河北保定市定州市2025-2026学年度第一学期期末质量监测七年级英语试题

2025—2026学年度第一学期期末质量监测 七年级英语试题 注意事项：1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5．考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5题；每题1分，满分5分） ( ) 1. A. Thank you. B. No, it isn’t. C. Yes, he is. ( ) 2. A. No problem. B. My brother. C. Good idea. ( ) 3. A. Yes, there is. B. It’s very large. C. Next to the dining hall. ( ) 4. A. You’re welcome. B. I’m great, thanks. C. Nice to meet you too. ( ) 5. A. Of course. B. Yes, I can. C. No, I can’t. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13题；每题1分，满分13分） ( ) 6. Where does Mary work? A. B. C. ( ) 7. Where are they? A. B. C. ( ) 8. How is Mary? A. She is fine. B. She is not fine. C. We don’t know. ( ) 9. How many pencils does Mary have? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. ( ) 10. Where are the pencils? A. On the table. B. On the chair. C. In the pencil case. ( ) 11. Where is the pencil case? A. In the bag. B. On the desk. C. On the chair. ( ) 12. What time do they have breakfast? A. At seven fifteen. B. At seven twenty. C. At seven o’clock. ( ) 13. What do they NOT have for breakfast? A. Fruit and juice. B. Salads and apples. C. Cereal and bread. ( ) 14. What does Mary like for breakfast? A. Some cereal and sugar. B. A cup of tea. C. A glass of juice. ( ) 15. What will Sue do this afternoon? A. Make a movie. B. Go shopping. C. Go to see a movie. ( ) 16. What will Sue buy? A. Costumes. B. Jackets. C. Skirts. ( ) 17. What’s the movie about? A. It’s about the environment of the school. B. It’s about the school life. C. It’s about the city life. ( ) 18. Who is the director in the movie? A. Sue. B. Bob. C. Sue’s teacher. 第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案（共7题；每题1分，满分7分） ( ) 19. Where do they go? A. To the farm. B. To the library. C. To the theatre. ( ) 20. What animals do they see? A. Pigs and cows. B. Sheep and cows. C. Pigs and sheep. ( ) 21. Do they have fun? A. No, they don’t. B. Yes, they do. C. We don’t know. ( ) 22. When is winter in Canada? A. June, July and August. B. November, December, January and February. C. Only November and December. ( ) 23. Which season does Jenny like? A. Autumn. B. Spring. C. Summer. ( ) 24. Where is Anne from? A. China. B. Australia. C. Canada. ( ) 25. What does Jenny want to do next Christmas? A. To go to the beach. B. To go to see Wang Mei. C. To go to see Anne. 第四节 听短文填空（共5题；每题1分，满分5分） Danny and Jenny are at the 26. ______. They want to go to the War Hall to learn about the 27. ______ of war, but they don’t know where it is. A clerk tells them to go 28. ______ down the Rest Area. Then turn 29. ______ at the Help Desk. Pass the 3D Hall. The War Hall will be on their 30. ______. 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共15题；每题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Canada is the biggest 31. ______ in North America. It is so big that it reaches from the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean. Ottawa is the country’s 32. ______. Nearly all Canadians speak French, English, or 33. ______. People come from other countries to live in Canada. Together, all of these different people make Canada 34. ______. Most Canadians live in big cities in the 35. ______ parts of Canada, because ice and snow 36. ______ the land in the far north. Some animals only live in the 37. ______ north, like polar bears and baby harp seals (竖琴海豹). They both have 38. ______ fur, and then other animals can’t see them clearly on the snow. Many animals in Canada 39. ______ in winter and spring. Canada geese fly south every 40. ______. They come back in spring when the weather 41. ______. All 42. ______ Canada, people have festivals for iceskating and ice carving. There are dogsled (狗拉雪橇) races across the snow. The biggest winter 43. ______ is in Quebec City. You can 44. ______ an ice castle and play games there. Canada is a very big country 45. ______ many different animals. It has many different people, too. Canadians say their differences make them strong. ( ) 31. A. country B. mountain C. continent D. waterfall ( ) 32. A. camel B. camera C. club D. capital ( ) 33. A. every B. each C. both D. all ( ) 34. A. strong B. ancient C. healthy D. normal ( ) 35. A. northern B. southern C. eastern D. western ( ) 36. A. drop B. fall C. fight D. cover ( ) 37. A. cold B. hot C. cool D. warm ( ) 38. A. black B. green C. white D. colourful ( ) 39. A. skate B. sleep C. miss D. move ( ) 40. A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter ( ) 41. A. warms up B. gets up C. turns up D. looks up ( ) 42. A. through B. across C. between D. below ( ) 43. A. camp B. moment C. festival D. activity ( ) 44. A. join B. visit C. take D. work ( ) 45. A. with B. as C. like D. about 第二节 短文填空（共10题；每题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 My grandmother and grandfather 46. ______ (be)85 years old. They always forget things. Now I am 47. ______ (mark) some important days in October on a calendar for 48. ______ (they). October 1 is our 49. ______ (nation) Day. We will go to a park. October 15 is my 50. ______ (grandfather) birthday. We will have a birthday party for him. All of the children will come back home. October 30 is my birthday. It is 51. ______ Sunday. I am not going to have a 52. p______. I will go to a bookstore 53. ______ my grandfather, grandmother, mother and father 54. b______ they enjoy 55. ______ (read)very much. I hope we can have a good time there. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15题；每题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A B C D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Hello, everyone! I will tell you something about my trip to the U. S. When I got to New York, I began my visit. First, I went to a senior high school. I was happy on the first night there because I lived with a kind family, the Greens. It was a small family. They were very friendly to me. They helped me do some things. When I wanted to write to my friends, they let me use their computer. When I lost my book, they helped me look for it. After some days, I went to another school. I lived in the Browns’ house. There were three people in the family. I was surprised that the parents were from different cities in the same country. It was a nice trip and I was happy to be with the two families. They would be my friends forever. ( ) 56. The writer lived ______. A. in a senior high school B. in the Greens’ house C. in the family D. in a hotel ( ) 57. The writer went to school (s). A. one B. two C. three D. four ( ) 58. Why was the writer surprised when he got to the Browns’ house? A. Because the parents of the family were from different cities in the same country. B. Because the family were not very helpful to him. C. Because the family was too big. D. Because there were only three people in the family. ( ) 59. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “forever” in Chinese? A．从来不 B．最好的 C．曾经 D．永远 ( ) 60. What’s the best title of the passage? A. My Best Friend in the U.S. B. Families in New York C. Schools in New York D. My Trip to the U.S. B My school is very beautiful. It is Nanhai Experimental School. There are three tall buildings in our school. They all have five floors. In the teaching building, the PE room is on the ground floor. The library is on the first floor. The science rooms are on the second floor. The computer rooms are on the second floor and the third floor. The music rooms are on the second floor and the third floor, too. My classroom is on the fourth floor. I am in Class 9, Grade 6. There are five gardens in our school. In the gardens there are beautiful flowers, grass and trees. There is a big playground in my school. I like my school, because my school is very beautiful. ( ) 61. There are ______ tall buildings in the writer’s school. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ( ) 62. ______ is/are on the first floor in the teaching building. A. The PE room B. The library C. The science rooms D. The computer rooms ( ) 63. The writer is in ______. A. Class 9, Grade 7 B. Class 6, Grade 9 C. Class 9, Grade 6 D. Class 6, Grade 6 ( ) 64. There is/are ______ in the gardens. A. flowers B. grass C. trees D. A, B and C ( ) 65. Which of the following is TRUE? A. The teaching building has three floors. B. The science rooms are on the third floor. C. There are five gardens in the school. D. There is no playground in the school. C If you want to learn English well, here are some tips. Find study partners You can find a study partner or join an English-speaking club. You can speak English together and help each other. Use real-life materials Reading just textbooks is boring. Try to read English materials written by native speakers. Listen to real English. Listen to English spoken at a normal speed, and listen several times to catch new words. Learn about the culture Learning a language is not only about grammar and words. It’s also about talking to people with different ways of thinking. Have fun! Learning a language needs work, but if you have fun, you’ll keep learning. Don’t be afraid of making mistakes. Mistakes can help you learn. ( ) 66. To speak English with others and help each other, you should ______. A. meet native English speakers B. find study partners or join an English-speaking club C. take online English lessons D. find a pen-friend from English-speaking countries ( ) 67. How can you improve your listening skill? A. By reading English materials written by native speakers. B. By reading English in textbooks. C. By listening to English spoken at a slow speed. D. By listening to English several times. ( ) 68. What does the underlined word “real-life” mean? A. Interesting. B. Important. C. True. D. Quick. ( ) 69. Which is right according to the writer? A. You don’t need to learn English culture. B. Don’t be afraid of making mistakes. C. You won’t have fun learning a language. D. Grammar isn’t important. ( ) 70. What is the best title of the passage? A. Tips on Learning English B. Fun in Learning English C. Tips on Learning about Culture D. Fun in Learning about Culture 第二节 阅读表达（共5题；每题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。 I am Linda. Life in my middle school is always busy. Every morning, I go to the classroom with my roommates (室友). We often read English. After that, we have breakfast and clean our classroom. Class begins (开始) at 8:00 a. m. We have four classes in the morning. I’m always hungry before 11:30 a. m. We have three classes in the afternoon. In the evening, we must finish the homework. When I go to bed, I feel everything is nice because I know tomorrow will be a new day. My school life is busy. We have to take lots of classes and do lots of exercises, but we still have time to do what we like and have fun with our friends. I love my school life (生活). 71. Is Linda’s school life busy? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 72. When is the first class in her school? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 73. What does Linda do in the evening? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. How does Linda feel when she goes to bed? And why? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. Do you like your school life? Why or why not? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际（满分10分） 补全对话（共5题；每题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 It’s September 1. The new term (学期) begins. Mike meets Jenny at the school gate. Mike: Hello! I’m Mike. 76. ________________. Jenny: Nice to meet you, too. What class are you in? Mike: I’m in Class Four. 77. ________________? Jenny: I’m in Class Four, too. 78. ________________. Mike: Really? We are classmates now. 79. ________________? Jenny: My name is Jenny. Mike: 80. ________________? Jenny: I’m from Canada. Mike, you look tall. How tall are you? Mike: I’m 1.8 m tall. Jenny: Oh! You are a tall boy. Look! Mr Jones is coming. Let’s go into our classroom. Mike: Let’s go! 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81．升上初中后，你是否适应初中生活？假如你是李华，请写一篇名为“My School Day”的英语短文。 内容包括： （1）你上学时间、学校课程安排及你的课外活动； （2）你最喜欢的科目及其原因； （3）你对学校生活的看法。 要求： （1）短文应包括以上所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； （2）短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名； （3）词数60个字左右。 My School Day I’m a junior high school student. I love going to school. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 第一部分 听力（共30题；每题1分,满分30分） 1—5 BBCCA 6—10 ABAAC 11—15 BABBB 16—20 ABAAA 21—25BBCBC 26.museum 27.history 28.straight 29.right 30.left 第二部分语言运用（共25题；每题1分,满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10题;每题1分,满分10分） 31—35 ADCAB 36—40 DACDC 41—45 ABCBA 第二节 短文填空（共15题;每题1分,满分15分） 46.are 47.marking 48.them 49.National 50.grandfather's 51.on 52.party 53.with 54.because 55.reading 第三部分 阅读（共20题；每题2分,满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15题;每题2分,满分30分） 56—60 BBADD 61—65 ABCDC 66—70 BDCBA 第二节 阅读表达（共5题;每题2分,满分10分） 71.Yes. 72.At 8:00 a.m. 73.She must finish the homework. 74.She feels everything is nice because she knows tomorrow will be a new day. 75.Yes.Because I can study and have fun with my friends./No. ... 第四部分 情景交际（满分10分） 补全对话（共5题;每题2分,满分10分） 76.Nice to meet you 77.What about you 78.We are in the same class 79.What's your name 80.Where are you from 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 答案略 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $