精品解析：河南郑州枫杨外国语学校 2024-2025学年八年级上学期第二次月考试卷 英语

2024-2025学年河南郑州枫杨外国语中学八上第二次月考试卷·英语 全卷总分：100分 考试时间：100分钟 一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. 1. Which city does Nick like best? A.New York. B.Shanghai. C.London. 2. Where are the two speakers talking? A.At home. B.In the restaurant. C.In the classroom. 3. What are they talking about? A.Their hobbies. B.Their dreams. C.Their problems. 4. Why does the man just want to stay at home? A.Because he is tired. B.Because he wants to read some books. C.Because he is ill. 5. What’s the weather like now? A.rainy. B.snowy. C.sunny. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 2. 1. What did the girl’s father do yesterday? A.He built their garden. B.He watched a basketball game. C.He took part in a basketball game. 2. How did the boy like the game? A.Boring. B.Exciting. C.Interesting. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 3. 1. What time should the girl be in the classroom? A.At 1:40p.m. B.At 2:00p.m. C.At 4:00p.m. 2. How much does the girl spend on her classes? A.$50. B.$100. C.$150. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 4. 1. How old was Sam when he started to play basketball? A.6. B.7. C.8. 2. Who does Sam always play basketball with after school? A.His classmates. B.His brother. C.His father. 3. When does Sam watch the NBA? A.Every weekend. B.Every Friday. C.Every Tuesday. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 5. 1. Who is not feeling well? A.Tom. B.Tom’s mother. C.Tom’s brother. 2. What didn’t Tom have for dinner yesterday? A.Potato chips. B.Sandwiches. C.Hamburgers. 3. What is the doctor’s advice? A.Having a good sleep. B.Taking some medicine. C.Eating a little for one day. 第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序，并将其标号填涂在答题卡的相应位置。短文读两遍。 6. A. B. C. D. E. ________ ________ ________ ________ ________ 二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 This is the third year of our cooking camp. It’s a great way to start cooking for yourself! Time: from 10 a.m. to 1 p.m., for three days from 28th to 30th, January Open to: boys and girls aged 11-14 years Price: $20 for one kind and $35 for two You can learn to make: cakes, pizza, sandwiches, turkey, pasta, bread Your teacher Marianne is a talented cook and she loves good food. She has got family from Spain, Turkey, Italy and Russia. Marianne loves and cooks food from all of those countries. Come and learn to cook with her. Our cooking camps are very popular, so please click HERE to sign up or call 8636564 to book your place. You must be 11-14years old. You must love food. You must wear a chef’s hat. (Don’t worry, we give you one.) You mustn’t be late. There is a lot to learn. 1. When is the cooking camp? A. In January. B. In May. C. In June. D. In October. 2. Who can take part in the cooking camp? A. A kind teacher. B. A loving mother. C. A talented cook. D. A 12-year-old boy. 3. What must teenagers do if they want to be in the cooking camp? A. They must pay $55. B. They must come on time. C. They must buy a chef’s hat. D. They must come for three afternoons. 4. How much do you need to pay if you learn to make three kinds of food? A. $10. B. $20. C. $35. D. $55. 5. You read this advertisement most probably ________. A. in a novel B. in a magazine C. on the Internet D. in a newspaper 【答案】1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章是一则烹饪夏令营的广告，介绍了活动时间、参与对象、费用、学习内容、教师信息及报名方式等。 【1题详解】 文章第二段“Time: from 10 a.m. to 1 p.m., for three days from 28th to 30th, January”指出，烹饪夏令营在1月28日至30日举办。 【2题详解】 文章第三段“Open to: boys and girls aged 11-14 years”指出，活动面向11至14岁的男孩和女孩。因此，一名12岁的男孩可以参加。 【3题详解】 文章最后的注意事项“You mustn’t be late.”指出，参与者不能迟到，即必须按时到场。 【4题详解】 文章第四段“Price: $20 for one kind and $35 for two”指出，学习一种食物20美元，两种35美元，三种需要按“两种+一种”计算，即35+20=55美元。 【5题详解】 文章最后“please click HERE to sign up”指出，报名需要点击链接，这通常是网络广告的特征。因此，这则广告最可能出现在互联网上。 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 Brian was a funny student. He loved watching comedies best and hoped to become a comedy actor one day. There was a talent show at his school. Brian decided to take part in it. He had never acted on stage (舞台) before, and he was very excited. But some students laughed at him. “You are not funny but silly,” Ken, one of his classmates, said to his face. “No one will like what you do.” Brian thought about giving up the show at first. But he remembered how much his friends liked his jokes, and also his teachers said he was very funny. So he decided to prepare for the show. Brian did a great job at the talent show. Everyone loved his performance, and he won the first prize! His teachers and friends were proud of him. Even so, Ken told Brian that he was not funny, and that he would never be successful. Brian didn’t understand why Ken said so, but he realized that it had nothing to do with him. He confidently continued to work towards his goal. As the years went on, Brian met more people like Ken. “You’ll do a terrible job,” they said to him. Luckily, most people encouraged him and some helped him to become even funnier. He got a lot of chances to perform in movies. He was even invited to appear on TV. His fans thanked him because his comedies made them feel good when they were unhappy. Now Brian is a big comedy star! He is doing what he loves best. He never feels stressed like those unkind people, and he laughs all day long! 6. What did Brian love best when he was a student? A. Going to school. B. Helping classmates. C. Watching comedies. D. Meeting new friends. 7. Why did Brian decide to prepare for the show? A. His friends liked his jokes. B. He was invited by a TV station. C. He wasn’t busy acting in movies. D. Ken was expecting his performance. 8. Brian’s fans thanked him because his comedies brought them ________. A. success B. happiness C. luck D. pride 9. What do you think of Brian? A. Positive and strong-willed. B. Friendly and shy. C. Helpless and creative. D. Serious and supportive. 10. The story wants to tell us we should ________. A. understand others B. become a teacher of acting C. encourage others to like comedies D. continue to work towards our goal 【答案】6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了布莱恩从小热爱喜剧，尽管受到同学的嘲笑，他依然坚持自己的梦想，最终成为一名喜剧明星的故事。 【6题详解】 文章第一段第一句“Brian was a funny student.”及第二句“He loved watching comedies best and hoped to become a comedy actor one day.”指出，布莱恩最喜欢看喜剧。 【7题详解】 文章第二段倒数第二句“But he remembered how much his friends liked his jokes, and also his teachers said he was very funny.”指出，布莱恩想起朋友们很喜欢他的笑话，老师也说他很风趣，因此决定参加才艺展示。 【8题详解】 文章第四段最后一句“His fans thanked him because his comedies made them feel good when they were unhappy.”指出，布莱恩的粉丝感谢他，因为他的喜剧在他们不开心时让他们感觉好多了，即他的喜剧给他们带来了快乐。 【9题详解】 文章第三段中布莱恩面对肯的嘲笑，意识到“it had nothing to do with him”并“confidently continued to work towards his goal”，以及最后一段他“never feels stressed like those unkind people, and he laughs all day long”，说明他乐观积极、意志坚定。 【10题详解】 文章讲述了布莱恩不顾他人嘲笑，坚持追求喜剧梦想并最终成功的故事，最后一段第二句“He is doing what he loves best”点明主旨：要为自己的目标不断努力。 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 Have you ever heard that you should drink eight glasses, or about two liters of water every day? Lots of grown-ups try to drink so much water to stay healthy. But guess what? Scientists have found that there isn’t a magic number of glasses of water that’s perfect for everyone. In a big study, researchers checked out 5,600 people, from little kids who are just a week old to great-grandparents who are 96 years old! They wanted to find out about “water turnover,” which is an interesting way of saying how much water goes into our body and then comes out (like when we go to the bathroom). They discovered that everyone is different when it comes to how much water they need. This can depend on things like how old you are, how long you run and play, and whether you’re a boy or not. For example, young men around 20 to 35 years old need almost twice as much water as men who are in their nineties! Also, the scientists noticed that people who are really active and move around a lot need more water than people who don’t exercise much. And here’s a fun fact: the foods we eat also have water in them! The people who did this study think that most of us don’t really need to drink eight glasses of water every day. It turns out that our bodies are pretty good at telling us when we’re thirsty. So, the best thing to do is listen to your body and drink water when you feel thirsty. And don’t forget that having fun is also a great way to stay healthy, just like drinking water! 11. How does the writer lead into the topic? A. By listing facts. B. By asking a question. C. By telling a story. D. By giving an example. 12. Which of the following is TRUE about the study? A. It only studied young people. B. It lasted for almost twenty years. C. It found people’s need for water is different. D. It found the older people are, the more water they drink. 13. What can we learn from Paragraph 3? A. Exercising more is the best way to stay healthy. B. People should eat more fruits that are full of water. C. The water people need also comes from the foods they eat. D. Drinking enough water is more important than exercising. 14. ________ tell us when to drink water. A. The scientists. B. The teachers. C. Our bodies. D. Our parents. 15. What’s the best title for the text? A. Eight glasses of water a day is perfect! B. Want to stay healthy? Drink more water! C. When is the best time to drink water? D. Do we really need eight glasses of water a day? 【答案】11. B 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. D 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。通过科学研究说明每天不必喝八杯水，人体需水量因人而异，应听从身体的信号。 【11题详解】 文章第一段第一句“Have you ever heard that you should drink eight glasses, or about two liters of water every day?”指出，作者用提问的方式引出话题。 【12题详解】 文章第二段第三句“They discovered that everyone is different when it comes to how much water they need.”指出，研究发现人们的需水量各不相同。 【13题详解】 文章第三段最后一句“the foods we eat also have water in them!”指出，人们需要的水分也来自所吃的食物。 【14题详解】 文章第四段第二句“our bodies are pretty good at telling us when we’re thirsty.”指出，我们的身体会告诉我们什么时候该喝水。 【15题详解】 全文开篇提出“每天喝八杯水”的说法，随后通过研究指出并非人人适用，最后建议听从身体需求，因此最佳标题是“我们真的需要每天喝八杯水吗？”，这是一个引人思考的问题，概括了全文核心内容。 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺，内容完整。 Two American astronauts went to the International Space Station for a test on 5th June. And they were expected to be back home in eight days at the beginning. ____16____ In fact, Barry Wilmore and Sunita Williams are still in space now. They have missed the summer and are even going to spend New Year in space. Mr. Wilmore, 61, and Ms. Williams, 58, flew a Boeing Starliner spacecraft (宇宙飞船) to the station. It was the first flight of its kind with astronauts. It was also a test planned to see how the new spacecraft worked before it was used more often. ____17____ The propulsion system (推进系统) and some other parts of the spacecraft stopped working. Although they have arrived at the space station luckily, they have to think about another plan to get home. ____18____ NASA officials are planning to return the two astronauts to Earth in February 2025. That flight to the space station will be made by a SpaceX Crew Dragon craft. The plan means the astronauts would spend more than eight months in space in total. And if the Crew Dragon is used, the Starliner craft would return to Earth without astronauts, under computer control. ____19____ The two astronauts said they were quite confident about the return trip and that Starliner was “truly good”. Ms. Williams said, “____20____ It feels good to be in space and work up here.” A. It feels like coming back home. B. But things didn’t quite go to plan. C. Problems, however, appeared on the way to the station. D. Because the spacecraft may not be able to take them back to Earth. E. NASA officials said it could take a week or more to make a final decision. 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. D 19. E 20. A 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述两名美国宇航员原计划8天返回地球，因飞船故障滞留太空，NASA正在制定新返航方案，宇航员心态积极乐观。 【16题详解】 上文说宇航员原本预计8天返回，下文说他们仍在太空、甚至要在太空过新年。B项“But things didn’t quite go to plan.”表示事情并未按计划进行，与上下文形成转折，衔接自然。 【17题详解】 下文提到飞船推进系统和部分部件失灵。C项“Problems, however, appeared on the way to the station.”指出在前往空间站途中出现了问题，引出下文故障描述，逻辑通顺。 【18题详解】 上文说宇航员必须重新计划返程。D项“Because the spacecraft may not be able to take them back to Earth.”解释原因是飞船可能无法带他们返回地球，与上文对应。 【19题详解】 上文介绍NASA的返航方案，说明需要决策与安排。E项“NASA officials said it could take a week or more to make a final decision.”说明NASA还需时间做最终决定，符合语境。 【20题详解】 下文宇航员说在太空工作感觉很好。A项“It feels like coming back home.”表达身处太空的感受，与下文语气一致，衔接顺畅。 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A，B，C，D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 An old man lives in a nice house with a large garden. He ____21____ his flowers all the time. One day a young man went past the garden. ____22____ at the beautiful flowers, he said to himself, “How happy I would be ____23____ I could live in this beautiful place.” Then, suddenly he found the old gardener was ____24____. That’s why he was very ____25____ about this and asked, “You can’t see these flowers. Why are you busy taking care of ____26____ every day?” The old man smiled and said, “I can tell you ____27____ reasons. First, I was a gardener when I was young, and I really like this job. Second, although I can’t ____28____ these flowers, I can touch them. Third, I can enjoy the nice ____29____ of them. As to the last one, that’s you.” “Me? But you don’t know me,” said the young man. “Yeah, it’s true that I don’t know you. But ____30____ are angels (天使) to everyone. Happiness can be brought by beautiful flowers and we all ____31____ that.” The blind man’s work opened our eyes and ____32____ our hearts. It also made his life happier and ____33____. It was just like Beethoven. He became deaf in his later life and wrote many great musical works. Beethoven himself couldn’t ____34____ his wonderful music, but his music has taught lots of people to face their difficulties ____35____. Isn’t it one kind of happiness? 21. A. keeps clear of B. takes care of C. pays attention to D. is interested in 22. A. Shouting B. Laughing C. Pointing D. Looking 23. A. unless B. because C. if D. until 24. A. blind B. shy C. deaf D. sad 25. A. worried B. surprised C. excited D. bored 26. A. it B. him C. them D. you 27. A. four B. three C. five D. two 28. A. pick B. see C. feel D. understand 29. A. look B. taste C. smell D. sound 30. A. difficulties B. lives C. gardens D. flowers 31. A. study B. enjoy C. name D. notice 32. A. pleased B. protected C. hurt D. broke 33. A. harder B. cleverer C. easier D. luckier 34. A. imagine B. practice C. hear D. complete 35. A. gladly B. quietly C. bravely D. naturally 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了一位失明老人悉心照料花园，通过阐述照料原因传递幸福真谛的故事。 【21题详解】 句意：他一直照料着他的花。 根据“Why are you busy taking care of ”可知，老人一直在照料花朵。take care of“照料”符合。keeps clear of避开；pays attention to注意；is interested in对……感兴趣，均不符合。 【22题详解】 句意：看着美丽的花朵，他自言自语道。 根据下文“at the beautiful flowers”可知，look at为固定搭配，意为“看着”，符合年轻人欣赏花朵的语境。 【23题详解】 句意：要是我能住在这个美丽的地方，我会多么幸福啊。 根据“I could live in this beautiful place.”可知，此处表示假设情况，“如果”能住在这里会很幸福，if“如果”引导条件状语从句。 【24题详解】 句意：然后，他突然发现老园丁是个盲人。 根据“You can’t see these flowers.”可知，老园丁看不见，所以是盲的（blind）。 【25题详解】 句意：这就是为什么他对这件事感到非常惊讶。 根据语境，发现盲人却在照顾看不见的花，这是一件令人惊讶的（surprised）事。worried担心的；excited激动的；bored无聊的，情感色彩不符。 【26题详解】 句意：为什么你每天都忙着照顾它们呢？ 根据上文“these flowers”可知，此处指代复数名词花朵，应用宾格them。 【27题详解】 句意：我可以告诉你四个原因。 根据下文列举的“First... Second... Third... As to the last one”可知，一共提到了四个原因。 【28题详解】 句意：第二，虽然我看不见这些花，但我可以触摸它们。 根据“You can’t see these flowers.”可知，他无法看见（see）花朵，与后文touch形成对比。 【29题详解】 句意：第三，我可以享受它们的美妙气味。 根据常识，花朵散发香气，盲人可以通过嗅觉享受气味（smell）。look样子；taste味道；sound声音，不符合花的气味特征。 【30题详解】 句意：但是花是每个人的天使。 根据“Happiness can be brought by beautiful flowers”可知，此处指花（flowers）能带来幸福，是天使。 【31题详解】 句意：美丽的花朵能带来幸福，我们都喜欢。 根据“angels (天使) to everyone”可知，人们面对带来幸福的花朵，自然是享受（enjoy）或喜欢这种感觉。 【32题详解】 句意：这位看不见的老人的工作打开了我们的眼界，也愉悦了我们的心灵。 根据“It also made his life happier”可知，老人的行为是积极正面的，应是愉悦（pleased）心灵，与opened our eyes并列。 【33题详解】 句意：它也让他的生活更快乐、更幸运。 根据“It also made his life happier”可知，此处说的是花朵对老人的积极影响，luckier“更幸运的”符合幸福生活的语境。 【34题详解】 句意：贝多芬自己听不到他美妙的音乐，但他的音乐教会了许多人勇敢地面对困难。 根据“He became deaf”可知，贝多芬失聪，无法听见（hear）音乐。其他选项不符合失聪特征。 【35题详解】 句意：贝多芬自己听不到他美妙的音乐，但他的音乐教会了许多人勇敢地面对困难。 根据“face their difficulties”可知，面对困难通常需要勇敢地（bravely）去克服，符合贝多芬精神的激励作用。 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 请从方框内选择适当的词，并根据需要用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 up little science plan resolution physical we improve foreign tradition I am Linda. We talked about our ____36____ for the coming New Year yesterday. Susan is going to study another ____37____ language. She may learn Chinese because she likes Chinese ____38____ culture very much. Lucy’s resolution is about ____39____ health. So she is going to exercise three or four times a week to keep healthy. Jack likes math. His dream is to be a great ____40____ when he grows up. Tom wants to be a driver in the future. And he expects that there will be ____41____ pollution than before. I’m going to take ____42____ a new hobby and I ____43____ to write articles every day. Maybe I can be a reporter in the future. We know it’s hard to keep them, but we are going to try ____44____ best. The most important thing is to keep ____45____ ourselves and do it step by step. 【答案】36. resolutions 37. foreign 38. traditional 39. physical 40. scientist 41. less 42. up 43. plan 44. our 45. improving 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了Linda和朋友们分享的新年计划，不同的人有着不同的目标：有人计划学习外语、有人注重身体健康、有人为梦想努力，大家都表示会尽力坚持，一步步实现目标。 【36题详解】 句意：昨天我们谈论了即将到来的新年的计划/决心。“our”后需接名词复数，结合语境，选项“resolution”的复数形式“resolutions”符合语义，意为“决心/计划”，表示大家的新年目标。 【37题详解】 句意：Susan打算学习另一门外语。“language”前需用形容词修饰，结合语境，选项“foreign”符合语义，构成“foreign language”的固定搭配，意为“外语”。 【38题详解】 句意：她可能会学中文，因为她非常喜欢中国传统文化。“culture”前需用形容词修饰，结合语境，选项“tradition”的形容词形式“traditional”符合语义，意为“传统的”，描述中国文化。 【39题详解】 句意：Lucy的决心和身体健康有关。“health”前需用形容词修饰，结合语境，选项“physical”符合语义，构成“physical health”的固定搭配，意为“身体健康”。 【40题详解】 句意：Jack喜欢数学，他的梦想是长大后成为一名科学家。“a great”后需接名词，结合语境，选项“science”的名词形式“scientist”符合语义，意为“科学家”，表示他的职业目标。 【41题详解】 句意：Tom希望未来的污染比以前更少。“pollution”前需用形容词比较级修饰，结合语境，选项“little”的比较级形式“less”符合语义，意为“更少的”，表示对未来环境的期望。 【42题详解】 句意：我打算培养一个新爱好，并且计划每天写文章。“take”后需用介词构成固定搭配，结合语境，选项“up”符合语义，构成“take up”的固定搭配，意为“开始做/培养（爱好）”。 【43题详解】 句意：我打算培养一个新爱好，并且计划每天写文章。句子缺少谓语动词，时态为一般现在时，主语为I，结合语境，选项“plan”符合语义，构成“plan to do sth.”的固定搭配，意为“计划做某事”。 【44题详解】 句意：我们知道坚持这些决心很难，但我们会尽我们最大的努力。“try”后需用形容词性物主代词构成固定搭配，结合语境，选项“we”的形容词性物主代词形式“our” 符合语义，构成“try one’s best”的固定搭配，意为“尽某人最大的努力”。 【45题详解】 句意：最重要的事情是不断提升自己，一步步去做。“keep”后需接动名词构成固定搭配，结合语境，选项“improve”的动名词形式“improving”符合语义，构成“keep doing sth.”的固定搭配，意为“持续做某事”，表示不断提升自己。 第二节 根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。（每空限填一词） You may like drinking milk and you may like reading books. But ____46____ you know the “milk book”? It’s a new book in Slovenia. ____47____ is a story on the box of milk, so people call it“milk book”. Bostjan Gorenc Pizzama writes the stories for the milk books. These days, most people play games on computers and mobile phones ____48____ spend their free time. They spend less time reading. The stories help parents develop the habit of reading bedtime stories to their children. They want to help people read more ____49____ this relaxing way. A cup of milk and a beautiful story can help people have ____50____ good sleep. People can buy the books in Slovenia now. 【答案】46. do 47. There 48. to 49. in 50. a 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了斯洛文尼亚的一种“牛奶书”——印在牛奶盒上的故事，旨在帮助人们通过这种轻松的方式多读书，并拥有好的睡眠。 【46题详解】 句意：但是你知道“牛奶书”吗？本句为一般疑问句，时态为一般现在时，主语为you，助动词应用do，构成“Do you know...?”结构。 【47题详解】 句意：牛奶盒上有一个故事，所以人们称之为“牛奶书”。此处表示“有”，为there be句型，主语a story为单数，且描述一般情况，应用There is，首字母大写。 【48题详解】 句意：如今大多数人都在电脑和手机上玩游戏来打发空闲时间。玩游戏的目的是为了打发时间，应用不定式to do结构作目的状语。 【49题详解】 句意：他们想通过这种轻松的方式帮助人们多读书。此处表示“通过某种方式”，应用介词in，“in this way”为固定搭配，表示“以这种方式”。 【50题详解】 句意：一杯牛奶和一个美丽的故事可以帮助人们拥有一个好的睡眠。sleep在此处为名词，表示“一段睡眠”，good以辅音音素开头，应用不定冠词a，“have a good sleep”为固定搭配，表示“睡个好觉”。 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Mom, our English teacher Spencer is leaving soon to go back to the US. We’re going to have a surprise party for him. B: That’s a good idea. ____51____? A: It’s on next Friday and I want to make Yunnan Rice Noodles for him. ____52____? B: Sure. First, you need to have rice noodles, chicken soup, lettuce and eggs. A: ____53____? B: Two eggs should be OK. A: Oh, there aren’t any eggs in the fridge. I have to go to the supermarket. Can you go with me tonight? B: Sorry, I’m going to the movies. A: ____54____? B: Your dad. It’s our 15th wedding anniversary. A: Well, I didn’t know that. I’ll ask Mary to go with me. Have a good time. B: ____55____. 【答案】51. When is it 52. Can you tell/teach me how to make them 53. How many eggs do I need 54. Who are you going with/Who will you go with 55. Thank you 【解析】 【导语】本文主要是孩子和妈妈的对话，孩子要为即将回国的英语老师举办惊喜派对，向妈妈请教制作云南米线的方法，并得知父母要庆祝结婚纪念日。 【51题详解】 孩子告知妈妈要为老师举办派对，下文回答时间是下周五。“When is it”用于询问派对时间，与下文回答衔接自然。 【52题详解】 孩子想为老师做云南米线，下文妈妈开始讲解所需材料。可用“Can you tell/teach me how to make them”请求妈妈教做法，符合对话逻辑。 【53题详解】 下文妈妈回答两个鸡蛋就够了。“How many eggs do I need”询问需要多少鸡蛋，与下文回答完全对应。 【54题详解】 妈妈说今晚要去看电影，下文回答和爸爸一起去。“Who are you going with/Who will you go with”询问和谁一起去，衔接顺畅。 【55题详解】 孩子祝福妈妈玩得开心，妈妈需要礼貌回应。“Thank you”表示感谢，符合交际场景。 六、书面表达（20分） 56. 随着科技的进步和社会的发展，我们的生活必将发生日新月异的变化。请你想象一下20年后的生活情景，以“My life in twenty years”为题，根据以下要点提示，写一篇80词左右的英语短文。 要点提示： (1) 居住地及其环境； (2) 业余活动； (3) 未来职业； (4)…… ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 My life in twenty years In twenty years, my life will be quite different. I’ll live in a beautiful house in the countryside. The environment there will be wonderful, with green trees, colorful flowers and fresh air. In my free time, I’ll go on a picnic with my family. We’ll enjoy the beautiful scenery there. Sometimes, I’ll also play tennis with my friends. As for my future career, I’ll be a doctor. I’ll help people get away from diseases. I believe I’ll lead a happy and meaningful life then. 【解析】 【详解】写作步骤 [第一步：审题立意] 明确文体：记叙文，以一般将来时为主 明确要点：描述二十年后的居住地与环境、业余活动、未来职业，表达对未来生活的期待 确定人称：第一人称 注意事项：要点完整，时态正确，语句通顺，想象合理，注意字数要求 [第二步：构思布局] 三段式结构 开头段：总写二十年后生活与现在不同，介绍居住地点和环境 主体段：描述空闲时间的业余活动 结尾段：介绍未来职业与理想，说明生活将幸福而有意义 [第三步：要点展开] 要点一：居住地及其环境 居住地：live in the countryside/beautiful house/live in a village/nice house/live in a quiet place/big house 环境：green trees/fresh air/green plants/clean air/beautiful nature/comfortable environment 要点二：业余活动 业余爱好：go on a picnic with family/enjoy the scenery/enjoy the peace/have a picnic with family/enjoy the beauty/enjoy the quiet life/take a walk/travel around/do some reading/spend time with family 要点三：未来职业 未来职业：be a doctor/help people/keep healthy/meaningful life/work as a doctor/help sick people/make people strong/valuable life/be a teacher/be a scientist/help others/serve people/have a great job 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2024-2025学年河南郑州枫杨外国语中学八上第二次月考试卷·英语 全卷总分：100分 考试时间：100分钟 一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. 1. Which city does Nick like best? A.New York. B.Shanghai. C.London. 2. Where are the two speakers talking? A.At home. B.In the restaurant. C.In the classroom. 3. What are they talking about? A.Their hobbies. B.Their dreams. C.Their problems. 4. Why does the man just want to stay at home? A.Because he is tired. B.Because he wants to read some books. C.Because he is ill. 5. What’s the weather like now? A.rainy. B.snowy. C.sunny. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 2. 1. What did the girl’s father do yesterday? A.He built their garden. B.He watched a basketball game. C.He took part in a basketball game. 2. How did the boy like the game? A.Boring. B.Exciting. C.Interesting. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 3. 1. What time should the girl be in the classroom? A.At 1:40p.m. B.At 2:00p.m. C.At 4:00p.m. 2. How much does the girl spend on her classes? A.$50. B.$100. C.$150. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 4. 1. How old was Sam when he started to play basketball? A.6. B.7. C.8. 2. Who does Sam always play basketball with after school? A.His classmates. B.His brother. C.His father. 3. When does Sam watch the NBA? A.Every weekend. B.Every Friday. C.Every Tuesday. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 5. 1. Who is not feeling well? A.Tom. B.Tom’s mother. C.Tom’s brother. 2. What didn’t Tom have for dinner yesterday? A.Potato chips. B.Sandwiches. C.Hamburgers. 3. What is the doctor’s advice? A.Having a good sleep. B.Taking some medicine. C.Eating a little for one day. 第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序，并将其标号填涂在答题卡的相应位置。短文读两遍。 6. A. B. C. D. E. ________ ________ ________ ________ ________ 二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 This is the third year of our cooking camp. It’s a great way to start cooking for yourself! Time: from 10 a.m. to 1 p.m., for three days from 28th to 30th, January Open to: boys and girls aged 11-14 years Price: $20 for one kind and $35 for two You can learn to make: cakes, pizza, sandwiches, turkey, pasta, bread Your teacher Marianne is a talented cook and she loves good food. She has got family from Spain, Turkey, Italy and Russia. Marianne loves and cooks food from all of those countries. Come and learn to cook with her. Our cooking camps are very popular, so please click HERE to sign up or call 8636564 to book your place. You must be 11-14years old. You must love food. You must wear a chef’s hat. (Don’t worry, we give you one.) You mustn’t be late. There is a lot to learn. 1. When is the cooking camp? A. In January. B. In May. C. In June. D. In October. 2. Who can take part in the cooking camp? A. A kind teacher. B. A loving mother. C. A talented cook. D. A 12-year-old boy. 3. What must teenagers do if they want to be in the cooking camp? A. They must pay $55. B. They must come on time. C. They must buy a chef’s hat. D. They must come for three afternoons. 4. How much do you need to pay if you learn to make three kinds of food? A. $10. B. $20. C. $35. D. $55. 5. You read this advertisement most probably ________. A. in a novel B. in a magazine C. on the Internet D. in a newspaper 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 Brian was a funny student. He loved watching comedies best and hoped to become a comedy actor one day. There was a talent show at his school. Brian decided to take part in it. He had never acted on stage (舞台) before, and he was very excited. But some students laughed at him. “You are not funny but silly,” Ken, one of his classmates, said to his face. “No one will like what you do.” Brian thought about giving up the show at first. But he remembered how much his friends liked his jokes, and also his teachers said he was very funny. So he decided to prepare for the show. Brian did a great job at the talent show. Everyone loved his performance, and he won the first prize! His teachers and friends were proud of him. Even so, Ken told Brian that he was not funny, and that he would never be successful. Brian didn’t understand why Ken said so, but he realized that it had nothing to do with him. He confidently continued to work towards his goal. As the years went on, Brian met more people like Ken. “You’ll do a terrible job,” they said to him. Luckily, most people encouraged him and some helped him to become even funnier. He got a lot of chances to perform in movies. He was even invited to appear on TV. His fans thanked him because his comedies made them feel good when they were unhappy. Now Brian is a big comedy star! He is doing what he loves best. He never feels stressed like those unkind people, and he laughs all day long! 6. What did Brian love best when he was a student? A. Going to school. B. Helping classmates. C. Watching comedies. D. Meeting new friends. 7. Why did Brian decide to prepare for the show? A. His friends liked his jokes. B. He was invited by a TV station. C. He wasn’t busy acting in movies. D. Ken was expecting his performance. 8. Brian’s fans thanked him because his comedies brought them ________. A. success B. happiness C. luck D. pride 9. What do you think of Brian? A. Positive and strong-willed. B. Friendly and shy. C. Helpless and creative. D. Serious and supportive. 10. The story wants to tell us we should ________. A. understand others B. become a teacher of acting C. encourage others to like comedies D. continue to work towards our goal 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 Have you ever heard that you should drink eight glasses, or about two liters of water every day? Lots of grown-ups try to drink so much water to stay healthy. But guess what? Scientists have found that there isn’t a magic number of glasses of water that’s perfect for everyone. In a big study, researchers checked out 5,600 people, from little kids who are just a week old to great-grandparents who are 96 years old! They wanted to find out about “water turnover,” which is an interesting way of saying how much water goes into our body and then comes out (like when we go to the bathroom). They discovered that everyone is different when it comes to how much water they need. This can depend on things like how old you are, how long you run and play, and whether you’re a boy or not. For example, young men around 20 to 35 years old need almost twice as much water as men who are in their nineties! Also, the scientists noticed that people who are really active and move around a lot need more water than people who don’t exercise much. And here’s a fun fact: the foods we eat also have water in them! The people who did this study think that most of us don’t really need to drink eight glasses of water every day. It turns out that our bodies are pretty good at telling us when we’re thirsty. So, the best thing to do is listen to your body and drink water when you feel thirsty. And don’t forget that having fun is also a great way to stay healthy, just like drinking water! 11. How does the writer lead into the topic? A. By listing facts. B. By asking a question. C. By telling a story. D. By giving an example. 12. Which of the following is TRUE about the study? A. It only studied young people. B. It lasted for almost twenty years. C. It found people’s need for water is different. D. It found the older people are, the more water they drink. 13. What can we learn from Paragraph 3? A. Exercising more is the best way to stay healthy. B. People should eat more fruits that are full of water. C. The water people need also comes from the foods they eat. D. Drinking enough water is more important than exercising. 14. ________ tell us when to drink water. A. The scientists. B. The teachers. C. Our bodies. D. Our parents. 15. What’s the best title for the text? A. Eight glasses of water a day is perfect! B. Want to stay healthy? Drink more water! C. When is the best time to drink water? D. Do we really need eight glasses of water a day? 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺，内容完整。 Two American astronauts went to the International Space Station for a test on 5th June. And they were expected to be back home in eight days at the beginning. ____16____ In fact, Barry Wilmore and Sunita Williams are still in space now. They have missed the summer and are even going to spend New Year in space. Mr. Wilmore, 61, and Ms. Williams, 58, flew a Boeing Starliner spacecraft (宇宙飞船) to the station. It was the first flight of its kind with astronauts. It was also a test planned to see how the new spacecraft worked before it was used more often. ____17____ The propulsion system (推进系统) and some other parts of the spacecraft stopped working. Although they have arrived at the space station luckily, they have to think about another plan to get home. ____18____ NASA officials are planning to return the two astronauts to Earth in February 2025. That flight to the space station will be made by a SpaceX Crew Dragon craft. The plan means the astronauts would spend more than eight months in space in total. And if the Crew Dragon is used, the Starliner craft would return to Earth without astronauts, under computer control. ____19____ The two astronauts said they were quite confident about the return trip and that Starliner was “truly good”. Ms. Williams said, “____20____ It feels good to be in space and work up here.” A. It feels like coming back home. B. But things didn’t quite go to plan. C. Problems, however, appeared on the way to the station. D. Because the spacecraft may not be able to take them back to Earth. E. NASA officials said it could take a week or more to make a final decision. 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A，B，C，D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 An old man lives in a nice house with a large garden. He ____21____ his flowers all the time. One day a young man went past the garden. ____22____ at the beautiful flowers, he said to himself, “How happy I would be ____23____ I could live in this beautiful place.” Then, suddenly he found the old gardener was ____24____. That’s why he was very ____25____ about this and asked, “You can’t see these flowers. Why are you busy taking care of ____26____ every day?” The old man smiled and said, “I can tell you ____27____ reasons. First, I was a gardener when I was young, and I really like this job. Second, although I can’t ____28____ these flowers, I can touch them. Third, I can enjoy the nice ____29____ of them. As to the last one, that’s you.” “Me? But you don’t know me,” said the young man. “Yeah, it’s true that I don’t know you. But ____30____ are angels (天使) to everyone. Happiness can be brought by beautiful flowers and we all ____31____ that.” The blind man’s work opened our eyes and ____32____ our hearts. It also made his life happier and ____33____. It was just like Beethoven. He became deaf in his later life and wrote many great musical works. Beethoven himself couldn’t ____34____ his wonderful music, but his music has taught lots of people to face their difficulties ____35____. Isn’t it one kind of happiness? 21. A. keeps clear of B. takes care of C. pays attention to D. is interested in 22. A. Shouting B. Laughing C. Pointing D. Looking 23. A. unless B. because C. if D. until 24. A. blind B. shy C. deaf D. sad 25. A. worried B. surprised C. excited D. bored 26. A. it B. him C. them D. you 27. A. four B. three C. five D. two 28. A. pick B. see C. feel D. understand 29. A. look B. taste C. smell D. sound 30. A. difficulties B. lives C. gardens D. flowers 31. A. study B. enjoy C. name D. notice 32. A. pleased B. protected C. hurt D. broke 33. A. harder B. cleverer C. easier D. luckier 34. A. imagine B. practice C. hear D. complete 35. A. gladly B. quietly C. bravely D. naturally 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 请从方框内选择适当的词，并根据需要用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 up little science plan resolution physical we improve foreign tradition I am Linda. We talked about our ____36____ for the coming New Year yesterday. Susan is going to study another ____37____ language. She may learn Chinese because she likes Chinese ____38____ culture very much. Lucy’s resolution is about ____39____ health. So she is going to exercise three or four times a week to keep healthy. Jack likes math. His dream is to be a great ____40____ when he grows up. Tom wants to be a driver in the future. And he expects that there will be ____41____ pollution than before. I’m going to take ____42____ a new hobby and I ____43____ to write articles every day. Maybe I can be a reporter in the future. We know it’s hard to keep them, but we are going to try ____44____ best. The most important thing is to keep ____45____ ourselves and do it step by step. 第二节 根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。（每空限填一词） You may like drinking milk and you may like reading books. But ____46____ you know the “milk book”? It’s a new book in Slovenia. ____47____ is a story on the box of milk, so people call it“milk book”. Bostjan Gorenc Pizzama writes the stories for the milk books. These days, most people play games on computers and mobile phones ____48____ spend their free time. They spend less time reading. The stories help parents develop the habit of reading bedtime stories to their children. They want to help people read more ____49____ this relaxing way. A cup of milk and a beautiful story can help people have ____50____ good sleep. People can buy the books in Slovenia now. 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Mom, our English teacher Spencer is leaving soon to go back to the US. We’re going to have a surprise party for him. B: That’s a good idea. ____51____? A: It’s on next Friday and I want to make Yunnan Rice Noodles for him. ____52____? B: Sure. First, you need to have rice noodles, chicken soup, lettuce and eggs. A: ____53____? B: Two eggs should be OK. A: Oh, there aren’t any eggs in the fridge. I have to go to the supermarket. Can you go with me tonight? B: Sorry, I’m going to the movies. A: ____54____? B: Your dad. It’s our 15th wedding anniversary. A: Well, I didn’t know that. I’ll ask Mary to go with me. Have a good time. B: ____55____. 六、书面表达（20分） 56. 随着科技的进步和社会的发展，我们的生活必将发生日新月异的变化。请你想象一下20年后的生活情景，以“My life in twenty years”为题，根据以下要点提示，写一篇80词左右的英语短文。 要点提示： (1) 居住地及其环境； (2) 业余活动； (3) 未来职业； (4)…… ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $