内容正文:
徐州市树人中学2025-2026年度第二学期译林2024版初中英语七年级下册期末模拟练习
姓名_____________班级_____________考号_____________得分_____________
(所有选择题一律涂卡,用2B涂卡笔正确填涂,其余各题一律做在答题纸上!)
一、选择填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. ___________sun rises in___________east and sets in___________west.
A. The; the; the B. A; an; a C. /; /; / D. The; an; the
2. It was my grandpa's___________birthday last Sunday. My father___________him a new hat.
A. the eightieth, bought B. the eightieth, buys C. eightieth, buys D. eightieth, bought
3. Lily_________speak French when she was in France, but now she_________forget most of it.
A.may; could B. can; could C. could; can D. can; must
4. __________________lovely weather it is today! Let's go hiking.
A. What a B. What C. How a D. How
5. —Could you give me__________________to drink?
—Sorry, there is__________________in the bottle.
A. something; little B. anything; a few C. nothing; few D. something; a little
6. There are too many skirts in the shop. I don’t know__________________.
A.to choose what B.which one should I choose
C.when to choose D.which one to choose
7. —There__________________a women’s basketball match on TV tonight.
—Excellent! I can't wait__________________to watch it.
A. will have; watching B. will be; to watch
C. is going to have; to watch D. is going to be; watching
8. Don't____________your pet cat when you are away. Grandpa can look after it____________.
A. worried about; enough good B. worry about; good enough
C. be worried about; enough well D. worry about; well enough
9. —It's raining so__________________!
—Yes. I'm wondering how long it would take__________________home.
A. hard; to get B. heavily; arrive at C. heavily; reach D. hard; to get to
10.— Is it going to rain this afternoon?
—__________________Look at the heavy clouds.
A. I hope so. B. I'm afraid not. C. I am afraid so. D. I have no idea.
二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
根据短文内容,从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It was a dark night.The moon was behind a cloud.I saw a light of fire in my neighbour's ____11____.I thought he was cooking a midnight snack(夜宵), ____12____I went back to my bed.
Soon there was a smell of burning(燃烧)in the air and I thought____13____was wrong.I jumped out of the bed____14____.I saw fire coming out of my neighbour's kitchen.Then I____15____,"Fire!Fire!"But no one in the neighbourhood____16____my shouts for help.
I ran into my house,called the____17____and went to my neighbour's house.I____18____the door hard and called out my neighbour's name.There was no answer.Finally I rushed into the house and saved a cat and a dog.
I tried to pour water____19____the window of the kitchen but it didn't work.Luckily,the firemen arrived ten minutes later and____20____the fire.They all said I was very____21____.
When my neighbour came back,he was sad for his kitchen.Then he knew the fact.He found he was so____22____.He forgot to____23____the gas stove(燃气灶).He thanked me for____24____the firemen and saving his pets.
Weeks later,my neighbour invited me____25____his new kitchen and we enjoyed a big meal there.It made me very happy.The accident(事故)made us closer together.After that,we became best friends.
11. A.bedroom B.kitchen C.bathroom D.garden
12.A.so B.but C.before D.or
13.A.nothing B.everything C.anything D.something
14.A.suddenly B.slowly C.quickly D.carefully
15.A.called B.shouted C.said D.repeated
16.A.heard B.searched C.wondered D.raised
17.A.teachers B.neighbours C.managers D.firemen
18.A.tried on B.knocked on C.put on D.got on
19.A.over B.across C. through D.along
20.A.put out B.found out C.worked out D.took out
21.A.lost B.brave C.alone D.polite
22.A.careless B.careful C.noisy D.unlucky
23.A.turn up B.turn down C.turn on D.turn off
24.A.calls B.to call C. calling D.called
25.A.seeing B. to see C.saw D.sees
三、阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
A)阅读下面四篇短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
A
WATER WORLD
Come and learn about the amazing world under the sea!
Did you know there are over 29,000 kinds of fish in the world? At Water World you can walk in our underwater tunnels(隧道)and see fish swim past your nose!
You can see sharks, jellyfish and a lot more.
In the three outdoor pools, you can watch dolphins jumping and playing. Visit the big pool at 11 a.m.~2 p.m., and you can help feed the animals.
There is also a Water World beach with real sand, where children can swim and play with sand. Don’t forget to bring your dolphin swimming clothes!
At the cafe there’s plenty of nice food.
Try our special meals: fish and chocolate ice cream!
Water World—A great day out for all the family!
26. What is Water World?
A.A place above water. B.A place to see fish.
C.A place without pools. D.A place to watch birds.
27. When can you feed the animals?
A.At 9 a.m. B.At 10:40 a.m. C.At 1 p.m. D.At 4:30 p.m.
28. What can children do on the Water World beach?
A.They can buy their favourite gifts. B.They can enjoy lots of special food.
C.They can swim and play with sand. D.They can watch different sea animals.
B
Then the white rabbit saw Alice.
“What are you doing here, Mary Ann?” he asked. “Go home right away and bring me a fan and a pair of white gloves.”
Alice was too afraid to tell him she was not Mary Ann, a servant (仆人). So she ran off.
“I’ll try and find his fan and gloves,” she thought when she ran.
She soon came to a little house. There was a name on the door, “W. Rabbit.”
She went inside without knocking on the door. “How strange this all is!” she thought. “I am running errands (差事) for a rabbit. Perhaps Dinah will ask me to run errands for her.”
She ran up the stairs into a little bedroom, and there she found a pair of gloves and a fan. She picked them up and was going to leave when she saw a bottle. It was near a looking glass. On the side of the bottle were the words “Drink me.”
“I’ll drink some,” Alice thought. “Perhaps it will make me grow again. I am tired of being so small.”
She quickly drank half the bottle. Before she could get out of the little house, she started to grow. Soon, she was so big, she could not move in the room.
“That was a silly (傻的) thing to do,” she thought. “Why didn’t I take the bottle with me and drink from it outside the house?”
—Taken from Alice in Wonderland
29.Who was Mary Ann?
A.Alice’s friend. B.Alice’s servant.
C.The White Rabbit’s servant. D.The White Rabbit’s friend.
30.What made Alice grow taller inside the house?
A.A fan. B.Something she drank.
C.A pair of gloves. D.Something she ate.
31.Which of the following showed the right order of what happened in the passage?
a. Alice became taller. b. The white rabbit saw Alice.
c. Alice came into a little bedroom d. Alice saw a bottle near a looking glass
A.bcad B.dcba C.bcda D.dacb
32.Which sentence was TRUE according to the passage?
A.Alice felt comfortable after she became bigger.
B.After knocking on the door, Alice went into the house.
C.Alice thought it is clever to drink the bottle inside the house.
D.Alice was too big to move out of the house.
C
As we all know, activities like listening to the birds or taking a walk in the park are good for our health. But someone thinks birdwatching is often boring.
In fact, a study published in 2024 shows that even half an hour of birdwatching could make us happier, healthier and help us get close to nature. Even hearing birds indoors through an open window can change our bad feelings. The study also shows that it is better to watch birds than to take a walk.
So why is birdwatching so good for us? Biophilia (亲生物性) could be a big part of it. It means that humans have a good relationship with nature—some would think that we should see ourselves as part of nature—so being in nature makes us feel well. But biodiversity (生物多样性) is important too. The study shows that biodiversity is a natural medicine for humans that can help us relax and do more activities.
Another reason is that after being careful to do birdwatching, we can get happiness and know a lot about birds. The study also shows that noticing wildlife in nature can make us get closer to nature and learn more about it. So birdwatching can make us feel happy.
So, take your binoculars and walk into nature for birdwatching to help you relax and be happy. Enjoy every moment and have fun.
33. What can we learn from paragraph 2?
A.It is better to take a walk than to watch birds in nature.
B.Even keeping the door open can make us happy again.
C.Birdwatching can be helpful to us and make us happier.
D.Taking a walk for one hour can help us watch birds.
34. The underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to________________.
A.why Biophilia is helpful to us B.why biodiversity is so important
C.why we are part of our nature D.why birdwatching is good for us
35. What is the correct structure (结构) of the article?
A.①→②→③④→⑤ B.①→②③④→⑤
C.①②→③→④⑤ D.①②③→④→⑤
36. What is the best title of the article?
A.Take a walk and be happy! B.Go birdwatching and have fun!
C.Watch birds and protect nature. D.Walk into nature and find birds!
D
The Future of Paper Books
In the digital age, e-books and online reading apps are becoming more and more common. People can carry thousands of books in their smartphones and read them anytime. Many young people think paper books are becoming useless.
However, paper books still have their unique charm. When you hold a paper book, you can feel the texture of the paper and smell the ink. The process of turning pages gives readers a different kind of reading experience, which is hard to get from e-books. Also, for some people, reading paper books is a way to relax and escape from the digital world.
Moreover, paper books are more suitable for deep reading. Without the interference(干扰)of pop-up messages and colorful ads on digital devices(数码设备), readers can focus better on the content. Some studies even show that people remember more information when reading paper books than e-books.
But paper books also have problems. They take up a lot of space, and producing them needs a large number of trees, which is not good for the environment. As we move forward, will paper books disappear(消失), or will they always have a place in our lives?
37. Why do many young people think paper books are useless?
A. Because paper books are too expensive.
B. Because e-books are more convenient and common.
C. Because paper books are hard to carry.
D. Because there are fewer kinds of paper books.
38. What does the underlined word “texture” mean in Chinese?
A. 颜色 B. 重量 C. 厚度 D. 质地
39. What advantage of paper books for reading is mentioned in the passage?
A. They are easier to carry than e-books.B. They help readers remember more information.
C. They are more colorful than e-books.D. They don’t need any space to store.
40. Do you think paper books will disappear in the future? Why or why not?
A. Yes, because e-books are perfect.
B. No, because paper books have irreplaceable advantages.
C. Maybe, it depends on how technology develops.
D. It’s hard to say, as both have their own values.
B)阅读短文,从短文后A至G七个选项中选出五个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Our world has many beautiful landscapes, like mountains, forests, and oceans. ___41___ They are not only beautiful to look at but also very important for our lives.
Forests, for example, are like the lungs(肺)of the earth.___42___ They also provide homes for many animals. But now, forests are in danger. People are cutting down too many trees.
Oceans are another important part of our planet.___43___ They are home to countless sea creatures(生物). However, pollution and overfishing are harming the oceans.
___44___ We should stop cutting down trees and start planting more. We can also reduce our use of plastic to protect the oceans.
___45___ By working together, we can protect these beautiful landscapes and make the world a better place.
A. We all need to do our part to protect them.
B. They help clean the air and keep the balance of nature.
C. These landscapes make our planet a wonderful place to live.
D. What can we do to protect these precious landscapes?
E. They cover most of the earth and play a key role in our ecosystem.
F. People should not travel to these beautiful natural places.
G. Many animals in the forests are becoming extinct.
41______________42______________43______________44______________45_____________
四、词语运用(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
A)选用方框内的单词或是词组填空,其中一个单词或词组是多余选项。
give up, give away, to deal with, any time, ancient, lying
46. We must take positive steps______________the problem in time.
47. Sandy was______________ on the grass and enjoying the sunshine when I saw her yesterday.
48. The warm-hearted volunteer is always ready to help those in need______________instead of standing by without offering help.
49. The Great Wall is one of the most famous______________buildings in the world.
50. If you______________something that you own, you give it to someone.
B)阅读短文,在文中空白处填入1个适当的词,或是用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。
When I was young,I was very shy.I hardly ever went out to play with other 51 (child).One day,my classmates wanted to play basketball with me,but I thought that the ball might hurt me.So I said"no"to them.When I got back home,I talked 52 my mother about it.She told me that 53 (play) basketball was not a terrible thing and she said that I should have a try,but I was a little 54 (worry) .I was shorter and thinner than other kids.And I ran 55 (slow) .My mother told me if I believed in 56 (I) ,I could learn to play it well.
The next Saturday,my mother found a basketball 57 asked me to play with her in the park.At first I was slow,but little by little I learnt how to play it.After half 58 hour,some boys came to play basketball with us.I believed I could do well,so I was very excited.At last I made my 59 (one) goal.My mother and I were very happy and I 60 (feel) I was a great man.After that,I became confident and now I think nothing is difficult if we believe in ourselves.
51______________52______________53______________54______________55_____________
56______________57______________58______________59______________60_____________
五、阅读与表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
China has many special forms of traditional art.They are usually used to represent things that are important in life such as love,beauty and family.
It was said that sky lanterns were first used by Zhuge Liang.He sent them out to ask for help when in trouble.They are made of bamboo and covered with paper.Sky lanterns are used at festivals and other celebrations today.They are seen as bright symbols of happiness and good wishes.
Chinese paper-cutting has been around for more than 1,500 years.It may sound very easy but is difficult to practise.The paper,usually red,is folded(折叠)before it is cut with scissors.The most common pictures are flowers,animals and things about Chinese history.During the Spring Festival,they are put up on windows,doors and walls as symbols of wishes for good luck and a happy new year.
Chinese clay art is famous because the clay pieces are so small but they look very real.The pieces are carefully shaped by hand from a very special kind of clay and then allowed to air-dry.After drying,they are fired at a very high heat.Then they are painted after polishing (抛光).Finally,materials such as wood or paper are added as decorations.It takes several weeks to complete everything.These small pieces of clay art show the love that all Chinese people have for life and beauty.
根据上面短文的内容回答问题,每小题答案不超过6个单词。
61. Who first used sky lanterns?
62. What are sky lanterns seen as bright symbols of?
63. How long has Chinese paper-cutting been around?
64. Where are the most common pictures put up during the Spring Festival?
65. How are the clay pieces carefully shaped from a very special kind of clay?
六、书面表达(满分20分)
暑假即将来到,假如你是交换生Amy,向同学们提议暑假期间多参加一些户外活动,以获得户外乐趣。请根据以下要点提示,用英语写一封倡议信。
1)Talk about why we need more outdoor activities.
2)Recommend one or two outdoor activities and give reasons.
要求:
1)词数90词左右。开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
2)紧扣主题,语句通顺,要点全面,书写规范;
3)文中不得出现真实的个人及学校等信息。
Dear fellow students,
I am Amy from Class One,Grade Seven.When we are busy with our study,it's also important for us to_____________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Let's spend at least one day each week doing something outdoors this summer holiday!
Yours,
Amy
徐州市树人中学2025-2026年度第二学期译林2024版初中英语七年级下册期末模拟练习
参考答案
一、选择填空
1-5ADCBA 6-10DBDAC
二、完形填空
11-15BADCB 16-20ADBCA 21-25BADCB
三、阅读理解
26-28BCC 29-32CBCD 33-36CDAB 37-40BDBD 41-45CBEDA
四、词语运用
A)46-50to deal with, lying, any time, ancient, give away
B)51.children 52.with 53.playing 54.worried 55.slowly
56.myself 57.and 58.an 59.first 60.felt
五、阅读与表达
61. Zhuge Liang.
62. Happiness and good wishes.
63. For more than 1,500 years.
64. On windows,doors and walls.
65. By hand.
六、书面表达
Dear fellow students,
I am Amy from Class One,Grade Seven.When we are busy with our study,it's also important for us to take part in more outdoor activities.
Being outside helps us learn more about the world around us.It's like opening a window to see the sky and hear the birds.Also,outdoor activities can improve our health.They help us exercise and relax after finishing a lot of homework.I suggest everyone choose one or two outdoor activities.Hiking is a good way to visit new places and have a good time with friends at the same time.And the views from the top are always great!If you don't have much time,you can also go jogging around your home.Going jogging in the morning can help us enjoy fresh air and prepare for the whole day. It is a great chance to be close to nature.
Let's spend at least one day each week doing something outdoors this summer holiday!
Yours,
Amy
考号:
姓名:
班级:
徐州市树人中学2025-2026年度第二学期译林2024版初中英语七年级下册期末模拟练习
答题纸
4、 词语运用(每小题1分,计15分)
46______________47______________48______________ 49______________ 50___________
51______________52______________53______________54______________55_____________
56______________57______________58______________59______________60_____________
5、 阅读与表达(每小题2分,计10分)
61
62
63
64
65
6、 书面表达(计20分)
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1
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