内容正文:
2024-2025学年河南郑州枫杨外国语中学八上第二次月考试卷·英语
全卷总分:100分 考试时间:100分钟
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. 1. Which city does Nick like best?
A.New York. B.Shanghai. C.London.
2. Where are the two speakers talking?
A.At home. B.In the restaurant. C.In the classroom.
3. What are they talking about?
A.Their hobbies. B.Their dreams. C.Their problems.
4. Why does the man just want to stay at home?
A.Because he is tired.
B.Because he wants to read some books.
C.Because he is ill.
5. What’s the weather like now?
A.rainy. B.snowy. C.sunny.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
2. 1. What did the girl’s father do yesterday?
A.He built their garden.
B.He watched a basketball game.
C.He took part in a basketball game.
2. How did the boy like the game?
A.Boring. B.Exciting. C.Interesting.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
3. 1. What time should the girl be in the classroom?
A.At 1:40p.m. B.At 2:00p.m. C.At 4:00p.m.
2. How much does the girl spend on her classes?
A.$50. B.$100. C.$150.
听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
4. 1. How old was Sam when he started to play basketball?
A.6. B.7. C.8.
2. Who does Sam always play basketball with after school?
A.His classmates. B.His brother. C.His father.
3. When does Sam watch the NBA?
A.Every weekend. B.Every Friday. C.Every Tuesday.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
5. 1. Who is not feeling well?
A.Tom. B.Tom’s mother. C.Tom’s brother.
2. What didn’t Tom have for dinner yesterday?
A.Potato chips. B.Sandwiches. C.Hamburgers.
3. What is the doctor’s advice?
A.Having a good sleep.
B.Taking some medicine.
C.Eating a little for one day.
第三节 听下面一篇短文,根据你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序,并将其标号填涂在答题卡的相应位置。短文读两遍。
6.
A. B. C. D. E.
16.______ 17.______ 18.______ 19.______ 20.______
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
7.
This is the third year of our cooking camp. It’s a great way to start cooking for yourself!
Time: from 10 a.m. to 1 p.m., for three days from 28th to 30th, January
Open to: boys and girls aged 11-14 years
Price: $20 for one kind and $35 for two
You can learn to make: cakes, pizza, sandwiches, turkey, pasta, bread
Your teacher Marianne is a talented cook and she loves good food. She has got family from Spain, Turkey, Italy and Russia. Marianne loves and cooks food from all of those countries. Come and learn to cook with her.
Our cooking camps are very popular, so please click HERE to sign up or call 8636564 to book your place.
You must be 11-14years old.
You must love food.
You must wear a chef’s hat.
(Don’t worry, we give you one.)
You mustn’t be late. There is a lot to learn.
1. When is the cooking camp?
A.In January. B.In May. C.In June. D.In October.
2. Who can take part in the cooking camp?
A.A kind teacher. B.A loving mother.
C.A talented cook. D.A 12-year-old boy.
3. What must teenagers do if they want to be in the cooking camp?
A.They must pay $55. B.They must come on time.
C.They must buy a chef’s hat. D.They must come for three afternoons.
4. How much do you need to pay if you learn to make three kinds of food?
A.$10. B.$20. C.$35. D.$55.
5. You read this advertisement most probably ______.
A.in a novel B.in a magazine C.on the Internet D.in a newspaper
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
8. Brian was a funny student. He loved watching comedies best and hoped to become a comedy actor one day.
There was a talent show at his school. Brian decided to take part in it. He had never acted on stage (舞台) before, and he was very excited. But some students laughed at him. “You are not funny but silly,” Ken, one of his classmates, said to his face. “No one will like what you do.” Brian thought about giving up the show at first. But he remembered how much his friends liked his jokes, and also his teachers said he was very funny. So he decided to prepare for the show.
Brian did a great job at the talent show. Everyone loved his performance, and he won the first prize! His teachers and friends were proud of him. Even so, Ken told Brian that he was not funny, and that he would never be successful. Brian didn’t understand why Ken said so, but he realized that it had nothing to do with him. He confidently continued to work towards his goal.
As the years went on, Brian met more people like Ken. “You’ll do a terrible job,” they said to him. Luckily, most people encouraged him and some helped him to become even funnier. He got a lot of chances to perform in movies. He was even invited to appear on TV. His fans thanked him because his comedies made them feel good when they were unhappy.
Now Brian is a big comedy star! He is doing what he loves best. He never feels stressed like those unkind people, and he laughs all day long!
1. What did Brian love best when he was a student?
A.Going to school. B.Helping classmates.
C.Watching comedies. D.Meeting new friends.
2. Why did Brian decide to prepare for the show?
A.His friends liked his jokes. B.He was invited by a TV station.
C .He wasn’t busy acting in movies. D.Ken was expecting his performance.
3. Brian’s fans thanked him because his comedies brought them ______.
A.success B.happiness C.luck D.pride
4. What do you think of Brian?
A.Positive and strong-willed. B.Friendly and shy.
C.Helpless and creative. D.Serious and supportive.
5. The story wants to tell us we should ______.
A.understand others B.become a teacher of acting
C.encourage others to like comedies D.continue to work towards our goal
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
9. Have you ever heard that you should drink eight glasses, or about two liters of water every day? Lots of grown-ups try to drink so much water to stay healthy. But guess what? Scientists have found that there isn’t a magic number of glasses of water that’s perfect for everyone.
In a big study, researchers checked out 5,600 people, from little kids who are just a week old to great-grandparents who are 96 years old! They wanted to find out about “water turnover,” which is an interesting way of saying how much water goes into our body and then comes out (like when we go to the bathroom). They discovered that everyone is different when it comes to how much water they need. This can depend on things like how old you are, how long you run and play, and whether you’re a boy or not. For example, young men around 20 to 35 years old need almost twice as much water as men who are in their nineties!
Also, the scientists noticed that people who are really active and move around a lot need more water than people who don’t exercise much. And here’s a fun fact: the foods we eat also have water in them!
The people who did this study think that most of us don’t really need to drink eight glasses of water every day. It turns out that our bodies are pretty good at telling us when we’re thirsty. So, the best thing to do is listen to your body and drink water when you feel thirsty. And don’t forget that having fun is also a great way to stay healthy, just like drinking water!
1. How does the writer lead into the topic?
A.By listing facts. B.By asking a question.
C.By telling a story. D.By giving an example.
2. Which of the following is TRUE about the study?
A.It only studied young people.
B.It lasted for almost twenty years.
C.It found people’s need for water is different.
D.It found the older people are, the more water they drink.
3. What can we learn from Paragraph 3?
A.Exercising more is the best way to stay healthy.
B.People should eat more fruits that are full of water.
C.The water people need also comes from the foods they eat.
D.Drinking enough water is more important than exercising.
4. ______ tell us when to drink water.
A.The scientists. B.The teachers. C.Our bodies. D.Our parents.
5. What’s the best title for the text?
A Eight glasses of water a day is perfect!
B Want to stay healthy? Drink more water!
C.When is the best time to drink water?
D.Do we really need eight glasses of water a day?
根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使短文意思通顺,内容完整。
10. Two American astronauts went to the International Space Station for a test on 5th June. And they were expected to be back home in eight days at the beginning.
36.______ In fact, Barry Wilmore and Sunita Williams are still in space now. They have missed the summer and are even going to spend New Year in space.
Mr. Wilmore, 61, and Ms. Williams, 58, flew a Boeing Starliner spacecraft (宇宙飞船) to the station. It was the first flight of its kind with astronauts. It was also a test planned to see how the new spacecraft worked before it was used more often.
37.______ The propulsion system (推进系统) and some other parts of the spacecraft stopped working. Although they have arrived at the space station luckily, they have to think about another plan to get home. 38.______
NASA officials are planning to return the two astronauts to Earth in February 2025. That flight to the space station will be made by a SpaceX Crew Dragon craft. The plan means the astronauts would spend more than eight months in space in total. And if the Crew Dragon is used, the Starliner craft would return to Earth without astronauts, under computer control. 39.______
The two astronauts said they were quite confident about the return trip and that Starliner was “truly good”. Ms. Williams said, “40.______ It feels good to be in space and work up here.”
A.It feels like coming back home.
B.But things didn’t quite go to plan.
C.Problems, however, appeared on the way to the station.
D.Because the spacecraft may not be able to take them back to Earth.
E.NASA officials said it could take a week or more to make a final decision.
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A,B,C,D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
11. An old man lives in a nice house with a large garden. He 41.______ his flowers all the time. One day a young man went past the garden. 42.______ at the beautiful flowers, he said to himself, “How happy I would be 43.______ I could live in this beautiful place.” Then, suddenly he found the old gardener was 44.______. That’s why he was very 45.______ about this and asked, “You can’t see these flowers. Why are you busy taking care of 46.______ every day?”
The old man smiled and said, “I can tell you 47.______ reasons. First, I was a gardener when I was young, and I really like this job. Second, although I can’t 48.______ these flowers, I can touch them. Third, I can enjoy the nice 49.______ of them. As to the last one, that’s you.”
“Me? But you don’t know me,” said the young man.
“Yeah, it’s true that I don’t know you. But 50.______ are angels (天使) to everyone. Happiness can be brought by beautiful flowers and we all 51.______ that.”
The blind man’s work opened our eyes and 52.______ our hearts. It also made his life happier and 53.______. It was just like Beethoven. He became deaf in his later life and wrote many great musical works. Beethoven himself couldn’t 54.______ his wonderful music, but his music has taught lots of people to face their difficulties 55.______. Isn’t it one kind of happiness?
1.A. keeps clear of B. takes care of
C. pays attention to D. is interested in
2.A. Shouting B. Laughing C. Pointing D. Looking
3.A. unless B. because C. if D. until
4.A. blind B. shy C. deaf D. sad
5.A. worried B. surprised C. excited D. bored
6.A. it B. him C. them D. you
7.A. four B. three C. five D. two
8.A. pick B. see C. feel D. understand
9.A. look B. taste C. smell D. sound
10.A. difficulties B. lives C. gardens D. flowers
11.A. study B. enjoy C. name D. notice
12.A. pleased B. protected C. hurt D. broke
13.A. harder B. cleverer C. easier D. luckier
14.A. imagine B. practice C. hear D.complete
15.A. gladly B. quietly C. bravely D. naturally
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节 请从方框内选择适当的词,并根据需要用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺,意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
12.
up little science plan resolution physical we improve foreign tradition
I am Linda. We talked about our 56.______ for the coming New Year yesterday.
Susan is going to study another 57. ______ language. She may learn Chinese because she likes Chinese 58.______ culture very much. Lucy’s resolution is about 59.______ health. So she is going to exercise three or four times a week to keep healthy. Jack likes math. His dream is to be a great 60.______ when he grows up. Tom wants to be a driver in the future. And he expects that there will be 61.______ pollution than before. I’m going to take 62.______ a new hobby and I 63.______ to write articles every day. Maybe I can be a reporter in the future.
We know it's hard to keep them, but we are going to try 64.______ best. The most important thing is to keep 65.______ ourselves and do it step by step.
第二节 根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。(每空限填一词)
13. You may like drinking milk and you may like reading books. But 66.______ you know the“ milk book ”? It’s a new book in Slovenia.
67.______ is a story on the box of milk, so people call it“milk book”. Bostjan Gorenc pizzama writes the stories for the milk books. These days most people play games on computers and mobile phones 68.______ spend their free time. They spend less time reading. The stories help parents have the habit of reading bedtime stories to their children. They want to help people read more 69.______ this relaxing way.
A cup of milk and a beautiful story can help people have 70.______ good sleep. People can buy the books in Slovenia now.
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
14.A: Mom, our English teacher Spencer is leaving soon to go back to the US. We’re going to have a surprise party for him.
B: That’s a good idea. 71._________________________?
A: It’s on next Friday and I want to make Yunnan Rice Noodles for him. 72._________________________?
B: Sure. First, you need to have rice noodles, chicken soup, lettuce and eggs.
A: 73._________________________?
B: Two eggs should be OK.
A: Oh, there aren’t any eggs in the fridge. I have to go to the supermarket. Can you go with me tonight?
B: Sorry, I’m going to the movies.
A: 74._________________________?
B: Your dad. It’s our 15th wedding anniversary.
A: Well, I didn’t know that. I’ll ask Mary to go with me. Have a good time.
B: 75._________________________.
六、书面表达(20分)
15. 随着科技的进步和社会的发展,我们的生活必将发生日新月异的变化。请你想象一下20年后的生活情景,以“My life in twenty years”为题,根据以下要点提示,写一篇80词左右的英语短文。
要点提示:
(1)居住地及其环境;
(2)业余活动;
(3)未来职业;
(4)……
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年河南郑州枫杨外国语中学八上第二次月考试卷·英语
详解详析
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. 1. B
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. A
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
2. 1. A
2. B
3. 1. A
2. C
4. 1. B
2. C
3. A
5. 1. A
2. A
3. C
第三节 听下面一篇短文,根据你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序,并将其标号填涂在答题卡的相应位置。短文读两遍。
6. 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. E
5. D
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
7. 1. A
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. C
【解析】 1. 细节理解题。题干意为:烹饪营在什么时候举办?根据第二段“Time: from 10 a.m. to 1 p.m., for three days from 28th to 30th, January”可知,烹饪营在一月份举办。故选A。
2. 细节理解题。题干意为:谁可以参加烹饪营?根据第三段“Open to: boys and girls aged 11-14 years”可知,年龄在11到14岁的男孩和女孩可以参加。A选项“一位善良的老师”、B选项“一位慈爱的母亲”、C选项“一位有才华的厨师”均不符合年龄要求,而D选项“一个12岁的男孩”符合。故选D。
3. 细节理解题。题干意为:如果青少年想参加烹饪营,他们必须做什么?根据表格内容“You mustn’t be late. There is a lot to learn.”可知,参加者不能迟到,即必须按时来,B选项符合文意。故选B。
4. 数字计算题。题干意为:如果你学习制作三种食物,你需要付多少钱?根据第四段“Price: $20 for one kind and $35 for two”可知,学一种食物20美元,学两种食物35美元,因此学三种食物应是$20+$35=$55。故选D。
5. 文章出处题。题干意为:你最有可能________读到这则广告。根据最后一段中“so please click HERE to sign up”可知,这里提到了点击“HERE”报名,这是典型的网络用语,所以最有可能在互联网上读到这则广告。故选C。
8. 1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
【解析】 1. 细节理解题。题干意为:当Brian是一个学生时最喜欢什么?根据第一段“Brian was a funny student. He loved watching comedies best and hoped to become a comedy actor one day.”可知,他最喜欢看喜剧。故选C。
2. 细节理解题。题干意为:为什么Brian决定为表演做准备?根据第二段倒数第二句“But he remembered how much his friends liked his jokes, and also his teachers said he was very funny.”可知,他的朋友们喜欢他的笑话,老师们也说他很有趣,所以他决定为表演做准备。故选A。
3. 细节理解题。题干意为:Brian 的粉丝感谢他是因为他的喜剧给他们带来了________。根据第四段最后一句“His fans thanked him because his comedies made them feel good when they were unhappy.”可知,他的喜剧在粉丝们不开心的时候让他们感觉很好,也就是带来了快乐。故选B。
4. 推理判断题。题干意为:你认为Brian是个怎样的人?从Brian面对同学的嘲笑没有放弃,坚持朝着自己成为喜剧演员的目标努力,并且在后来面对更多像Ken这样的人依然自信地继续追求目标可知,他是积极向上且意志坚定的。故选A。
5. 写作意图题。题干意为:这个故事想告诉我们应该________。文章讲述了Brian不顾他人的嘲笑和质疑,坚持朝着成为喜剧演员的目标努力,最终成为了喜剧明星,所以这个故事想告诉我们要继续朝着自己的目标努力。故选D。
9. 1. B
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. D
【解析】 1. 写作手法题。题干意为:作者是如何引入主题的?根据第一段第一句“Have you ever heard that you should drink eight glasses, or about two liters of water every day?”可知,作者通过提出一个问题来引入文章主题。故选B。
2. 细节理解题。题干意为:关于这项研究,下列哪一项是正确的?根据第二段第三句“They discovered that everyone is different when it comes to how much water they need.”可知,研究发现人们对水的需求是不同的,C选项符合文意。故选C。
3. 段落大意题。题干意为:从第三段我们可以了解到什么?根据第三段最后一句“And here’s a fun fact: the foods we eat also have water in them!”可知,我们吃的食物中也含有水分,即人们所需的水也来自他们吃的食物,C选项符合文意。故选C。
4. 细节理解题。题干意为:______告诉我们什么时候喝水。根据最后一段第二句“It turns out that our bodies are pretty good at telling us when we’re thirsty.”可知,我们的身体会告诉我们什么时候口渴,也就是告诉我们什么时候喝水。故选C。
5. 标题归纳题。题干意为:这篇文章的最佳标题是什么?文章主要围绕是否真的需要每天喝八杯水展开论述,指出每个人对水的需求不同,最好是根据身体的需求喝水。D选项“我们真的需要每天喝八杯水吗?”准确概括了文章的主题。故选D。
10. 1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. A
【解析】 1. 根据上文“And they were expected to be back home in eight days at the beginning.”和空后句子“In fact, Barry Wilmore and Sunita Williams are still in space now.”可知,一开始预计八天后回家,但实际上现在还在太空,说明事情没有按计划进行。分析备选项可知,B项“但事情并没有完全按计划进行。”符合语境。故选B。
2. 根据空后句子“The propulsion system (推进系统) and some other parts of the spacecraft stopped working.”可知,宇宙飞船的推进系统和其他一些部件停止工作了,说明在去空间站的路上出现了问题。分析备选项可知,C项“然而,在去空间站的路上出现了问题。”符合语境。故选C。
3. 根据空前句子“Although they have arrived at the space station luckily, they have to think about another plan to get home.”可知,他们需要想另一个回家的计划,说明原来的宇宙飞船可能无法带他们回家。分析备选项可知,D项“因为宇宙飞船可能无法带他们回到地球。”符合语境。故选D。
4. 根据空前句子“And if the Crew Dragon is used, the Starliner craft would return to Earth without astronauts, under computer control.”可知,这里提到了一种返回地球的方案,接下来应该是关于这个方案的进一步说明,比如做出最终决定需要的时间。分析备选项可知,E项“美国国家航空航天局官员表示,可能需要一周或更长时间才能做出最终决定。”符合语境。故选E。
5. 根据空后句子“It feels good to be in space and work up here.”可知,在太空工作感觉很好,说明在太空就像回家一样的感觉。分析备选项可知,A项“感觉就像回家一样。”符合语境。故选A。
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A,B,C,D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
11. 1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. C
【解析】 1. 考查动词短语词义辨析。句意:他一直________他的花。keeps clear of 避开;takes care of 照料;pays attention to 注意;is interested in 对……感兴趣。根据上文“An old man lives in a nice house with a large garden.”及下文“flowers all the time.”可知,老人一直在照料他的花。故选B。
2. 考查动词词义辨析。句意:________这些漂亮的花,他自言自语道……。Shouting 喊叫;Laughing 大笑;Pointing 指着;Looking 看。根据语境可知,小伙子应是在看着漂亮的花。故选D。
3. 考查连词词义辨析。句意:看着这些漂亮的花,他自言自语道:“________我能住在这美丽的地方,我会多么幸福。”unless 除非;because 因为;if 如果;until 直到……为止。根据句意可知,这里需要一个表示假设的从句,从而表达一种愿景或希望,应用if引导。故选C。
4. 考查形容词词义辨析。句意:然后,突然他发现这位老园丁________。blind 失明的;shy 害羞的;deaf 耳聋的;sad 悲伤的。根据下文“You can’t see these flowers.”可推测,老园丁是失明的。故选A。
5. 考查形容词词义辨析。句意:这就是为什么他对此非常________的原因并说……。worried 担心的;surprised 吃惊的;excited 兴奋的;bored 无聊的。根据下文“You can’t see these flowers. Why are you busy taking care of ______ every day?”可以推测,年轻人发现老人在他失明的情况下还照料花,因此感到惊讶。故选B。
6. 考查代词词义辨析。句意:你看不见这些花。你为什么每天忙着照料________呢?it 它(单数);him 他;them 它们;you 你。根据“You can’t see these flowers.”可知,这里指代的是前句的花,flowers是复数,应用代词them。故选C。
7. 考查数词词义辨析。句意:我可以告诉你________个原因。four 四;three 三;five 五;two 二。根据下文老人的回答“First, … Second, … Third, … As to the last one …”可知,说明有四点原因。故选A。
8. 考查动词词义辨析。句意:第二,尽管我不能________这些花,我可以触摸它们。pick 摘;see 看见;feel 感觉;understand 理解。根据语境可知,老人已经失明,因此不能看见这些花。故选B。
9. 考查名词词义辨析。句意:第三,我能享受它们的好________。look 外观;taste 味道;smell 气味;sound 声音。根据语境可知,虽然老人失明,但他仍然可以闻到花的香味。故选C。
10. 考查名词词义辨析。句意:但是________是每个人的天使。difficulties 困难;lives 生活;gardens 花园;flowers 花。根据下文“Happiness can be brought by beautiful flowers”可知,美丽的花能带来幸福,因此花是人们的“天使”。故选D。
11. 考查动词词义辨析。句意:美丽的花能带来幸福,我们都________这一点。study 学习;enjoy 喜欢;name 命名;notice 注意。根据语境可知,大家都能欣赏并喜欢美丽的花带来的快乐。故选B。
12. 考查动词词义辨析。句意:盲人的工作打开了我们的眼界,并________我们的心灵。pleased 使高兴;protected 保护;hurt 伤害;broke 打破。根据上文描述了花的美好及其带来的幸福可知,盲人的故事传递了一种开心和满意的情感。故选A。
13. 考查形容词词义辨析。句意:它也使他的生活更加幸福和________。harder 更艰难的;cleverer 更聪明的;easier 更容易的;luckier 更幸运的。结合前文盲人的工作让他自己和他人都有积极的感受可知,这份工作对他产生了积极的影响,“更快乐”和“更轻松”是相呼应的,符合语境。故选C。
14. 考查动词词义辨析。句意:贝多芬自己不能________他那精彩的乐曲,但是他的音乐教会很多人________面对他们的困难。imagine 想象;practice 练习;hear 听见;complete 完成。根据“his wonderful music”可知,应是听音乐,贝多芬因为失聪无法“听到”自己的音乐。故选C。
15. 考查副词词义辨析。句意:贝多芬自己不能听见他那精彩的乐曲,但是他的音乐教会很多人________面对他们的困难。gladly 高兴地;quietly 安静地;bravely 勇敢地;naturally 自然地。根据语境可知,是在鼓励人们向伟人学习,勇敢面对困难。故选C。
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节 请从方框内选择适当的词,并根据需要用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺,意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
12. 1. resolutions
2. foreign
3. traditional
4. physical
5. scientist
6. less
7. up
8. plan
9. our
10. improving
【解析】 1. 句意:我们昨天讨论了我们对即将到来的新年的______。根据句意可知,此处指的是人们对新年所做的计划或决心,备选词resolution符合语境。分析句子结构可知,句子中缺少名词成分,且“our”后应填入复数形式,连接我们的主题和具体行动。故填resolutions。
2. 句意:Susan打算学习另一种______语言。根据“another”可知,指的是学习非本国语言,备选词foreign符合语境。分析句子结构可知,空缺处修饰language,需用形容词。故填foreign。
3. 句意:她会学习中文是因为她很喜欢中国的______文化。根据句意可知,此处指对中国某种文化的喜爱,备选词tradition符合语境,表示中国传统文化,分析句子结构可知,空处需变为形容词形式修饰culture。故填traditional。
4. 句意:Lucy的决心与______健康有关。根据“So she is going to exercise three or four times a week to keep healthy.”可知,Lucy的决心应与身体健康有关,备选词physical符合语境。分析句子结构可知,空处需用形容词修饰名词health。故填physical。
5. 句意:他的梦想是长大后成为一名伟大的______。根据“Jack likes math.”可知,此处是说想成为一个与数学相关的职业,备选词science需变为职业名词形式符合语境。分析句子结构可知,空缺处需用名词。故填scientist。
6. 句意:他希望那时污染会比以前______。根据“pollution than before”可知,此处运用比较级,表示更少的污染。备选词little变为比较级符合语境。故填less。
7. 句意:我打算培养______一项新的爱好……。根据“I’m going to take ______ a new hobby”可知,此处是固定短语“take up”表示开始从事某事。空缺处作为动词短语的一部分,与take构成固定搭配,备选词up符合语境。故填up。
8. 句意:……并且我______每天写文章。根据“Maybe I can be a reporter in the future.”可知,指的是计划每天写文章,备选词plan符合语境。分析句子结构可知,句子缺少动词,需填动词原形。故填plan。
9. 句意:我们知道很难坚持,但我们将尽______最大的努力。根据句意可知,是尽我们自己最大的努力,备选词we符合语境。分析句子结构可知,此处需用所有格形式限定best。故填our。
10. 句意:最重要的事情是不断地______自己并一点一点地去做。根据语境可知,应是强调不断提高自己,备选词improve符合语境。分析句子结构可知,空缺处需用动名词作主语补足语。故填improving。
第二节 根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。(每空限填一词)
13. 1. do
2. There
3. to
4. in
5. a
【解析】 1. 句意:但是________你知道“牛奶书”吗?句子是一般疑问句,且谓语动词是实义动词know,主语是you,时态为一般现在时,所以借助助动词do构成一般疑问句。故填do。
2. 句意:牛奶盒上________一个故事,所以人们叫它“牛奶书”。此处考查“there be”句型,表示“某地有某物”,且句首单词首字母要大写。故填There。
3. 句意:现在大多数人玩电脑和手机游戏________度过他们的空闲时间。此处用动词不定式to spend作目的状语,表示玩游戏的目的是度过空闲时间。故填to。
4. 句意:他们想________这种轻松的方式帮助人们读更多的书。“in this way”是固定短语,意为“用这种方式”。故填in。
5. 句意:一杯牛奶和一个美妙的故事能帮助人们有________好的睡眠。“have a good sleep”是固定表达,意为“有一个好的睡眠”。故填a。
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
14. 1. When is it
2. Can you tell/ teach me how to make them
3. How many eggs do I need
4. Who are you going with/ Who will you go with
5. Thank you
【解析】 1. 根据答句“It’s on next Friday”可知,问句应是在询问派对的时间。故填When is it。
2. 根据答句“Sure. First, you need to have rice noodles, chicken soup, lettuce and eggs.”可知,妈妈告知制作米线所需的食材,问句应是在请求妈妈告知/教如何制作云南米线。故填Can you tell/ teach me how to make them。
3. 根据答句“Two eggs should be OK.”可知,问句是在询问制作米线需要多少个鸡蛋。故填How many eggs do I need。
4. 根据上文“I’m going to the movies.”以及答句“Your dad.”可知,问句是在询问妈妈要和谁一起去看电影。故填Who are you going with/ Who will you go with。
5. 根据上文“Have a good time.”可知,此处对于对方的祝福,应该表示感谢。故填Thank you。
六、书面表达(20分)
15.My life in twenty years
In twenty years, my life will be quite different from now. I’ll live in a beautiful house in the countryside. The environment there will be wonderful, with green trees, colorful flowers and fresh air.
In my free time, I’ll go on a picnic with my family in the mountains. We’ll enjoy the beautiful scenery and the peace there. Sometimes, I’ll also play tennis with my friends.
As for my future career, I’ll be a doctor. I’ll help people get away from diseases and make them healthy. I believe I’ll lead a happy and meaningful life then.
英语试卷 第1页(共2页) 英语试卷 第2页(共2页)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$