湖北十堰市张湾区部分校2026年中考适应性测试 英语试题

2026年中考适应性测试 英语试题 （本试题卷共10页，满分90分，考试时间100分钟） ★祝考试顺利★ 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上。 2. 选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3. 非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。 笔试部分（90分） 一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每个小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A little boy used to walk with his father every day on a nearby hill. One day the boy said, “Dad, let’s have a race today. The one who reaches the top of the hill first ____1____ the race.” The father agreed. Both of them started running towards the hilltop. After running for some time, the father suddenly ____2____. The boy asked, “What happened? ____3____ did you stop? Have you accepted your failure already?” “No, no. Some pebbles (石子) got stuck in my shoes. I stopped to remove (移出) them,” the father replied. The boy said, “There are some pebbles in my shoes too. But ____4____ I stop now, I will lose the race. Once I reach the top, I will remove them.” Saying this, the boy ran ahead ____5____. The father removed pebbles from his shoes and moved ahead. The boy had gone far ahead but because of the pebbles in his shoes he started feeling so ____6____ in his feet. And he started to lose speed. Gradually, his father came close to him. Seeing his boy, the father shouted from ____7____, “Why don’t you remove pebbles from your shoes first?” “But I don’t have ____8____ for this!” said the boy. After a while, his father ran past him. The boy’s pain had ____9____ a lot because of the pebbles. And now he was not even _____10_____ to walk. He stopped there and shouted, “Dad, I can’t run anymore.” His father quickly ran back and _____11_____ his son’s shoes carefully. He saw that the boy’s _____12_____ were hurt. “Son, I told you to first remove the pebbles and then _____13_____ the race.” “But I will lose the race,” the boy said. “It is not like that, son!” We shouldn’t put off solving problems in our life by saying that we don’t have time right now. If we pay no attention to them, they will gradually grow bigger and finally cause us more harm than before. It may just take you one _____14_____ to remove the pebbles. But now you will have to bear pain for one week,” the father said. Take hold of the problem only when it is _____15_____. Take it seriously before it becomes bigger and causes more problems. 1. A. begins B. wins C. watches D. organizes 2. A. stopped B. jumped C. laughed D. moved 3. A. How B. Where C. What D. Why 4. A. if B. until C. though D. before 5. A. slowly B. politely C. rapidly D. silently 6. A. magic B. helpful C. empty D. painful 7. A. front B. above C. behind D. outside 8. A. luck B. time C. chance D. courage 9. A. disappeared B. divided C. included D. increased 10. A. ready B. able C. free D. afraid 11. A. took off B. put away C. looked for D. handed out 12. A. hands B. knees C. legs D. feet 13. A. change B. cancel C. continue D. cheat 14. A. minute B. hour C. day D. month 15. A. hard B. small C. serious D. old 二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个与短文内容相符合的最佳选项。 A Do you often buy new clothes just because they are fashionable? What will you do with your old or unused clothes? Just throw them away? Or put them into the rubbish bin? These clothes go into landfills (垃圾填埋场) . This is bad for our world. Here is how YOU can help! 16. According to the text, what can we do to reuse or recycle our clothes? ①Buy fewer clothes. ②Wash clothes in hot water. ③Repair our old clothes. ④Make paper out of T-shirts. ⑤Give them to those in need. A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ②③⑤ D. ③④⑤ 17. Where should people take their clothes for textile (纺织品) recycling? A. Big landfills. B. Some small local shops nearby. C. Neighbors’ houses. D. Big shops with textile recycling services. 18. What creative way to deal with clothes is mentioned in the text? A. Making old jeans into bags. B. Taking old clothes to big shops C. Selling unused clothes online. D. Putting old clothes into dustbins. 19. According to the text, what can be turned into paper? A. Old shoes. B. Old T-shirts. C. Old jeans. D. Old bags. 20. In which part of a magazine can we read the text? A. Health. B. Culture. C. Environment. D. Technology. B Do you often listen to music at loud volume (音量)? You should know it is bad for your hearing, according to the World Health Organization (WHO). Many young people are at risk of hearing loss because they listen to loud noise for a long time, WHO said. Listening to music or watching TV at loud volume can damage your hearing. The United Nations has standards for safe listening. It is not safe to listen to sounds that are louder than 85dB (分贝) for 8 hours or 100 dB for 15 minutes. The sound of a busy road is about 85 dB and the sound of a rock concert can be about 100 dB. Loud noise is harmful to the inner ear. Most of us are born with about 16, 000 hair cells (毛细胞) in our inner ears. These cells detect (探测) sounds. However, listening to loud noise for a long time can make these cells work too hard and cause some of them to die. ▲ . Some people might think that their music isn’t all that loud. But this can depend on where you are. For example, if you are in a noisy place like the subway, you might turn up your music too loud. Later, when you listen to it at the same volume in a quiet place, you might feel uncomfortable. WHO said the safe level for most sounds is below 80 dB for no more than 40 hours a week. A level of 80 dB is nearly the same as the noise of a subway. 21. How does the writer begin the text? A. By asking a question. B. By telling a story. C. By giving an example. D. By giving a reason. 22. What does the underlined word “damage” mean in Paragraph 2? A. Be similar to. B. Be good for. C. Be bad for. D. Be weak in. 23. Which is the best to be put in “ ▲ ”? A. This is how hair cells work. B. This is what causes hearing loss. C. This is why we can hear sounds. D. This is why people love music. 24. Which of the following is the safe level for most sounds according to WHO? A. Louder than 85 dB for 10 hours. B. 100 dB for 20 minutes. C. 70 dB for 30 hours a week. D. 110 dB for half an hour. 25. What is the purpose of the text? A. To tell us some ways to protect ears. B. To introduce the standards for safe listening. C. To describe different kinds of music. D. To tell us not to listen to loud music too long. C ①E-Robert is the only robot using AI to help people. There are many lonely old people in Australia. They all say that the E-Robert makes them happy. ②97-year-old Amanda Blake lives in Sydney, Australia. When she is at home, a talking robot called E-Robert often talks to her about her day. ③In Melbourne, Australia, E-Robert plays games and music for 91-year-oldSarah Parker. This robot always makes Sarah laugh. She feels great every day. ④And in Perth, Australia, E-Robert helps 96-year-old Cynthia Nixon to make new friends. Because of the Internet, Cynthia can get to know more people and say hello to many friends. ⑤E-Robert looks like a small table lamp. It can remember the users’ likes and talks. Joyce says, “It’s fun. E-Robert knows me well. It talks to me about my health and asks me to do sports. When it’s time for me to take medicine, it tells me. Sometimes I can also make calls to my family and friends through E-Robert.” ⑥Australia says it can help about 100, 000 lonely old people before 2029. The robot makes lots of people feel happy! 26. Which information card is right? A. B. C. D. 27. Which of the following may be the E-Robert? A. B. C. D. 28. According to Joyce, what is the main use of E-Robert? A. To be a tool for making phone calls. B. To be a friend that talks to her about her day. C. To be a fun toy that can remember stories and tell jokes. D. To be a helper that helps her remember her health and daily routines. 29. Which of the following shows the structure (结构) of the passage? A. ①/②③④/⑤/⑥ B. ①/②③④⑤⑥ C. ①②③④⑤/⑥ D. ①②/③④⑤/⑥ 30. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. Talking E-Robert can use AI. B. Old people make friends with E-Robert. C. Talking E-Robert helps lonely old people. D. Old people stay healthy with the help of E-Robert. 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从下面所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Between classes, homework, friends and finding time to relax, your days go by quickly. Do you want to feel less rushed? ____31____ Plan ahead. ____32____ Write down homework deadlines (截止日期), tests, club meetings and fun plans like sports or family time. Put this timetable where you can see— on the wall, in a notebook or on your phone. Checking it helps you remember important dates. Set reminders (提醒). Don’t forget small steps! Use your phone alarm or calendar app to remind you to start studying early or talk to friends about a group project. ____33____ Give yourself enough time for big tasks like tests. ____34____ Too much to do? Take a minute. Ask yourself: Which deadline is coming first? What to do next? What needs more energy? Sometimes doing quick tasks first makes you feel good before harder work. If your timetable is full, it’s okay to say “maybe next time” to friends. They will understand you need to study. Get help from others. Planning helps, but you don’t have to do it alone. You can study with your friends together. You can tell family when you need quiet time. ____35____ With their help, you’ll find it much easier to manage your life well. By trying these tips, you can get your work done, enjoy time with friends and family! A. Choose what matters first. B. It’s important to plan early! C. This helps you follow the plan. D. You can ask your teachers for help. E. Here is some simple advice for you. F. It’s important to keep balanced in daily life. 三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框中选择出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 change country his dish into shape show sweet strong see Do you like tofu? It is a common ____36____ in our daily lives. Whether in schools or small restaurants beside busy streets, this soft white food is always ____37____ on the menus. Chinese are good at playing magic with tofu. We turn it ____38____ mapo tofu that makes the mouth hot, fried chou tofu with a golden surface, or ____39____ tofu covered with fruits. These dishes ____40____ how one simple food becomes different meals. Scientists call tofu a “health superstar”. It helps people build ____41____ body. Best of all, it’s low in fat and costs less than meat, making it popular among people of all age groups. An old story takes us back to 2,000 years ago. A Chinese cook accidentally mixed sea salt into soybean milk. To ____42____ surprise, it became soft blocks—the world’s first tofu! This clever accident ____43____ the history of cooking at the same time. Today, tofu travels widely. In Western ____44____, people enjoy it in salads and sandwiches, calling it “Chinese cheese” because of its ____45____. From Chinese kitchens to the dining rooms around the world, tofu keeps bringing both health and joy to people. 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，用英文填空或回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求) 。 Last year, our school held a science competition. My classmates and I made a team called “Explorers”. Our goal was to design a small robot. We hoped the robot could help clean the classroom. At first, we faced many problems. Tom, our designer, wanted to make the robot look cool, but Lily, our engineer, thought function (功能) was more important. They argued for a long time and couldn’t reach an agreement. As a result, we fell behind other teams. Our team leader, Mike, didn’t get angry at all. Instead, he asked Tom and Lily to talk about their ideas separately. He said, “We are a team. Everyone’s ideas are valuable. Let’s put ourselves in each other’s shoes.” After listening to Mike’s advice, Tom and Lily started to understand each other. Tom agreed to focus on function first, and Lily promised to make the robot look nice. With everyone working together, we made great progress. We met every afternoon to discuss our design and solve problems. When we faced technical difficulties, we asked our science teacher for help. Finally, our robot won the first prize in the competition. Through this experience, we learned that a great team needs respect for each other’s ideas. A good leader should know how to resolve (解决) disagreements and encourage the team. Most importantly, teamwork makes the dream work. “Explorers” decided to design ____46____ for the science competition. (不超过3个词) Time Feelings, Activities & Results. At first Tom and Lily had different ideas. They argued and ____47____ , so they fell behind other teams. (不超过4词) And then Mike asked them to ____48____ separately and then they made a decision: focus on function first, and look cool second. (不超过5词) . At last Worked together, made great progress and ____49____ in the end. (不超过4词) What can you learn from the sentence “Let’s put ourselves in each other’s shoes.”? Use your own words. _______________50_______________ (结合自身实际，不超过20词) 第二节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分） 51. 假如你是李华，你的澳大利亚朋友Anna即将来中国参加夏令营活动。请根据以下信息写一封邮件，为她推荐夏令营并给出理由。 Welcome to China! Are you interested in history and culture? Join our camp! ◆Time: 2 days (July10th—11th) ◆Place: Wuhan ◆Activities: 1. learn the history of Wuhan 2. visit Yellow Crane Tower, East Lake and… 3. try delicious food ◆Cost: $150 注意： 1. 内容必须包含夏令营中所有信息，可适当发挥； 2. 文中不得出现真实人名、学校等信息； 3. 词数80左右，邮件的首尾和第一句已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Anna, It’s wonderful to know that you are coming to China! ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 2026年中考适应性测试 英语试题 （本试题卷共10页，满分90分，考试时间100分钟） ★祝考试顺利★ 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上。 2. 选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3. 非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。 笔试部分（90分） 一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 【1~15题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. B 二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个与短文内容相符合的最佳选项。 A 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C B 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D C 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. D 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. C 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. E 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. dish 37. seen 38. into 39. sweet 40. show 41. strong 42. his 43. changed 44. countries 45. shape 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. a small robot 47. couldn’t reach an agreement 48. talk about their ideas 49. won the first prize 50. In teamwork, we should understand others’ ideas to solve problems. 第二节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分） 【51题答案】 【答案】例文 Dear Anna, It’s wonderful to know that you are coming to China! I strongly recommend a summer camp in Wuhan. It will last for 2 days from July 10th to 11th. During the camp, you can learn the history of Wuhan and visit famous places like Yellow Crane Tower and East Lake. Besides, trying delicious local food is also included. The cost is only $150. It is a perfect chance to experience Chinese culture. I believe you will love it. Yours, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $