山西临汾第一中学校、忻州市第一中学校2025-2026学年下学期5月月考高一英语试卷

高一英语 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考场号、座位号、考生号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是 C。 1. How will the woman probably go to the nearest market? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. On foot. 2. Where will Grace go tonight? A. To a park. B. To a cinema. C. To a supermarket. 3. Why does the woman book the table outdoors? A. The indoor area is full. B. It will be cheaper outdoors. C. The outdoor part has heaters. 4. Where are the speakers most likely? A. On a boat. B. On a hilltop. C. On a river. 5. What is the conversation mainly about? A. Changing the address. B. Checking the passport. C. Opening a bank account. 第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段录音，回答第 6、7 题。 6. What caused Alex’s discomfort in his own opinion? A. The seafood. B. A shortage of sleep. C. The long class. 7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient. 听第 7 段录音，回答第 8、9 题。 8. What will the woman choose as a gift? A. A coffee maker. B. A storybook. C. A smart speaker. 9. How much will the woman pay? A. 400. C. $440. 听第8段录音，回答第10至12题。 10. What position did the man apply for? A. A marketing manager. B. A marketing researcher. C. An advertising director. 11. What does the man mention as his weakness? A. He struggles with pressure. B. He has poor organizing skills. C. He pays too much attention to small details. 12. What does the man hope to do in five years? A. Be a team leader. B. Manage three projects. C. Run a voluntary program. 听第9段录音，回答第13至16题。 13. What does the woman think of The Midnight Library? A. Plain. B. Boring. C. Addictive. 14. Why does the man like The Midnight Library? A. It relates to his life. B. It has an exciting story. C. It uses a unique writing style. 15. What do the two speakers plan to do together? A. Have a meeting. B. Write a book review. C. Read another book of the author. 16. Why does the man want to share? A. To make more friends. B. To enrich the meaning of reading. C. To solve the difficulties together. 听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。 17. How long was the speaker’s screen time before the change? A. About 2 hours a day. B. About 8 to 10 hours a day. C. About 10 to 11 hours a day. 18. What helped the speaker change her habits? A. An online challenge. B. A doctor’s advice. C. A friend’s suggestion. 19. What did the speaker do during her screen-free time? A. She made meals. B. She took a walk alone. C. She wrote a book. 20. What is suggested by the speaker to make such a change? A. Quitting social media. B. Buying an alarm clock. C. Getting back control. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Scholastic Art & Writing Awards: A National Stage for Young Artists Do you have an interest in drawing, painting or any other form of art? The Scholastic Art & Writing Awards might be your chance to shine. Founded in 1923, this competition is one of the oldest and most respected student art programs in the United States. Each year, it invites students in grades 7 to 12 to hand in their original artwork for recognition and scholarship (奖学金) opportunities. The competition features over 20 different art types, giving students the freedom to work in what they love most. These include Drawing, Painting, Ceramics & Glass, Comic Art, Photography and Sculpture. Important Guidelines for Entrants: • Originality is required for all entries (参赛作品). Works copied from other artists will be refused. • Students can hand in their work in several forms, but they must create a separate entry for each piece. • For 3D works, applicants should upload several images showing different points, a detail shot, and a photo with a ruler. Entries are judged first at the regional level by local art experts. Students who receive Gold Key awards at the regional level advance to the national competition in New York City. There, a group of famous artists and educators select the national medalists. Winning a national medal is a great achievement — past winners include famous artists like Andy Warhol and photographer Robert Mapplethorpe. Entries are accepted from September through December, with exact dates differing from region to region. Students should check their local region’s guidelines for specific deadlines. There is no entry charge for most regions. The awards not only celebrate artistic excellence but also offer scholarship opportunities. Seniors can apply for scholarship awards of up to $10,000, and all national medalists are invited to attend a ceremony (仪式) at Carnegie Hall in New York City. For young artists looking to get national recognition, the Scholastic Art & Writing Awards offers a wonderful chance. 21. What is the main purpose of the Scholastic Art & Writing Awards? A. To train future photographers. B. To support school art education. C. To collect artworks to raise money. D. To honor young artists and provide scholarships. 22. What is a requirement for the competition? A. All entries must be original. B. The paintings measure three feet in size. C. The works are finished in a classroom setting. D. Applicants must use traditional painting methods. 23. What happens to students receiving Gold Key awards at the regional level? A. They will get tips from the judges. B. They can win a $10,000 scholarship. C. They can move on to the national competition. D. They will be invited to attend a large ceremony. B Peter Lord didn’t plan to become an inventor. For 35 years, he was a professor of biology at Brown University. But after retiring (退休) in 2020, he found himself with time on his hands. As he was highly curious about how to deal with everyday issues, he decided to start something new: he began inventing. His journey into invention was far from typical. With no formal engineering training, Lord depended on what he knew best — observation. One of his first creations was a special drying shelf for reusable food bags, a simple solution to a common kitchen problem. But he didn’t stop there. When he noticed the challenges of feeding hummingbirds without attracting ants, he designed a special feeder with a built-in ant moat (防蚁水槽). That design earned him a U.S. patent (专利) in 2023. What makes Lord’s story unusual is not just that he started inventing in his seventies, but how he did it. He set up a workshop in his basement and taught himself the skills he needed. “I just learned by doing. If I didn’t know how to do something, I watched videos, read books and tried until I got it right,” he told an interviewer. Lord has received four patents for his inventions. His work caught the attention of a company, which began producing his feeder. Now in his late seventies, he shows no signs of slowing down. He is working on new ideas, including improvements to his existing designs. Lord’s story challenges common ideas about creativity and age. “People think that creativity is for the young,” he said. “But I think it’s about staying curious and being willing to try something new, no matter how old you are.” 24. What mainly contributed to Peter Lord’s journey of invention? A. His curiosity. B. His formal training. C. His retirement. D. His work experience. 25. What does paragraph 3 focus on? A. Lord’s basement workshop. B. Lord’s unusual learning method. C. Lord’s engineering background. D. Lord’s key sources of inspiration. 26. What can we learn from Lord’s words in the last paragraph? A. Creativity is for the young. B. Education is necessary for invention. C. It’s never too late to be famous and rich. D. Interest and willingness matter more than age. 27. Which of the following can best describe Lord? A. Caring and kind. B. Creative and energetic. C. Helpful and brave. D. Humorous and determined. C Imagine having a partner who is always patient and there for you 24 hours a day. For many high school students today, this is no longer a dream. Artificial Intelligence (AI) chatbots like DeepSeek and Kimi are becoming increasingly popular tools for learning English outside the classroom. A recent study explored how Chinese secondary school students use these AI tools to practice speaking English. The researchers surveyed over 300 students and did in-depth interviews to understand their experiences. The study found that students’ motivations (动机) for using AI tools differ greatly. Some students have a clear “perfect self” picture — they imagine themselves speaking English well in the future. These students are more likely to enjoy using AI chatbots and to develop confidence in their speaking abilities. They view AI as a safe space to practice without fear of embarrassment (尴尬). However, not all experiences are positive. Some students experience anxiety when using AI tools. This anxiety can come from different sources: struggling to keep up with the technology, receiving negative feedback from the AI tools, or simply not knowing how to ask the right questions. When students feel anxious about using AI, they are less likely to work with it for language practice. Interestingly, the study found that simply spending more time with AI chatbots does not automatically (自动地) improve speaking confidence. What matters more is the students’ emotional state. Students who enjoy the process are more likely to benefit. Those who feel anxious may actually learn less, even if they spend the same amount of time using the tools. The researchers suggest that schools should help students develop the skills to use AI tools effectively and safely. They also stress the importance of protecting students’ emotional well-being in this rapidly changing digital world. After all, the goal is not just to use AI, but to use it in ways that really help students grow. 28. What is a “perfect self” picture according to paragraph 3? A. A fear of making mistakes in public. B. A goal to spend more time with AI chatbots. C. A dream of becoming a computer programmer. D. An image of oneself with a good English performance. 29. What do we know about AI chatbots for language learning? A. They can replace human teachers. B. They are meant for English beginners. C. They work depending on students’ feelings. D. They are perfect company for lonely children. 30. What do the researchers suggest schools do? A. Guide proper AI practice. B. Provide more AI chatbots. C. Stop students from using AI. D. Focus on students’ language study. 31. What is the best title for the text? A. AI Chatbots: Time Well Spent? B. AI Chatbots: Beyond the Convenience C. AI Chatbots: A Risk-Free Learning Tool? D. AI Chatbots: When Emotions Shape Learning D When we think about staying healthy, diet and exercise usually come to mind first. But a new study suggests that for teenagers, healthy habits may start with something more basic: sleep timing. New research shows that late bedtimes can lead to poor diet and less physical activity. Researchers from Penn State College of Medicine examined how different sides of sleep are connected to what teenagers eat and how much they move. Using hand-worn devices (设备) and in-lab sleep studies, the team tracked different sleep factors including bedtime, wake time and sleep regularity (规律性). The findings showed that teenagers who went to bed after midnight and woke up after 8 a.m. — often called night owls — ate more food and spent more time sitting. They were more likely to snack more, especially late in the day and at night. Because they woke up later, they often did not eat breakfast. Instead, they ate lunch, dinner and a late-evening snack that was typically less healthy than a traditional breakfast. Perhaps most importantly, the influence of sleep timing and variability on diet and physical activity was two times stronger during school days. When teenagers are forced to follow early school schedules that fight their natural biological clock, the effects on eating and exercising become more obvious. These relationships weakened during school breaks, when teens have more freedom with their schedule. The researchers suggest that targeting the regularity and timing of teenagers’ sleep could be a key strategy for encouraging healthy eating and physical activity. “A regular sleep schedule is a powerful tool,” said Pura Ballester-Navarro, the study’s first author, “for parents and caregivers, focusing on continuous sleep schedules during the school year may help protect teens’ health.” 32. How did the researchers collect information? A. By interviewing volunteers. B. By self-reporting daily habits. C. Through references to former data. D. Through wearable tech and lab observations. 33. What does the underlined term “night owls” in paragraph 3 probably refer to? A. Those who exercise at night. B. Those who snack during the night. C. Those who stay up and get up late. D. Those who have difficulty falling asleep. 34. When is the effect of sleep timing on health behaviors strongest according to the study? A. On weekdays. B. During vacations. C. On weekends. D. During exam periods. 35. What is Pura Ballester-Navarro’s advice for parents and caregivers? A. Push teens to sleep early. B. Ask teens to do more physical activities. C. Help teens stick to a fixed sleep schedule. D. Encourage teens to form a healthy eating habit. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Overcome Pre-Interview Anxiety Feeling anxious before a job interview is not just common — it’s a natural human response. 36 Here are some practical strategies that can help you manage the nervousness and even use it to your advantage. 37 Start by realizing that interview anxiety isn’t a weakness — it’s your body preparing to perform. Giving your anxiety a name can help you see it as something that visits you, not something that defines (定义) you. Remind yourself that the interview is a conversation, and change your internal dialogue from “I hope they like me” to “I’m going to see if this is a good fit for both of us.” Prepare strategically. Research the company’s goal and culture, and plan your responses using the STAR method — Situation, Task, Action, Result — to tell moving stories about your experience. 38 Standing straight and keeping your head up is a good way to make you prepared. Practice grounding techniques. When anxiety strikes before an interview, physical techniques can quickly bring you back to center. Deep breathing calms your nervous system. 39 Close your eyes and imagine yourself in the interview space, answering questions confidently and connecting positively with the interviewer. Use positive self-talk. 40 Before the interview, repeat sentences like “I am skilled and ready.” or “I’ve prepared thoroughly (彻底地), and I’m going to show who I am.” Stretching (伸展) your arms upward for just two minutes can actually increase feelings of confidence and reduce stress. A. Reset your mindset. B. Face your weakness. C. Power positions are another simple tool to build your confidence. D. The way you speak to yourself matters in high-pressure moments. E. However, too much nervousness can simply weaken your performance. F. The more you practice your answers word-for-word, the more natural you’ll sound. G. Similarly, imagination helps you build a sense of achievement before you even begin. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Last fall, a donkey (驴) named Jack arrived at Rewild Shelter. For 10 years, Jack had been living all by himself, extremely 41 . At Jack’s previous home, he had experienced great 42 as well as emotional loneliness. The shelter had been given a(n) 43 that Jack was aggressive (有攻击性的) toward people, but that wasn’t the 44 at all — he was just shy. What Jack really needed was someone special to bring him out of his 45 . Shortly after Jack’s arrival, the shelter 46 another donkey, Rooster. Like Jack, Rooster had also come from an abusive (虐待性的) living situation. The moment the two met, they were 47 interested in each other. “It hit me that neither of them had 48 another donkey in over 10 years,” McNab, director of Rewild Shelter, said. Donkeys are actually social animals to 49 lifelong relationships with each other. For the first time, Rooster and Jack experienced that. Before long, the two donkeys were 50 . Every day, they’d happily 51 each other around the shelter. “Watching them being close was really 52 ,” McNab said. Rooster’s 53 at the shelter has completely changed Jack’s life. “After 10 years alone with nobody to 54 with, having another friend has given Jack a real sense of 55 and safety, just as we humans do,” McNab said. 41. A. excited B. relaxed C. angry D. lonely 42. A. support B. care C. suffering D. progress 43. A. warning B. promise C. gift D. order 44. A. pride B. hope C. annoyance D. case 45. A. ordinariness B. reserve C. calmness D. mess 46. A. welcomed B. sold C. lost D. avoided 47. A. immediately B. equally C. usually D. actually 48. A. disagreed with B. met with C. counted on D. learned from 49. A. break B. value C. repair D. form 50. A. unforgettable B. unchangeable C. inseparable D. inexperienced 51. A. copy B. forgive C. follow D. beat 52. A. common B. amazing C. boring D. scary 53. A. hobby B. presence C. illness D. leave 54. A. compete B. fight C. argue D. communicate 55. A. peace B. loss C. danger D. humor 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 I was born and grew up in New York. Yet now, I live in Chun’an in East China’s Zhejiang province, 56 I enjoyed a wonderful local tradition called Bamboo Horse Dancing. Nothing in my city life before had prepared me 57 this one. But it’s amazing how a folk (民间的) custom can fill you with joy. Over time, I’ve found 58 (I) looking forward to the festival season just to see the dancers. During the Spring Festival, over 200 performers, 59 (dress) in traditional clothes, dance with “bamboo horses”. The horse, standing for speed and a 60 (lead) spirit in Chinese culture, is believed to bring good luck. Originating in the Southern Song Dynasty, this art 61 (list) as a National Intangible Cultural Heritage (国家级非物质文化遗产) in 2014. 62 performance has developed from small groups of five people into large-mass square dances with lots of people in all age groups. By mixing modern dances like street dance, the tradition becomes more approachable to younger 63 (generation). If you’ve never experienced the lively Bamboo Horse Dancing, you’re missing out on one of the most 64 (joy) forms of folk culture. It is a perfect example of how ancient wisdom is 65 (true) being applied to modern life. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，五一劳动节期间，学校组织高一年级学生到附近的农场进行了一次草莓采摘（strawberry-picking）研学活动，你的笔友Paul发来邮件询问此事，请你给他回一封邮件，内容包括： 1．研学情况； 2．你的收获。 注意：1．写作词数应为80左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Paul, Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Joann Miller, a fifth-grade teacher at DeBary Elementary School in Florida, had been teaching for 27 years. She believed that a classroom should be more than just a place for learning and reading — it should be a community where students support one another. One Friday morning, one of her students, Sophia, was feeling particularly down. Reading had always been a challenge for her. Despite working hard, visiting the media center and reading every book she could find, she still felt she wasn’t keeping up with her classmates. She told Mrs. Miller in a quiet and unsure voice: “I don’t really feel like I’m that smart.” Mrs. Miller listened carefully. Instead of simply offering words of encouragement, Mrs. Miller turned to another student, Ashton, and asked, “One of our classmates is feeling down. What can we do to help her?” Ashton thought for a moment. “We could write positive messages on sticky notes and cover her desk with them,” he suggested. The class quickly got to work. Students took out colorful sticky notes and began writing words of encouragement. “Hard Worker Here.” “You’re a star!” “You’re getting so good at reading. Keep on doing it!” “You’re brave.” One student wrote, “You make our class better.” Mrs. Miller added her own note: “You are a ray (缕) of SUNSHINE!” When Sophia stepped out of the classroom, her classmates placed the sticky notes all over her desk and chair. They worked quickly, covering every surface with kindness. When everything was ready, the students sat back in their seats, trying to hide their excitement. A few minutes later, Sophia walked back into the classroom. 注意：1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 When Sophia returned, she saw her desk completely covered in colorful notes. Mrs. Miller shared the story on her social media, hoping it would inspire others 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 高一英语 参考答案 第一部分 听力 1 — 5 CBABC 6 — 10 BACAB 11 — 15 CACAC 16 — 20 BBAAC 第二部分 阅读 第一节 A 21. D 22. A 23. C B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. B C 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. D D 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. C 第二节 36. E 37. A 38. C 39. G 40. D 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. A 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. D 55. A 第二节 56 — 65 题评分标准：严格按照答案批改，有拼写错误或大小写错误均不给分。未作答题目不得分。 参考答案： 56. where 57. for 58. myself 59. dressed 60. leading 61. was listed 62. The 63. generations 64. joyful / joyous 65. truly 第四部分 写作 第一节 【参考范文】 Dear Paul， Thanks for your interest. On May 1,our school organized a field trip for us senior one students to a strawberry-picking farm nearby. We set out early in the morning and it took us half an hour to walk there. On arriving at the farm,we were immediately attracted by various kinds of strawberries. I learned from the farm guide how strawberries are grown,and then I picked some strawberries and even tried making strawberry juice. The experience taught me that hard work brings sweet results. I got some farming knowledge，teamwork skills，and deeper respect for food and farmers. Have you ever done something meaningful during the holiday? Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 【评分标准】 一、评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。评分标准同高考标准。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．词数少于60和多于100的，适当扣分。 4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容重点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性。 5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写词汇和用法均可接受。 6．如书写较差以致影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13 — 15分）：完全达成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。 — 覆盖全部内容重点。 — 应用了许多的语法结构和词汇。 — 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为因使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 — 有效使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第四档（10 — 12分）：完全达成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。 — 虽遗漏1、2个次重点，但覆盖全部主要内容。 — 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 — 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本正确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 — 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第三档（7 — 9分）：基本达成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 — 虽遗漏一些内容，但覆盖全部主要内容。 — 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 — 有一些语法结构或者词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 — 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档（4 — 6分）：未恰当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 — 遗漏或未描绘清楚一些主要内容，写了一些不相关内容。 — 语法结构单一、词汇项目有限。 — 有些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 — 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 第一档（1 — 3分）：未达成试题规定的任务，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 — 显然遗漏主要内容，写了一些不相关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 — 语法结构单一、词汇项目有限。 — 许多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 — 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 不得分（0分）：未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，没法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容不相关或所写内容没法看清楚，逻辑混乱。 第二节 【参考范文】 When Sophia returned, she saw her desk completely covered in colorful notes. She stood still for a moment. She covered her face with her hands, her shoulders shaking a bit. For a moment, no one spoke. Then she let out a small laugh — mixed with a cry — and said, “I’m laughing and crying!” She turned to her classmates, her eyes shining. “I saw so many kind words, and I just got so happy. It was so amazing that I couldn’t have been happier.” The whole class cheered, smiles spreading across their faces. Mrs. Miller shared the story on her social media, hoping it would inspire others. She called it one of her favorite teaching moments in her work. “When students learn to champion each other, that’s the real win,” she said. “Kindness spreads kindness. The world needs kind people.” Her post quickly became popular, touching hearts across the country and reminding everyone that even the smallest act of kindness can change a life. Sophia kept the sticky notes on her desk for weeks, a colorful reminder of the friends who believed in her. Though reading remained a challenge, she no longer faced it alone — she had a whole class behind her. 【评分标准】 一、评分原则 1．本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。 2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为： （1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及原文情景的融洽度。 （2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。 （3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3．评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4．评分时还应注意： （1）词数少于130的，酌情扣分； （2）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分； （3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 第七档（22 — 25分） — 创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 — 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解。 — 自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。 第六档（18 — 21分） — 创造了丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 — 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解。 — 比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 第五档（15 — 17分） — 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 — 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解。 — 使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 第四档（11 — 14分） — 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关。 — 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解。 — 尚有语句衔接的意义，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 第三档（6 — 10分） — 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度的脱节。 — 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解。 — 未能有效地使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。 第二档（1 — 5分） — 内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。 — 所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解。 — 几乎没有使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 第一档（0分） — 未作答 — 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判。 — 所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。 附听力原文 Text 1 W: Excuse me, I’m trying to get to the nearest market. Is it far from here? M: Not too far. You can take the No.12 bus or a taxi. But this is the rush hour. You can just walk straight along this road until you see the City Library on your left. Then turn right. Text 2 W: Daddy, can I go out with my friends tonight? The new action movie is finally out. M: Grace, don’t you remember it’s your turn to pick up the milk and walk the dog in the park? W: Of course. But can I change them for tomorrow? M: OK. Text 3 W: Good morning, I’d like to book a table for two at around 7:30 tonight, please. M: I’m sorry, but we’re fully booked for indoor tables at that time. We do have a table in the outdoor area, though. W: No problem. It is a hot day. Text 4 M: Wow, look at the sky! The colors are beautiful right now. W: I know. I’m so glad we made it here before the sun came up. M: Me too. You can see the whole city from up here. Look, there is a river with boats on it. Text 5 M: Good afternoon. I’d like to open a savings account. W: Certainly. Do you have your ID card and address with you? M: Yes, here’s my ID card and passport. W: Perfect. I’ll get the forms ready for you. Text 6 W: You look pale, Alex. Are you feeling okay? M: To be honest, not really. My stomach feels a bit off. W: Did you eat anything unusual? M: I had some seafood for lunch, but I don’t think it made me feel unwell. Maybe I’m just tired. I only slept about four hours last night. W: You should go to see the school doctor. It’s better to get it checked. M: You’re right, Mary. I’ll head there after Mr. Black finishes this class. Text 7 W: Excuse me, I’m looking for a gift for my sister. Do you have any recommendations? M: Sure. What does she like? W: She loves reading and drinking coffee. M: How about this smart speaker? It comes with a collection of classic short stories. It’s on sale this week. W: That’s perfect! How much is it? M: Originally $400, but with 10% off. W: I’ll take it. Text 8 W: Please come in and have a seat. I see you applied for the marketing researcher position. M: Yes, thank you for inviting me. I recently graduated with a degree in marketing, and I did voluntary work at a local advertising company last summer. W: That’s good experience. What do you think is your greatest strength? M: I’m very organized and I work well even under pressure. In my voluntary work, I helped manage three projects at the same time. W: Impressive. And what about your weakness? M: I am a perfectionist, so I sometimes spend too much time on small details. I’ve been learning to balance speed with quality. W: That’s honest. Finally, where do you see yourself in five years? M: I hope to grow within a company and take on more leadership responsibilities. I’d like to lead a small team someday. W: Great. We’ll let you know our decision by the end of the week. M: Thank you. I look forward to hearing from you. Text 9 M: Hey, I just finished that book you recommended last month — The Midnight Library. W: Really? What did you think? I couldn’t put it down once I started. M: I like it, but honestly, the beginning felt a bit slow. W: I see. But once the main character enters the library between life and death, the story really takes off. M: Agreed. My favorite part was seeing all the different lives the main character could have lived. It has a deep connection to my own life. That’s why I love the book. Have you read anything else by the same author? W: Not yet, but I do like her unique writing style. I was thinking of reading another book by her, How to Stop Time, next weekend. M: Maybe we can read it together and discuss it like we did this one. W: That would be great! I love having someone to talk about books with. M: Same here. It makes reading feel more meaningful when you can share your thoughts. W: Totally. Let’s try to finish it in three weeks and meet up to talk about it. Text 10 W: I used to be addicted to my phone and spend eight to ten hours a day going through social media. Last year, I realized I had become a heavy user when I noticed I couldn’t even have a meal without checking my phone. It even messed up my life and made me miss some important moments, such as the doctor’s appointment. The turning point came when I saw an advertisement on the Internet for a screen-free challenge. I decided to put my phone away for just 10 hours. At first, I felt anxious and didn’t know what to do with the silence. But slowly, I started cooking or reading a book I had left untouched for months or taking a walk with my family. By the end of the day, I felt a sense of calm I hadn’t experienced in years. That single day changed my habits completely. Now, my screen time is down to about two hours a day. I use an alarm clock instead of my phone, and I’ve learned to be present where I am. The key point? You don’t need to quit completely. You just need to take back control of your life. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $