have done that better”? To truly learn and grow, we need to reflect (反思) deeply. That’s where the CARL reflection model helps. CARL stands for Context, Action, Results, and Learning. Context means the background: when and where it happened, and what your goal (目的) was. Action means what you actually did and why you did it that way. Results are what happened after your actions. Did you achieve your goal? How did people react? Learning means what you learned from this experience and what you would do differently next time. Let’s see how a student used CARL. He had to give a five-minute book report to explain why he liked the book. He prepared slides (幻灯片) with lots of text and read from them because he was nervous. He finished on time, but many classmates looked bored. From this, he learned that too much text was not interesting. Next time, he would use more pictures, speak naturally, and ask questions to draw listeners’ attention. CARL is not just about telling a story. Using it often helps build a good habit: every experience, good or bad, becomes a chance to learn and improve (提升). So next time, try CARL! 62 What is paragraph 2 mainly about? A. What each part of CARL means. B. Why reflection is important. C. How people achieve their goals. D. When the model can be used. 63. How does the writer help readers understand the CARL model in paragraph 3? A. By asking questions. B. By listing several steps. C. By giving an example. D. By comparing different ideas. 64. What can we infer (推断) from the last paragraph? A. CARL can stop people from making mistakes in their lives. B. CARL works best when people use it mostly for bad experiences. C. CARL helps people become better learners through daily experiences. D. CARL is mainly used to help people tell interesting stories. D What if people around the world wrote a love letter together—not to a person, but to the Earth? The World Letter is an art project created by French-Iranian artist Cocovan. The project began in May 2017 in Germany. Its goal is simple: to write a shared love letter to the world. During its first project activity, Cocovan placed a desk on a street in Berlin for a one-day performance. Then she started writing her own letter to the world. A passerby asked if he could add his own message. He wrote in Chinese next to Cocovan’s words. Within only one hour, seven people from seven different countries wrote in seven different languages on the same page. At that moment, a new idea appeared: What if one person from every country in the world could sign this letter? Since 2017, the project has travelled to many places. In each place, Cocovan sets up a desk and invites anyone to join in. So far, over 25,500 people from 146 countries have taken part. The love letter has grown to about 630 meters, becoming the longest one in the world. Once the project is finished, Cocovan plans to send a copy of the letter into space—a message of love and hope from humans to the universe (宇宙). 65. Where did The World Letter project first begin? A. In Germany. B. In France. C. In China. D. In Iran. 66. What can we learn about the first project activity? A. The activity took place in a library. B. The first added message was written in Chinese. C. The performance lasted for less than an hour. D. The seven people wrote messages on seven pages. 67. What does the underlined word “one” in paragraph 4 refer to (指的是)? A. The desk. B. The country. C. The love letter. D. The letter project. 68. What is the best title (标题) for the text? A. A Love Message to Space B. Travelling with a Great Artist C. An Hour of World Languages D. Writing Love to the World E Scientists have been studying an iceberg (冰山) called A23a for many years. It was once the largest iceberg in the world, but now it has completely broken up in the Southern Ocean. A23a lost about 99 percent of its area and was less than 50 square kilometers in April 2026. Antarctica is covered with thick ice and snow. Over time, snow builds up and forms large moving rivers of ice, called "glaciers". These glaciers move slowly toward the sea and form large ice shelves (冰架) near the sea. Sometimes huge blocks of ice calve from ice shelves and fall into the sea. In this way, new icebergs are created, just like A23a in 1986. In 1986, A23a broke away from the Filchner Ice Shelf. At that time, it was about 4,170 square kilometers in size. For over 30 years, A23a was stuck in the Weddell Sea. In 2020, it finally broke free and began moving to the north. As it moved into warmer waters, the iceberg slowly started to melt (融化) and break into smaller pieces. In January 2026, its main part was around 503 square kilometers. Now A23a is too small to keep its name as an iceberg. However, its breakup has already had a great influence on the ocean environment and shipping safety. 69. How large was A23a in April 2026? A. Less than 50 square kilometers. B. More than 99 square kilometers. C. About 4,170 square kilometers. D. Around 503 square kilometers. 70. What does the underlined word “calve” mean in paragraph 2? A. Dry up. B. Break off. C. Come together. D. Rush forward. 71. When did A23a finally break free from the Weddell Sea? A. In 1986. B. In 2016. C. In 2020. D. In 2026. 72. In which of the following units can you read the text? A. Unit 1 Family Ties B. Unit 4 Eat Well C. Unit 7 A Day to Remember D. Unit 8 Our Natural World 第二节 F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 In the sunny town of Sunnyville lived a curious (好奇的) boy named Sam. He loved exploring his neighborhood. One morning, Sam went to the community garden. There he met Mr. Green, a wise old gardener. “Would you like to learn gardening?” he asked. Sam’s eyes lit up. “Yes!” he said excitedly. Every weekend, Sam learned gardening from Mr. Green. He also met other children who loved gardening. Together, they took care of the young plants and watched them grow day by day. One sunny afternoon, Sam had an idea. “Let’s organize (组织) a Farmer’s Market in the community!” His friends cheered, “We can share the fruits of our labor (劳动) with everyone.” They worked hard, turning the town square into a lively market. On the market day, neighbors came from all around. Laughter, music, and delicious smells filled the air. Sam’s heart was filled with pride as people shared their fruits. As the sun set, the neighbors thanked Sam for making their community warmer. Sam understood that gardening wasn’t just about growing food—it was about enjoying simple happiness and bringing the community together. Looking at the neighbors’ bright smiles, Sam thought he should make this warm feeling last longer. 73. How did Sam feel when he heard Mr. Green's words? (不超过5个词) ___________________________________________________ 74. What idea did Sam come up with that sunny afternoon? (不超过10个词) ___________________________________________________ 75. What will Sam probably do for his neighbors later? (不超过15个词) ___________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76. The firefighter’s b________ (勇敢的) actions saved the whole family. 77. The foreign visitor thinks the dragon dance is the t________ (珍宝) of Chinese festivals. 78. David l________ (丧失) heart after the match, but he finally decided to try again. 79. I will not w________ (浪费) money on things that I do not really need. 80. Watching c________ (国际象棋) games helps Leo develop his thinking skills. Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 81. 假如你是李辉，你校英语报正在以“My Reading Experience”为主题进行征文。请你根据之前写过的便签提示，写一篇英语文章分享你养成阅读习惯的经历，向校报投稿。 注意： 1. 短文须包含便签中要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称； 3. 词数80~100。 My Reading Experience ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026年安徽省初中学业水平考试 英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】C Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. A 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. C 10. B Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. 2##Two 17. introduce 18. voice 19. spirit 20. richer 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21题答案】 【答案】B 【22题答案】 【答案】D 【23题答案】 【答案】C 【24题答案】 【答案】C 【25题答案】 【答案】A 【26题答案】 【答案】A 【27题答案】 【答案】B 【28题答案】 【答案】D 【29题答案】 【答案】C 【30题答案】 【答案】A Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） A 【31~40题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. D B 【41~50题答案】 【答案】41. C 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. B Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. D 52. A 53. E 54. C 55. F 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【56~58题答案】 【答案】56. C 57. C 58. B B 【59~61题答案】 【答案】59. A 60. D 61. C C 【62~64题答案】 【答案】62. A 63. C 64. C D 【65~68题答案】 【答案】65. A 66. B 67. C 68. D E 【69~72题答案】 【答案】69. A 70. B 71. C 72. D 第二节 F 【73~75题答案】 【答案】73. He was excited. 74. To organize a Farmer’s Market in the community. 75. He will hold more meaningful activities for neighbors. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【76题答案】 【答案】brave##rave 【77题答案】 【答案】treasure##reasure 【78题答案】 【答案】lost##ost 【79题答案】 【答案】waste##aste 【80题答案】 【答案】chess##hess Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【81题答案】 【答案】例文： My Reading Experience Reading used to be hard for me, but now it plays an important role in my life. I started with a simple daily plan: reading two pages and writing one sentence. As time went by, I slowly added more to my daily tasks—reading for an hour and writing a full paragraph. After I kept it up, reading became a part of my day. Later, I joined a reading club, book sharing and story writing are interesting and useful. Reading has greatly changed my life and I will keep on reading with full interest. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $