河北保定市博野中学等校创新班2025-2026学年高一下学期5月期中英语试题

25级创新班5月质量检测 高一英语 考生注意： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4．本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册 ～ 选择性必修第二册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. How does the man feel about his new job? A. Satisfied. B. Bored. C. Disappointed. 2. Where does this conversation most probably take place? A. At the train station. B. At the airport. C. At the bus stop. 3. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Friends. B. Waitress and customer. C. Coworkers. 4. What type of exercise does the man do the most? A. Lifting weights. B. Boxing. C. Jogging. 5. Which language can both the man and the woman speak? A. English. B. Chinese. C. Japanese. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段录音，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman ask Mr. Smith to do? A. Fill in a form. B. Pay $150 first. C. Have a conference. 7. How much should Mr. Smith pay in total for his stay? A. $150. B. $300. C. $450. 听第7段录音，回答第8、9题。 8. How long does Linda usually sleep every day? A. For about 6 hours. B. For about 7.5 hours. C. For about 8.5 hours. 9. What does Linda mention doing in the evening? A. Reading books. B. Meeting friends. C. Exercising at the gym. 听第8段录音，回答第10至12题。 10. What will the man do on Saturday? A. Play basketball. B. Do the housework. C. Go to a rock concert. 11. Where will Brian go on Sunday? A. To the park. B. To the hospital. C. To the man’s home. 12. What event will the woman attend on Sunday? A. A movie screening. B. A sports match. C. A get-together. 听第9段录音，回答第13至16题。 13. What happened to the woman’s telephone? A. It was lost. B. It was turned off. C. It was out of order. 14. Why did the man call the woman? A. To ask her to write a report. B. To inform her about changes. C. To remind her to pick up Ron. 15. Where is probably Ron now? A. At the exhibition. B. In the meeting room. C. In the sales department. 16. How will the speakers get to the Wilton? A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By taxi. 听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。 17. When does the Running of the Bulls festival take place? A. In June. B. In July. C. In August. 18. What is the speaker’s suggestion for travelers who want to save money? A. Stay at four-star hotels. B. Visit during the festival. C. Travel in non-festival weeks. 19. What can visitors see at the Museo de Navarra? A. Roman drawings. B. A famous church. C. Local beef recipes. 20. What is special about the Cathedral of St. Mary? A. It was built in the 11th century. B. It keeps the old part from the Middle Ages. C. It holds the biggest Spanish art collection. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Winter is a magical season, especially on the East Coast, where you can enjoy snowy mountains, warm beaches, and everything in between. Stowe, Vermont Stowe is known as the Ski Capital of the East. This small town in Vermont offers over 116 ski trails (道) at Stowe Mountain Resort, located on Mount Mansfield, the state’s highest mountain. After a day of outdoor fun, visit local shops and cafes. Stowe Bee Bakery & Cafe is famous for its sweet treats, while Harrison’s Restaurant serves delicious food. Savannah, Georgia Savannah is a perfect winter getaway with its pleasant temperatures and interesting history. The city’s Historic District features 22 oak (橡树)-covered public squares, including Forsyth Park, which has beautiful walking paths and a large fountain. Other attractions include the Victorian-style Bonaventure Cemetery and the Telfair Museums, the oldest public art museum group in the Southeast. Savannah is also a food lover’s paradise. The Grey offers seasonal dishes in a historic bus stop, while Mrs. Wilkes’ Dining Room is famous for Southern classics like fried chicken and cheese. Kennebunkport, Maine Kennebunkport is a scenic town just a short drive from Boston. In winter, it hosts the Christmas Prelude, an 11-day celebration with unique attractions like a tree made of lobster traps and light displays. For outdoor activities, you can snowshoe or cross-country ski at Harris Farms or hike through the scenic trails at Wells Preserve. If you need a break from the cold, visit the Maine Classic Car Museum or the Portland Museum of Art. Miami, Florida Miami is the perfect destination for those seeking warm weather in winter. With its sandy beaches and exciting city life, Miami offers a refreshing break from the cold. Visit the Art Deco District on South Beach, explore the Miami Design District with its high-end shops and galleries, or hike through the nearby Everglades National Park to spot unique wildlife. At night, enjoy the city’s lively bars and restaurants. 21. What can visitors do in Savannah according to the text? A. Enjoy Southern classic food. B. Watch light displays. C. Ski on 116 trails. D. Visit the Portland Museum of Art. 22. What is the main attraction of Kennebunkport during winter? A. The Telfair Museums. B. Victorian-style Bonaventure Cemetery. C. High-end shops in the Design District. D. The Christmas Prelude celebration. 23. Where can visitors see unique wildlife? A. At Wells Preserve. B. In Everglades National Park. C. At Stowe Mountain Resort. D. In Forsyth Park. B On a recent Saturday near Seattle, Cheryl Ewaldsen pulled three golden loaves of whole wheat bread from her oven. The bread was meant for a local food bank, which helps families struggling with hunger and rising grocery costs. “I got excited knowing it was going to someone who would make multiple sandwiches,” said Ewaldsen, a 75-year-old volunteer. She bakes (烘烤) for Community Loaves, a nonprofit that connects home bakers with food banks. Founded by Katherine Kehrli, a former cooking school director, the organization has donated over 200,000 loaves of fresh bread and 220,000 energy cookies. Its network includes nearly 900 bakers across Washington, Oregon, California, and Idaho, making it one of the largest such initiatives nationally. With rising food prices and national cuts to food aid programs, demand for food donations is greater than ever. “Most food banks don’t receive whole-grain bread,” Kehrli noted. “Their constant request is simply, ‘Bring us more.’” Ewaldsen’s bread goes to the Edmonds Food Bank, where the number of households served has nearly tripled in three years. Nationwide, over 50 million people rely on charitable food assistance annually. Anti-hunger experts expect the need to grow as government policies reducing food aid take effect. Unlike typical food bank bread (often highly processed), Community Loaves provides honey oat, whole wheat, and sunflower rye loaves, all made with whole grains. Recipients like Chris Redfearn, who used a food bank while seeking work, appreciated the quality. “It’s wholesome and matches healthy store-bought bread,” he said. While most food banks avoid homemade items, Community Loaves, operating under state rules, permits certain home-baked bread donations. Volunteers follow approved recipes, cover ingredient costs, and bake on a common schedule. For bakers like Ewaldsen, the act is both practical and meaningful. “It’s an opportunity to share with others and show they are cared for,” she said. However, experts like Gina Plata-Nino warn that while community efforts are beautiful, they cannot replace government services. “A loaf of bread will feed one person,” she noted, “but there are millions in line.” 24. What does Community Loaves do? A. Train bakers for cooking schools. B. Link home bakers with food banks. C. Teach cooking skills to volunteers. D. Sell whole-grain bread to food banks. 25. What is Chris Redfearn’s attitude towards Community Loaves’ work? A. Dissatisfied. B. Grateful. C. Doubtful. D. Unconcerned. 26. It can be inferred that Cheryl Ewaldsen . A. finds baking for others worthwhile B. works at a local cooking school C. bakes bread for personal profit D. relies on the food bank for meals 27. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To explain rising food prices nationwide. B. To encourage people to run food banks. C. To introduce an anti-hunger nonprofit. D. To advertise homemade whole-grain bread. C Climate leaders around the world are now accepting a serious fact: Earth’s average temperature is likely to go past the important 1.5°C limit set by the 2015 Paris Agreement. But this does not mean they are giving up. Instead, they are talking more about a plan called “overshoot”. This means the temperature might rise above the limit for a while, but then through strong efforts, it would be brought back down to a safer level. The 1.5-degree mark is not just a goal; scientists see it as a critical boundary. Going beyond it greatly increases dangers. These include the large-scale loss of coral reefs (珊瑚礁), more common and severe heatwaves, and the risk of setting off big, possibly permanent changes in Earth’s systems. These changes could include the melting (融化) of huge ice sheets in Greenland or major damage to the Amazon rainforest. Recently, leaders from the United Nations have changed their message. While they once insisted staying below 1.5 degrees was possible, they now say a temporary overshoot is likely. However, they stress that we must not accept this as a permanent situation. The goal is to cool the planet down again after the overshoot. This idea of overshoot is now a practical backup plan. It relies on two key measures. First, the world must quickly cut the pollution that causes warming by moving to cleaner energy sources. Second, we need to use and develop technology that can pull the harmful gases already in the air back out. Even if the world does its best to cut pollution, estimates indicate that temperatures could still go past 1.5 degrees around 2030, possibly reaching a maximum of 1.7 degrees before starting to fall back down around the 2060s. The length of time and the height of the temperature increase during this overshoot period matter a great deal. The higher and longer the overshoot, the more damage we can expect. Although the chance to avoid overshooting completely has probably passed, the 1.5-degree limit remains the essential guide for all climate actions to prevent the worst outcomes for our planet. 28. What does paragraph 2 mainly discuss? A. Causes of coral reef and ice sheet loss. B. The global average temperature. C. Risks of going beyond the 1.5°C limit. D. The temperature limit in Paris Agreement. 29. What can we infer from paragraph 3? A. Natural factors drive temperature rise. B. Global climate efforts prove successful. C. The 1.5℃ goal is no longer worth achieving. D. UN leaders once denied the possibility of overshoot. 30. What are the two key actions that support the overshoot plan? A. Develop energy and limit temperature rise. B. Protect forests and reduce heatwaves. C. Save coral reefs and stop ice melting. D. Cut pollution and remove harmful gases. 31. Why does the length of the overshoot period matter? A. Longer overshoot means more damage. B. It affects Paris Agreement’s authority. C. It decides ice sheet melting speed. D. Shorter overshoot needs less clean energy. D In today’s automated industries, robots and humans are working together more closely than ever. Imagine a busy auto factory: a robot fits together car doors at high speed, while a human technician checks each one for quality. This partnership combines the accuracy and strength of machines with the judgment and adaptability of people. Yet as collaboration increases, so do the risks. Human unpredictability, errors, or miscommunication can lead to situations that robots are not programmed to handle — sometimes with serious outcomes. To tackle this challenge, researchers are developing new ways to help robots operate safely and effectively around humans. A team at the University of Colorado Boulder, led by Professor Morteza Lahijanian, has created algorithms (算法) that allow robots to assess and manage risks in real time. “How do we advance from structured, robot-only settings to unstructured environments full of uncertainty and people?” Lahijanian asked. When working with a person, a robot predicts likely human actions and adjusts its behavior accordingly. “A robot must be able to interact, take risks, and decide how much risk is acceptable,” Lahijanian explained. The researchers turned to game theory — a mathematical tool from economics that treats each robot as a player in a game where the goal is to complete a task. Since human behavior makes the outcome unpredictable, the team introduced “admissible strategies”. Rather than maximizing its chance of completing the task, these strategies help the robot minimize harm and avoid actions it may regret later. This approach emphasizes safety without sacrificing (牺牲) efficiency. For instance, if a human in an auto factory makes repeated mistakes, the robot can safely correct the errors or move the task to a safer location. Just as a chess player thinks several moves ahead, the robot anticipates human actions and acts to prevent accidents. Lahijanian stressed, “Successful collaboration requires the robot to adapt to the human — not the other way around.” This flexibility enables robots to work with both beginners and experts. Beyond industrial production, such systems can be used in healthcare — where robots could assist nurses with medication delivery — or in construction, where they could perform heavy lifting while humans handle precision work. Agriculture may also benefit, with robots harvesting crops at scale as farmers focus on sustainability. 32. Why is the auto factory mentioned in the first paragraph? A. To illustrate human-robot collaboration. B. To promote robot-only production. C. To show robots’ speed advantages. D. To prove quality checks are not reliable. 33. What can be learned about the new algorithms? A. They emphasize speed over safety. B. They rely on fixed human behaviors. C. They work best with predictable humans. D. They adapt to unstructured environments. 34. What does the underlined phrase “admissible strategies” in paragraph 4 refer to? A. Plans to maximize task wins. B. Actions to control humans. C. Methods for minimizing harm. D. Rules to avoid human errors. 35. What does the author want to explain in the last paragraph? A. Farmers’ focus on sustainability. B. The system’s wide application. C. Nurses’ need for medication delivery. D. The requirements for flexible robots. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 If you want to develop more confident body language or improve your ability to read other people’s nonverbal communication, the following tips can help. 36 . Notice the gestures you use when you’re happy or when you’re upset. Think about how you change the tone of your voice depending on the emotions you are feeling. Being aware of your own nonverbal communication is the first step to changing the ones you want to change. Look for inconsistencies (不一致). Do your friends say that they’re fine, then shut the door violently to show that they’re upset? 37 ? Both can be signs of feeling a certain way but not yet being ready to admit or discuss it. Become a student of others. It can also be helpful to see how others communicate nonverbally. What do their facial expressions say? What type of gestures do they use? Becoming familiar with their nonverbal communication patterns helps you recognize when they might be feeling a certain way quicker. 38 . Ask before you assume. 39 . They can also vary based on someone’s personality. Before assuming that a person’s body language or tone actually means, ask. “I notice that you won’t look me in the eye when we speak. 40 ?” Give them the opportunity to explain how they are feeling so you know for sure. A. Are you upset with me B. Pay attention to your own behavior C. This can give those around them mixed messages D. Or do they shake their head when they are saying yes E. Do you want other people to know exactly how you’re feeling F. It may also help you recognize nonverbal behavior you may want to adopt G. Some nonverbal communication can mean different things in different cultures 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Earlier this year, 7-year-old Adriana suffered a serious injury in an accident. One of the first to 41 to her side was Ricky Powell, a rescue worker from Douglas County Fire / EMS. During those key first moments, Ricky stayed 42 and kept focused on giving Adriana the immediate care she 43 . From that day on, the two became 44 . Weeks later, it was Adriana’s first day back to school — a day she had eagerly looked forward to after weeks of 45 . To her great surprise, Ricky appeared at the school gate as she 46 up with her mom. Several teachers nearby also 47 to watch, smiling at the heartwarming scene. This time, he didn’t 48 any medical supplies. Instead, he held a handful of bright flowers, some small toys as 49 , and flashed a big, warm smile. A week earlier, Ricky had 50 Adriana’s mom about her favorite things, just to make her return to school a little more 51 . As soon as Adriana saw Ricky, her face 52 . “Mr. Ricky!” she called out 53 . She let go of her mom’s hand and ran toward him, her eyes filled with happiness. She 54 her arms around him, and Ricky gently patted (拍) her back, saying, “Welcome back to school, Adriana.” In that moment, Adriana could 55 how much care Ricky had for her — far more than just the help he’d provided before. 41. A. point B. shout C. fall D. rush 42. A. ashamed B. annoyed C. calm D. thankful 43. A. recognized B. needed C. refused D. missed 44. A. roommates B. cousins C. friends D. classmates 45. A. reflection B. hesitation C. uncertainty D. recovery 46. A. walked B. caught C. teamed D. rolled 47. A. gathered B. pretended C. struggled D. promised 48. A. borrow B. waste C. carry D. hide 49. A. tools B. gifts C. rewards D. symbols 50. A. asked B. reminded C. informed D. warned 51. A. reasonable B. special C. flexible D. adventurous 52. A. tightened up B. clouded over C. cooled down D. lit up 53. A. excitedly B. worriedly C. nervously D. roughly 54. A. waved B. touched C. threw D. cleaned 55. A. prove B. express C. doubt D. feel 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The second China-Australia Dialogue Exhibition, 56 (title) “Postcards from China: An Artistic Odyssey”, opened at the China Cultural Centre in Sydney on August 28, attracting around 110 attendees from the cultural, artistic 57 media circles of the two countries. The opening ceremony featured a 58 (wonder) performance of guzheng solo High Mountains and Flowing Water, one of China’s ten great ancient 59 (piece), and Eugène Ysaye’s Violin Sonata No. 2, Op. 27. Co-organized 60 the centre, the Australian Watercolor Institute and Guangxi Arts University, the exhibition featured 40 works by 10 Chinese and Australian artists that explore themes of cultural integration and exchange. Wang Shuyu, cultural counselor of the Chinese Consulate General in Sydney, highlighted the unique power of art in crossing borders and 61 (build) friendship between the two countries. “These creations are not 62 (mere) paintings on paper; they’re like postcards carrying stories, dreams and hopes between the two nations,” she said. David van Nunen, president of the Australian Watercolor Institute, 63 (stress) the exhibition’s role in showcasing the outcomes of a visit to China by Australian artists, 64 lasted from August last year to July this year. “We are devoted to advancing cross-cultural exchanges and look forward to deeper cooperation with China not only 65 (open) up more spaces for artistic creation, but also to build a closer emotional bond between artists from both sides,” he said. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你校拟举办首届“校园急救大赛（Campus First-Aid Contest）”，现面向全体学生征集活动方案。请你给校学生会负责人Peter写一封建议信，内容包括： 1．你的想法； 2．你的理由。 注意：1．写作词数应为 80 个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Peter, _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Best regards, Li Hua 第二节（满分 25 分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 At just nine years old, my life got really messed up. My dad, who was a doctor, suddenly lost his job at a local hospital. This one bad thing hit our family hard and turned our once-stable life upside down. Because we couldn’t pay the mortgage (贷款), we had to leave our nice house. Our new home became a small truck that we used to take out only for nice weekend camping trips. I had to quickly leave my private school, and my parents started the tough job of teaching me at home. Life in the truck was really tough. Space was super tight. The first time our whole family — Mom, Dad, and I — sat on the small couch that became my parents’ bed at night, we felt uncomfortable. We spent many days and nights driving around, really trying hard to find safe and legal places to park our mobile home. At one really bad time, we had no choice but to park in a far-away, lonely lot on the edge of town, far from the nice things in town. The situation was really tough. As the last bit of our small amount of food — just a single piece of fried chicken — was cooked on the stovetop, we could feel how bad things were. My mom, with a worried look on her face, sat at the small table. She knew our food was almost consumed, so she started writing a shopping list. Even though things seemed hopeless, our family didn’t want to just sit around and wait for help from others. Instead, we decided to do something by ourselves to get through this hard time. One day, when I was helping my dad clean the old, dusty truck, I found an old box full of things we could recycle — empty cans, glass bottles, and some scrap metal. We took them to the recycling center. The money we got, even though it wasn’t a lot, was a nice addition to our small amount of money for food. This small act of mine inspired my mom, who had always been a full-time housewife and was good at baking, to use her skills to make money. 注意：1．续写词数应为 150 个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Every day, she would rise early and get down to work. _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting. _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $写作的评分细则 第一节（满分15分） (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次， 最后给分。 3.词数少于60的，酌情扣分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(13~15分) 一完全完成试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用 能力。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档(1012分)》 完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉1~2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到预期的写作目的。 第三档(7~9分) 基本完成试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档(4~6分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 -信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档(1一3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 语法结构单调，词汇有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分25分） (一)评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调 整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于130或多于170的，从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： (1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； (2)内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况： (3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； (4)上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼 写及词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 (二)各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(21~25分) 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档(16~20分) 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档(1115分) 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档(6~10分) 与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档(1一5分) 一与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。这是英语科听力部分，请看听力部分第一节。第一节听下面五段录音，每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。听下面的录音，回答第一小题。how do you like your new job? Charly. well, the pay is good, and I don't have to work along hours every day. I don't think I can find a Better one. How do you like your new job? charly? Well, the pay is good, and I don't have to work along hours every day. I don't think I can find a Better one. 听下面的录音，回答第二小题。excuse me, can I get back my money for my ticket? I have to cancel my trip because I have something important to deal with. IT is train number twenty nine and will leave in four hours. IT is not too late. Pass your ticket to me. Please . excuse me, can I get back my money for my ticket? I have to cancel my trip because I have something important to deal with. IT is train number twenty nine and will leave in four hours. IT is not too late. Pass your ticket to me, please. 听下面的录音，回答第三小题。I'll have a glass of wine, please, and my friend will have a beer. Would you like them now or during your meal? Bring them to us now, please. I'll have a glass of wine, please, and my friend will have a beer. Would you like them now or during your meal? Bring them to us now, please. 听下面的录音，回答第四小题。what kind of exercise do you usually do when you go . to the gym? Well, I lift weights once a week, and I practice boxing a little less often. I also go jogging twice a week. What kind of exercise do you usually do when you go . to the gym? Well, I lift weights once a week, and I practice boxing a little less often. I also go jogging twice a week. 听下面的录音，回答第五小题。can you speak french? Yes, of course it's my native language. I can also speak english, japanese. What about you? I can speak english and chinese. Can you speak french? Yes, of course it's my native language. I can also speak english and japanese. What about you? I can speak english and chinese. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间，每段录音播放两遍。听下面的录音，回答第六和第七小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hello, my name is tom smith. I have a reservation . one second, please. I, yes, mr. Smith, coming here for a business conference on twenty fifth, three nights in a single room. right? That's right. okay. Would you fill in this form with your name, address and phone number. please? Okay, here you go. thanks. So you should pay one hundred and fifty dollars first per night. And you're in room four of six. And the conference room is on the first floor. Hello, my name is tom smith. I have a reservation . one second, please. I, yes, mr. Smith, coming here for a business conference on twenty fifth, three nights in a single room. right? That's right. OK. Would you fill in this form with your name, address and phone number. please? Okay, here you go. thanks. So you should pay one hundred and fifty dollars per night, and you're in room four o six. And the conference room is on the first floor. 听下面的录音，回答第八和第九小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Linda, tell me something about your . daily live. Well, i'm a nurse. I start work at eleven at night. I work until seven AM. Sometimes I feel tired and sleepy. Wow, so what time do you get up? I get home at eight AM, and I usually go to bed at about eight thirty AM, and I sleep until four P. M. And what do you do in the evening? You know, I have dinner. Watch T, V, C, friends. It's a great schedule for me. Linda, tell me something about your . daily live. Well, i'm a nurse. I start work at eleven at night. I work until seven AM. Sometimes I feel tired and sleepy. Wow, so what time do you get up? I get home at AA, M, and I usually go to bed at about eight thirty A, M, and I sleep until four P. M. And what do you do in the evening? You know, I have dinner. Watch T, V, C, friends. It's a great schedule for me. 听下面的录音，回答第十至第十二小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。I'm going to a rock concert in the park on saturday. It's free. How about you? I want to do the housework in the morning, and brian and I are going to see a basketball game in the afternoon. And what are you going to do on sunday? Brian is going to visit his mother in the hospital. But i'm not going to do anything really. I'll read a book at home. I'm going to have some friends over for a barbecue in my back garden. Would you . like to come? thanks. I'd love to. I'm going to a rock concert in the park on saturday. It's free. How about you? I want to do the housework in the morning, and brian and I are going to see a basketball game in the afternoon. And what are you going to do on sunday? Brian is going to visit his mother in the hospital, but i'm not going to do anything really. I read a book at home. I'm going to have some friends over for a barbecue in my back garden. Would you like to come? thanks. I'd love you. 听下面的录音，回答第十三至第十六小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Hello, four, four, two, one. Thank goodness . i've got hold of you at last. I've been trying to reach you all morning. There is something wrong with the telephone. What's the matter? There have been some changes to the fact. I OK wait a moment. I'll get a pen and paper so I can pass on the information to run. He's gone to the sales department, but he'll be back here to have a meeting later. Okay, i'm ready. You'll need more copies of the report to hand out. How many have you got? Exactly fifty. Well. according to my information, there will be ten more people attending the exhibition, so you'll have to make up . the difference. Fine, I can do that. And how are we getting to the wilton? There is a regular bus service from the station, but I think I might be safer for us to take a taxi. IT shouldn't cost much. Couldn't we walk? I mean, it's not far good idea. Okay, please tell, ran the information and . see you later. Okay, bye, hello. Four, four, two, one. Thank goodness . i've got hold of you at last. I've been trying to reach you all morning. There is something wrong with the telephone. What's the matter? There have been some changes to the fact I sent OK. Wait a moment, i'll get a pen and paper so I can pass on the information to run. He's gone to the sales department, but he'll be back here to have a meeting later. Okay, i'm ready. You'll need more copies of the report to hand out. How many have you got? Exactly fifty. Well. according to my information, there will be ten more people attending the exhibition, so you'll have to make up the difference. Fine, I can do that. And how are we getting to the wilton? There is a regular bus service from the station, but I think IT might be safer for us to take a taxi. IT shouldn't cost much. Couldn't we walk? I mean, it's not far good idea. Okay, please tell ron the information . and see you later. Okay, bye. 听下面的录音，回答第十七至第二十小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。When travel agents mentioned pump ona, spain, most travellers think of the famous festival during the second week in july, known as the running of the balls. This festival started in the midnight ages when butchers needed to get their meat to the market. Long ago, these meat sellers would drive the cattle in front of them through the narrow streets to the marketplace. If you want to save money, come to pamplona. Any of the other fifty one weeks of the year, you are sure to find plenty to do. Treat yourself to a five star meal, watering local beef, and of course, wine. And if you're interested in history, you'll probably enjoy the mozilo a, the local museum. The building was a hospital in the middle ages, and IT now houses a unique collection, including everything from roman drawings to modern spanish. No trip to spain would be complete without a visit to a church. So you want to save some time for the cathedral of saint mary. The outside was built in the eighteen century, but the heart of the church is from the later part of the middle ages. Now, who is ready to book their vacation of a lifetime? When travel agents mentioned pamplona, spain, most travellers think of the famous festival during the second week in july, known as the running of the balls. This festival started in the middle ages, when which needed to get their meat to the market. Long ago, these meat sellers would drive the cattle in front of them through the narrow streets to the marketplace. If you want to save money, come to pamplona. Any of the other fifty one weeks of the year, you are sure to find plenty to do. Treat yourself to a five star meal, features local beef and of course, wine. And if you're interested in history, you'll probably enjoy the muzzle deaveri, the local museum. The building was a hospital in the middle ages, and IT now houses a unique collection, including everything from roman drawings to modern spanish art. No trip to spain would be complete without a visit to a church. So you want to save some time for the cathedral of saint mary. The outside was built in the eighteen century, but the heart of the church is from the later part of the middle ages. Now who is ready to book their vacation of a lifetime? 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 25级创新班5月质量检测·高一英语 参考答案、提示及评分细则 听力部分录音稿 (Text 1) W: How do you like your new job, Charlie? M: Well, the pay is good and I don’t have to work long hours every day. I don’t think I can find a better one. (Text 2) W: Excuse me. Can I get back my money for my ticket? I have to cancel my trip because I have something important to deal with. It is Train No. 29 and will leave in four hours. M: It is not too late. Pass your ticket to me, please. (Text 3) M: I’ll have a glass of wine please, and my friend will have a beer. W: Would you like them now or during your meal? M: Bring them to us now, please. (Text 4) W: What kind of exercise do you usually do when you go to the gym? M: Well, I lift weights once a week, and I practice boxing a little less often. I also go jogging twice a week. (Text 5) W: Can you speak French? M: Yes, of course. It’s my native language. I can also speak English and Japanese. What about you? W: I can speak English and Chinese. (Text 6) M: Hello, my name is Tom Smith. I have a reservation. W: One second, please. Ah, yes, Mr. Smith, coming here for a business conference on 25th. Three nights in a single room, right? M: That’s right. W: OK. Would you fill in this form with your name, address and phone number, please? M: OK. Here you go. W: Thanks. So you should pay $150 per night. And you’re in Room 406, and the conference room is on the first floor. (Text 7) M: Linda, tell me something about your daily life. W: Well, I’m a nurse. I start work at 11:00 at night. I work until 7:00 am. Sometimes I feel tired and sleepy. M: Wow, so what time do you get up? W: I get home at 8:00 am and I usually go to bed at about 8:30 am. And I sleep until 4:00 pm. M: And what do you do in the evening? W: You know, I have dinner, watch TV, see friends… It’s a great schedule for me. (Text 8) M: I’m going to a rock concert in the park on Saturday. It’s free. How about you? W: I want to do the housework in the morning. And Brian and I are going to see a basketball game in the afternoon. M: And what are you going to do on Sunday? W: Brian is going to visit his mother in the hospital. But I’m not going to do anything really. I’ll read a book at home. M: I’m going to have some friends over for a barbecue in my back garden. Would you like to come? W: Thanks. I’d love to. (Text 9) W: Hello. 4421. M: Thank goodness I’ve got hold of you at last. I’ve been trying to reach you all morning. W: There’s something wrong with the telephone. What’s the matter? M: There’ve been some changes to the fax I sent. W: OK. Wait a moment, I’ll get a pen and paper so I can pass on the information to Ron. He’s gone to the sales department, but he’ll be back here to have a meeting later. OK. I’m ready. M: You’ll need more copies of the report to hand out. How many have you got? W: Exactly fifty. M: Well, according to my information, there’ll be ten more people attending the exhibition, so you’ll have to make up the difference. W: Fine, I can do that. And how are we getting to the Wilton? M: There’s a regular bus service from the station but I think it might be safer for us to take a taxi. It shouldn’t cost much. W: Couldn’t we walk? I mean, it’s not far. M: Good idea. OK. Please tell Ron the information and see you later. W: OK, bye. (Text 10) W: When travel agents mention Pamplona, Spain, most travelers think of the famous festival during the second week in July, known as the Running of the Bulls. This festival started in the Middle Ages when butchers needed to get their meat to the market. Long ago, these meat sellers would drive the cattle in front of them through the narrow streets to the marketplace. If you want to save money, come to Pamplona any of the other 51 weeks of the year. You are sure to find plenty to do. Treat yourself to a five-star meal featuring local beef and, of course, wine. And if you’re interested in history, you’ll probably enjoy the Museo de Navarra, the local museum. The building was a hospital in the Middle Ages, and it now houses a unique collection including everything from Roman drawings to modern Spanish art. No trip to Spain would be complete without a visit to a church, so you’ll want to save some time for the Cathedral of St. Mary. The outside was built in the 18th century, but the heart of the church is from the later part of the Middle Ages. Now, who is ready to book their vacation of a lifetime? 参考答案 1 ~ 5 AABCA 6 ~ 10 ACBBC 11 ~ 15 BCCBC 16 ~ 20 ABCAB 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. F 39. G 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. titled 57. and 58. wonderful 59. pieces 60. by 61. building 62. merely 63. stressed 64. which 65. to open 第一节 One possible version: Dear Peter, I’m eager to offer suggestions for the upcoming Campus First-Aid Contest. Firstly, include both theoretical and practical parts. The theoretical part can cover basic first-aid concepts, while the practical part can have students perform CPR or bandage wounds. This comprehensive approach ensures students truly master skills. Secondly, invite medical experts as judges. Their professional and detailed feedback can help students improve significantly. I hope these suggestions will help make the Campus First-Aid Contest a great success and benefit all participants. Thank you for considering my ideas. Best regards, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Every day, she would rise early and get down to work. She looked through our small kitchen cabinet for ingredients and experimented with new recipes, making the most of what little we had. As word spread in the local community about her delicious treats, more and more people came to buy. She even started taking special orders for birthdays and small gatherings. The income from her baking steadily grew, providing a much-needed boost to our finances. My dad, on the other hand, never gave up on his job-hunting. He expanded his search area, applying to hospitals not only in our town but also in neighboring cities. He networked with old friends and colleagues, constantly asking for referrals. Finally, after countless interviews and rejections, his perseverance paid off. A hospital a few towns away offered him a position as a traveling doctor. The moment he got the call, joy filled our truck. This new job not only brought in a stable income but also hope for a brighter future. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $