内容正文:
2026年九年级第二次教学质量调研
英语参考答案及评分细则
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
I-III. 1-15 BBAAB ACBCB CACCA
IV. 16. deer 17. time 18. three/3 19. quickly 20. understood
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分30分)
V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21-25 DBABD 26-30 CACBA
VI.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
31-35 DBBAA 36-40 DABDC 41-45 CBDAC 46-50 CDCCB
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分)
VII.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
51-55 BGADF
VIII.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
56-58 DAD 59-61 DCA 62-65 CBCB 66-68BBA
69-72 BACD
73. Four./4.(不超过5个词)
74. People with creative thinking.(不超过10个词)
75. We should be active, keep learning, be creative and honest in our life. / We should try to improve ourselves and be a valuable person.(不超过15个词)
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
76. hit 77. reduce 78. awful 79. lock 80. tastes
X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
参考范文:(略)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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2026年九年级第二次教学质量调研
英语试题卷
注意事项:1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分。考试时间为120分钟。
2.全卷共有试题卷8页,答题卷2页,请将答案填写在答题卷上。
3.考试结束后,请将试题卷和答题卷一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
I.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How is the weather?
A. B. C.
2. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. B. C.
3. When did the man wake up this morning?
A. At 8:30. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:30.
4. What did the man do last night?
A. Joined in a welcome party.
B. Said goodbye to the old friends.
C. Gave a lesson to some foreign students.
5. What does the girl’s father mean?
A. He will take the girl to the shop.
B. He can’t drive the girl to the shop.
C. He promises to go shopping with the girl.
II.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至7小题。
6. Which movie will they probably watch?
A. City Danger. B. Sky High in 2050. C. Neither of them.
7. What can we learn from the conversation?
A. Peter likes movies about future.
B. The new police story was filmed in ten countries.
C. The hero in City Danger used to work in a school.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。
8. What’s wrong with David?
A. He lost his guitar.
B. He fought with his friend.
C. He missed his birthday party.
9. Why is the guitar special to David?
A. It is very old.
B. It cost a lot of money.
C. It was a gift from his family.
10. How does David feel now?
A. Happy. B. Sorry. C. Angry.
III.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What is Huang Ying?
A. A sports coach. B. An online host. C. A university student.
12. What happened to Huang Ying two years ago?
A. She had a car accident.
B. She won a competition.
C. She started to make videos.
13. Who helped Huang Ying start exercising again this year?
A. Her doctors and nurses.
B. Her teachers and classmates.
C. Her family, friends and her dog.
14. Which word can best describe Huang Ying according to the text?
A. Wise. B. Strict. C. Positive.
15. What does Huang Ying encourage people to do?
A. To live an active life.
B. To keep pets like dogs.
C. To learn how to exercise.
IV.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
The Story of the King and the Artist
At first
The king asked an artist to paint him a 16 .
Then
The artist asked for some 17 to finish the work.
After that
● After waiting for 18 weeks, the king grew angry.
● The artist painted the picture 19 when the king asked for the painting.
Finally
The artist explained why he made the king wait. And the king 20 the artist’s words.
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分30分)
V.单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. A small act of kindness can make a ______ to the world. We should help people around us.
A. start B. reply C. journey D. difference
22. Mozart ______ many pieces of beautiful music. That’s why he is so famous.
A. heard B. created C. bought D. enjoyed
23. — The best things in life are free.
— Couldn’t agree more. Air costs ______, but we can’t live without it.
A. nothing B. anything C. something D. everything
24. Hefei Metro (轨道) Line 7 will be open in July 2026 and the line will make it ______ for us to travel around the city.
A. safer B. easier C. closer D. happier
25. “I love you” — three warm words. It’s hard to say them ______ they mean so much.
A. or B. so C. and D. but
26. It ______ heavily. We are going to get all wet walking outside.
A. rains B. rained C. is raining D. was raining
27. Some of the team thought Mary was better. The others ______ Lisa.
A. went with B. waited for C. laughed at D. played against
28. — Could you tell me _______ the AI app can do for us, sir?
— Sure. It can create music in your own style.
A. how B. when C. what D. where
29. Now many classic poems about the Long March _______ in class to celebrate its 90th anniversary (周年纪念) in 2026.
A. read B. are read C. were read D. will be read
30. — The accident happened so suddenly, and everyone was shocked.
— _______. We should always be careful in our daily life.
A. That’s too bad B. I don’t think so
C. It doesn’t matter D. You’re welcome
VI.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
A little stream (小溪) ran down from a high mountain through many villages and forests. Then it reached a (n) 31 . “I went through so many difficulties. I should have no problem crossing the desert,” she thought. As she started, she found herself slowly disappearing into the 32 . After many tries, she still 33 . “Maybe I can’t reach the ocean,” she said 34 to herself.
“If a breeze (微风) can cross, so can you,” said the desert in a deep voice. “But I can’t 35 ,” the little stream replied.
“That’s 36 you can’t give up what you are. Let yourself evaporate (蒸发) into the breeze, and it can take you across,” said the desert. “ 37 what I am now? No!” The little stream couldn’t accept this idea. “The breeze can carry your vapor (蒸汽) across as rain. And the rain will 38 a river again,” said the desert. “And whether you’re a river or vapor, your 39 never changes.” Hearing this, the little stream went with the breeze. It carried her to the 40 stage of her life.
Like the little stream, to achieve success, you should also change the way you are.
31. A. village B. forest C. ocean D. desert
32. A. air B. sand C. water D. cloud
33. A. tried B. failed C. cried D. succeeded
34. A. sadly B. softly C. loudly D. happily
35. A. fly B. run C. walk D. swim
36. A. why B. how C. when D. because
37. A. Give up B. Care about C. Look for D. Think about
38. A. find B. form C. follow D. pollute
39. A. size B. color C. name D. nature
40. A. first B. last C. next D. whole
B
The West Lake in Hangzhou attracts people all over the world. It is famous for its 41 beauty and bridges. Of all the bridges 42 the West Lake, the Broken Bridge is said to be the most famous. Every year, a lot of tourists come here to visit it. However, the name “Broken Bridge” does not mean the bridge is 43 . People named it because it 44 the end of the way that leads to Solitary Hill (孤山), a small hill close to the West Lake. And people 45 this name since the Tang Dynasty.
In the Song Dynasty, the Broken Bridge became a popular 46 for visitors. They would usually come to the West Lake in 47 to enjoy the beauty of the bridge. The beautiful sight of snow on the Broken Bridge has been 48 for centuries. And even today it is still 49 as a good example of harmonious (和谐的) beauty between architecture (建筑设计) and nature. Poems and 50 of old days helped to make a connection between the bridge and love. For example, the story of the White Snake and Xu Xian meeting on the Broken Bridge has made it an important symbol of love in Chinese culture.
41. A. strange B. modern C. natural D. man-made
42. A. in B. over C. under D. below
43. A. new B. old C. long D. broken
44. A. marks B. starts C. loses D. takes
45. A. used B. will use C. have used D. were using
46. A. park B. road C. sight D. station
47. A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter
48. A. quiet B. noisy C. famous D. different
49. A. used B. treated C. considered D. remembered
50. A. songs B. stories C. movies D. books
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分)
VII.补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Li Hua! Did you watch the World Team Table Tennis Championships last week?
B: Yes, of course! 51
A: Wow, you’re a big fan! 52
B: The women’s team beat Japan 3-2, and the men’s team won 3-0.
A: That’s so cool! 53
B: I think the reason is that they trained very hard and never gave up.
A: 54 Besides, they also have very strong team spirit.
B: Exactly. The spirit and teamwork made their success.
A: 55
B: That’s right! Let’s work hard and learn from them.
A. Why do you think they could win?
B. I watched every game of the Chinese teams.
C. I’m not interested in table tennis competitions.
D. I completely agree.
E. Do you know who the best player is?
F. They set a good example for us.
G. What were the results?
VIII.阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Here is a school trip plan for Grade 9 students. There are two interesting lines and many meaningful activities for them to choose.
56. What can students do in Tianshui?
A. Visit the museum. B. Plant trees. C. Make water rockets. D. Study paper cutting.
57. If Tom chooses Line 1, what is he probably interested in?
A. Space. B. Music. C. Culture. D. Climate.
58. When do the students learn about the stories of the Red Army in Hadapu?
A. On May 24th. B. On May 25th. C. On June 24th. D. On June 25th.
B
When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating, it is very dangerous and may cost the person’s life. At this moment, we can use an AED to save the person. AED is a small portable (便携式的) medical machine used to save people whose heart stops suddenly. It is widely placed in many public places and it is simple enough for common people to use. Just turn it on and follow the clear voice instructions step by step. Here are some key steps to follow.
①Place one pad onto the upper-right chest (胸膛). Place the other onto the lower-left chest.
②Connect the pads to the AED.
③Don't touch the patient! Wait for the result of the examination (检查).
④Press the button when a shock is advised.
⑤Give CPR (心肺复苏) if needed.
Remember: It’s best to treat the patient within the “Golden 4 Minutes”! Time matters! If an AED is not around, send someone to get one and give CPR while waiting. Don’t forget to call 120 to ask for professional (专业的) medical support in time.
59. When is an AED used?
A. When someone has a headache. B. When someone has a toothache.
C. When someone’s back suddenly hurts. D. When someone’s heart suddenly stops.
60. Where should the pads be placed on the patient?
A. B. C. D.
61. What’s the golden time to use an AED?
A. The first 4 minutes. B. The first 5 minutes. C. The first 6 minutes. D. The first 7 minutes.
C
Some people see oysters (牡蛎) as delicious food. But some raise oysters to clean up the polluted seawater. Amy, a winner of an oyster gardener prize, is one of them. She thinks oysters are really helpful and they are environmental stars.
“I knew nothing about oyster gardening before 2022. I learned all of this after I completed a free course. The course is about raising oysters in cages (笼子),” Amy says.
There used to be lots of oysters in coastal (沿海的) waters. But their numbers have diminished. This is mainly because of some natural disasters. Oyster gardening is a way to help.
“You don’t have to do a lot to take care of your oysters, but the influence they have on the environment is huge,” Amy says.
During the oyster gardening season, Amy goes to the beach. She pulls the cages from the water to check conditions of the oysters. “Once a week, I go out there,” she says.
This spring, Amy’s oysters will be big enough to be collected. So far, Amy has raised more than 1,500 oysters. She’s a great leader of oyster gardening.
62. What does Amy think of oysters?
A. Huge. B. Clean. C. Helpful. D. Delicious.
63. What does the underlined word “diminished” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Grown. B. Fallen. C. Disappeared. D. Remained.
64. Why does Amy pull the cages out of water weekly?
A. To feed the oysters. B. To mix the oysters.
C. To check the oysters. D. To name the oysters.
65. What is the best title for the text?
A. A Cage Maker B. An Oyster Gardener
C. An Oyster Festival D. An environmental Prize
D
It was very dark outside. I cooked noodles again, but my dad still didn’t come back. He worked as a forest ranger (护林员). In the morning, he told me he would check the new small trees. The wind was blowing hard and making a loud noise, like an animal. I stood at the door and called him, but he didn’t answer.
“I can’t wait any longer,” I thought. I took a flashlight (手电筒) and went out. The light showed me the way, but the shadows (影子) of the trees looked scary. I was worried that Dad might be lost or in trouble, so I walked into the forest slowly.
The wind blew harder. I was scared and kept looking back, but I saw nothing. The flashlight was dying. Just then, I heard someone shout, “Xiaoyu? Is that you?”
It was Dad! I shouted, “Dad! I’m here!” I saw the light move, and then I saw his orange ranger clothes. I ran to him and jumped into his arms, almost crying. “Son, why are you here?” Dad asked. Dad’s hands were cold, but he hugged me hard. “My phone stopped working. I was on my way home. “ I put my face against his coat. Listening to his heartbeat, I felt safe again.
66. Why did the writer go into the forest with a flashlight at night?
A. To find his lost phone. B. To search for his dad.
C. To plant new small trees. D. To check the forest as a ranger.
67. How did the writer most probably feel when he saw his father?
A. Sad. B. Excited. C. Afraid. D. Angry.
68. What can we learn from the passage?
A. The son loved his father deeply.
B. The father often got lost in the forest.
C. The son disliked his father’s job.
D. The father didn’t care about his safety.
E
Marathon pacers (马拉松配速员), sometimes also called “rabbits”, are usually great runners. There are usually between 10 and 15 pacers in a marathon. Each of them leads a different group. They usually hold a sign or a balloon with the time on it to help the runners finish the race.
There are many reasons to run with a pacer. First of all, they can help you run at the right pace. If you go out too fast in the first half of the race, you can run out of energy fast and slow down in the second half. Also, if you run a slower first half and a faster second half, it can be hard to follow the pace in the end. Because you’re very tired. With a pacer, you needn’t think too hard about your pace. You can just keep up with your pacer.
Marathon pacers do more than that. They can encourage you to keep going when you go through the hardest part of the race. In fact, many marathon runners bring out the best in them by following a pacer.
Becoming a marathon pacer is not easy, you must have experience in running marathons and know how to keep a proper speed in the race.
69. How many marathon pacers are there possibly in a marathon?
A. 8. B. 12. C. 16. D. 20.
70. In the third paragraph, what does the underlined word “them” refer to?
A. Runners. B. Pacers. C. Coaches. D. Rabbits.
71. Running with a pacer in a marathon, ______.
A. runners are sure to get the first prize
B. runners don’t need to spend energy in the whole race
C. runners can keep a proper pace and get encouragement
D. runners can become excellent marathon pacers in the future
72. What’s the main idea of the passage?
A. Tell us the looks of marathon pacers.
B. Tell us the future of marathon pacers.
C. Tell us the hobbies of marathon pacers.
D. Tell us the importance of marathon pacers.
F
No mater who you are or where you live, the most important thing is what kind of person you are. There are many good ways that can make you better in your life.
Be active.
Life is not always a bed of roses. When facing difficulties, don’t lose heart. Do you know what can help you get over difficulties? Cheer up! Life is like a mirror. When you smile at it, it will also smile at you.
Keep learning.
Maybe you are so busy now that you can’t find any time to study. However, the world around you is changing all the time. Don’t think you are better than others, or you will fall behind others. Keeping learning can help you succeed in the future.
Be creative.
In modern society, people with creative thinking are mostly needed. For example, if you come up with new ideas, you will have more choices in your life.
Be honest.
Honesty (诚实) is very important. Everyone likes the person who tells the truth. The one who keeps his words is popular everywhere.
As long as you have these ways mentioned above, you will be excellent and have an influence on the world. Try to become a man of value.
73. How many ways does the writer tell us to become a better person?(不超过5个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What kind of people are mostly needed in modern times?(不超过10个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
75. What can you learn from the text?(不超过15个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明朗,语言通顺。
76. Fuse bead (拼豆) art has become a h______ (受欢迎的事物) among young people.
77. A new research shows that a low-fat diet can r______ (减少) the risk of heart disease.
78. “Harry, your eyesight is really a______ (糟糕的),” said Hermione.
79. You’d better set a l______ (锁) on your new phone to protect your personal information.
80. The chicken soup t______ (尝起来) really good. I’d like to drink more.
X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
假如你是李华,中考即将结束,某英语网站委托你做一项关于你校初三学生暑期技能学习计划的问卷调查。请根据图表中的数据,用英语写一篇调查报告,并谈谈你的计划及看法。
要求:
1.词数80-100左右;
2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3.文中不能出现本人真实姓名及学校;
4.文章开头已给出,不计入总词数。
A survey report on students’ summer plans
An English website invited me to do a survey. It’s about what skills students of Grade 9 in our school will learn in the coming summer vacation. Here are the results.
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