湖北恩施市2026年中考第一次适应性考试英语试卷

**基本信息** 该试卷通过真实生活情境（如海边旅行、环保活动）和时代主题（AI-Garden科技、儿童发明），综合考查语言理解与表达能力，兼顾思维品质与文化意识培养。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |完形填空|15/15|词汇辨析、语境理解|以海边旅行故事考查情感词汇（excitement/nervous）及上下文逻辑，培养推理能力| |阅读理解|20/40|细节理解、推理判断、词义猜测|含儿童发明案例（Popsicles等）渗透文化意识，AI-Garden科技主题贴近前沿，骆驼比喻故事引导问题解决思维| |短文填空|10/10|词汇运用、语法填空|围绕World Cleanup Day环保主题，强化社会责任感与语言综合运用| |读写结合|5+1/25|信息提取、书面表达|任务型阅读聚焦礼貌礼仪，书面表达“Healthier Mind”主题引导心理健康表达，提升语言输出与思维品质|

机密★启用前 恩施市2026年中考第一次适应性考试 英语试卷 （本试题卷共10页，满分90分，考试时间100分钟） ★祝考试顺利★ 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定位置。 2．选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3．非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4．考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last summer, my parents took me on a trip to Qingdao. It was my first time seeing the sea, and I could hardly contain（抑制）my 1 ． "Are we there yet?" I asked for the hundredth time from the back seat. Dad laughed.“Almost,little explorer. 2 your eyes and listen. Can you hear the waves?” I lowered the window.A fresh,salty wind blew in. 3 I heard the sound of waves hitting the shore（海岸）.My heart jumped. When we arrived, I ran to the beach. The sea was so big! "Mom,what if the sea pulls me in?”I asked 4 . ＂The sea is strong, but it's also beautiful. We'll stay in the shallow（浅的）water，OK?”said Mom. I nodded but still felt 5. Just then, a boy walked up. "First time at the beach?”he asked. I nodded again, too shy to 6 "Don't worry," he said. "I'1l show you. The sea is like a playful friend.Just 7 it step by step.”。 He took my hand and led me toward the water. A small wave ran over my feet. It was cool.I 8.It's not so bad! We jumped over waves, collected seashells, and built a sandcastle. I learned that being brave doesn't mean you have no 9 .It means you try even when you're frightened. That evening, we sat on the beach watching the sunset. Dad said,“Travel isn't just about seeing new 10 .It's about meeting new people and finding new parts of 11 .” I thought of the boy. I never even got his 12,but he taught me something important. The next day, I tried swimming. I still felt nervous, but I remembered his words.I took a deep breath and 13 into the water. I could do it. On the last night, I wrote in my diary: "The sea is big, but so is my courage.I'm 14 for this trip. It showed me that the world is full of kindness and wonder.I can't wait to 15 more places." 1.A.sadness B.disappointment C.excitement D.pride 2.A.Open B.Cover C.Wash D.Close 3.A.Then B.So C.But D.Or 4.A.slowly B.calmly C.nervously D.bravely 5.A.surprised B.frightened C.happy D.angry 6.A.speak B.laugh C.cry D.play 7.A.pull B.fight C.push D.trust 8.A.shouted B.smiled C.stopped D.waited 9.A.time B.hope C.fear D.choice 10.A.pictures B.buildings C.animals D.places 11.A.yourself B.himself C.itself D.herself 12.A.age B.name C.number D.address 13.A.looked B.fell C.stepped D.ran 14.A.sorry B.famous C.ready D.thankful 15.A.draw B.explore C.miss D.protect 二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读以下三篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 Kids are natural inventors. They often create amazing things from simple ideas.Here are a few examples. Popsicles Popsicles were invented by 11-year-old Frank. One night, he forgot his drink with a stick in it outside.The next day, itturned into ice.Surprisingly,it tasted good!These delicious ice sticks became popular among kids in summer. Popsicles are still one of the best summer treats today! Earmuffs Chester, who was born in 1858,loved ice-skating,but his ears couldn't stand the cold. In 1873, after some thinking, Chester asked his grandmnother to sew（缝制）fur into two circles and then connect them. The first earmuffs were invented!Soon,they became popular all over the world. Wristies 10-year-old Kathryn created the first pair of Wristies as snow made her hands wet.Wristies are long gloves with no fingers. When you work in the cold,your hands will stay warm. Kathryn also started a business with her parents' help. She still runs it today. The Band-Aid It was invented by 17-year-old Earle. He often saw his sister get small cuts. Earle used a small piece of clean cloth and some tape（胶带）to make a thin, small dressing. This was the first Band-Aid.Now it helps kids and students when they get small cuts. 16.In which season did Frank invent Popsicles? A.Spring. B.Summer. C.Autumn. D.Winter. 17.Why did Chester invent earmuffs? A.To make money. B.To keep his ears warm. C.To keep his hands clean. D.To make a gift for his parents. 18.Which picture can be best put in ? A. B. C. D. 19.Who finished his/her invention at the youngest age? A.Frank. B.Chester. C.Kathryn. D.Earle. 20.Where can we probably read this passage? A.In a history novel. B. In a travel guide. C. In a children's magazine. D.In a sports report. B In a village near a desert lived a young and successful businessman named James.Though he was rich, he oftenfelt unhappy because of the endless challenges（挑战）. One day, a wise man came to the village with 100 camels（骆驼）.It's said he could solve any problem. James went to see him and said,“I'm very unhappy with my life. I always have business worries, family troubles and health problems. Please tell me how to make them disappear." The old man smiled, "I'll give you an answer tomorrow morning. But first,can you do a small thing for me?" James agreed. The old man asked him to take care of the 100 camels for the night, making sure that they all sat down and rested before he could go to sleep. The next morning, the old man asked James how his night went. James said sadly,"I didn't sleep at all. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn't get all the camels to sit together. Even if I managed to get some camels to sit on one side, a few others would stand on the other side.” "That's true. As you saw last night,some camels sat down by themselves. Some needed you to help them, and many still didn't sit even after you tried hard. If you came back later, you would find that some camels, though they didn't sit at first,finally sat down on their own." The old man said. James nodded. The old man continued, “Problems are just like camels-some problems get solved by themselves, some get solved when you put in some effort, and some do not get solved even after you have tried your best. Leave such problems to time. At the right time, these problems themselves will cometo an end." He smiled. Look at the group of camels, James felt a sense of understanding. It completely changed the way he saw life's challenges. 21.What made James unhappy? ①money pressure ②health problems ③family troubles ④business worries A.①②③ B.①②④ C.①③④ D.②③④ 22.What did the old man ask James to do that night? A. To think about his question carefully. B. To make all the camels sit down and rest. C.To make sure the old man could sleep well. D. To watch the camels to prevent them from getting lost. 23.How might James feel that night? A.Upset. B.Excited. C.Lonely. D.Bored. 24.What does the underlined word "It” refer to in the last paragraph? A.A sense of trouble. B. The old man's smile. C.A sense of understanding. D.The group of camels. 25.What does the writer want to tell us? A. It's difficult to control camels. B. Some problems need time to be solved. C. Rich people always have more challenges. D. You'd better solve all the problems on your own. C Have you ever gone out to your garden, only to find your plants are dying? Was the earth too dry? Did insects find their way in? Faced with these problems, some gardeners wish plants could tell them what they need. Now, a new AI project in the UK is testing this idea, and it may bring a magical change to our gardening experience. In fact, this project is designed to make gardening smarter. But how exactly does this amazing AI-Garden work? Let's take a closer look. Next year, an AI-Garden in England will be shown. It uses an AI model to monitor the garden's environment and tell gardeners when plants need care.Gardeners can ask it questions, and it might reply, "I need a bit more water" or “I could use a haircut". This smart system is powered by two key parts:sensors（传感器）and a "digital brain". It was created by Avende and Microsoft. When it's ready, smart sensors hidden around the garden act as plant “health recorders". These sensors check soil conditions, including temperature and wetness.They can also sense things like strong winds or rainstorms. The data（数据）is sent to a special “digital brain"-an AI model in a small glass building at the back of the garden. Just like a super gardener, this AI model studies the information and tells gardeners the best time to fertilize（施肥）or water the plants,keeping every plant happy and healthy. All in all, whatever the challenges ahead are, I'm confident that as this AI-Garden improves, it will become a great helper for every gardener. With sensors as its “eyes” and the AI model as its "brain”, this smart garden truly listens to plants. It's bringing us closer to a future where garden care is easier and more fun with the help of technology. 26. The underlined word "monitor” in Paragraph 2probably means . A.clean B.watch C.control D.improve 27.What can we know from Paragraph 3? A. The AI model can water the plants by itself. B. The "digital brain" sends the data to sensors. C.The sensors are placed in a small glass building. D. The sensors can sense what the weather will be like. 28.What is the main purpose of the last paragraph? A. To list the challenges that the AI-Garden is facing now. B. To explain how the AI-Garden system works step by step. C.To show the writer's confidence in the future of the AI-Garden. D.To compare the AI-Garden with traditional gardening methods. 29.Which is the right structure of the passage? (①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph2,⋯) A. C. 30. What is the best title for the passage? A. Sensors and AI Models in Daily Life B.The Future of Gardening Technology C.How to Take Better Care of Your Garden D.A Smart AI-Garden for Modern Gardeners 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框内所列选项中，选出最佳选项填入对应空白处，使短文通顺、连贯。（选项中有一项多余） When people graduate from college, they usually think their education is complete. 31 On a personal level, learning can be fun. It can give you something interesting to talk about. And it is good for your bain. Just as exercise makes your body stronger,using your mind makes it sharper. 32 Knowledge in other areas can help you develop creative ideas in your present job. Also, becoming an expert in an area outside of your present job allows you to take a new job if you want to. 33 First, keep learning new things even when it isn't easy. It may help if you find friends who will encourage your learning. It's also a good idea to find time to learn during your day. Carry a book with you,and read when you have to wait.Audiobooks（有声读物）are also helpful. 34 Using what you learn can help you remember things. If you're learning to fix appliances（家用电器）,try fixing some at home. 35 And if you're learning anything new, explain it to others. That way, they can become lifelong learners too! A. So how do you become a lifelong learner? B.It encourages people to make themselves better. C.Being a lifelong learner can also help you with your work. D. You can listen to them while traveling or doing housework. E.But it's important to continue learning after finishing school. F. If you're learning a language, practice speaking with someone. 三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框中选出恰当的单词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意义完整。每空仅填一词，每词仅用一次。 litter because choose give activity grow good really in positive World Cleanup Day is a special day when people clean up the environment together. It will fall on September 16th this year. This event started years ago and has 36 into a global（全球的）movement． There are different kinds of 37 to do on that day. Some people might pick up 38 in their local parks or neighborhoods. Some might clean up rivers or beaches. Others mnight organize cleanup events in their communities, like 39 speeches,helping protect wildlife and keeping communities safe and healthy. Many people enjoy celebrating the day 40 it's a chance to make a difference in their communities. By working together with friends and neighbors,they can have a 41 effect on the environment and make the world a wonderful place. There are many different ways that people can take part 42 World Cleanup Day. Some people might join in local cleanup events. Others might organize events and invite friends and family to join them. No matter how people 43 the important thing is to help protect the environment. They can 44 make a difference in their local communities and even the whole planet. So if you are interested in making the world a cleaner and 45 place,why not join us in World Cleanup Day? 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，用英语填空或回答问题。（注意每小题的词数要求） Most people learn good manners as children but sometimes forget them as adults （成年人）.Yet good manners are always important because they show kindness and respect for others. Saying "please” and "thank you" are among the simplest ways of being polite.They show you notice and you are thankful for the nice things someone does for you.If you don't, you're treating someone like a servant who must obey you,and you don't care that someone takes the time to help you. When I was a child, I disliked writing thank-you notes. But as an adult,receiving such notes always makes me smile on hard days. I've learned that writing these notes makes someone feel loved and special. Saying “excuse me" is an easy way to get attention and show good manners.Whether you're asking for directions or needing help, starting with “excuse me”shows you value the other person's time and feelings. This small phrase helps to continue the conversation freely. Sometimes,good manners require silence. Listening carefully and silently shows you value the speaker. Also avoid disturbing someone who is talking with another person. In most cases, their topic may be more important than what you have to say. Remember,good manners are not just about following rules; they are about making others feel valued and respected. 46.Good manners can show people's for others.（不超过3词） 47-49.Fill in the blanks according to the passage. Example Purpose saying "please” and “thank you” show you notice and you are thankful writing thank-you notes 47 （不超过6词） 48 （不超过3词） get attention and show good manners listening carefully and silently show you 49 （不超过3词） 50.What can you learn from the last sentence of the passage? （结合自身实际，不超过20词） 第二节 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 你校英文校刊正在开展以“Healthier Mind,Better Life”为主题的征文活动。请你根据以下提示内容，用英文写一篇短文投稿。 注意： 1．根据上图所给提示，适当发挥； 2．文中不得出现真实姓名和校名； 3．词数80左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Healthier Mind,Better Life As middle school students, we sometimes face mental problems. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2026年中考第一次适应性考试英语试卷 参考答案 一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 1-5 CDACB 6-10 ADBCD 11-15 ABCDB 二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 16-20 DBACC 21-25 DBACB 26-30 BDCAD 31-35 ECADF 三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 36.grown 37.activities 38.litter 39.giving 40.because 41.positive 42.in 43.choose 44.really 45.better (3645小题拼写错误不给分，形式不正确不给分) 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分) 第一节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 46.kindness and respect 47.make someone feel loved and special 48.saying“excuse me 49.value /respect the speaker 50.言之成理即可，比如： We should have good manners to respect others. Good manners make others feel valued and respected. We should be polite and kind to people around us. The true meaning of good manners. Manners are about showing respect,not just following rules. Good manners are about respect and kindness,not just following rules The most important part of good manners is how you make other people feel. 说明：1.没按照词数要求答题，扣0.5分： 2.有语法错误，酌情扣分（词汇和小的语法错误13处扣0.5分，超过3处扣1 分；严重语法错误扣1分)； 3.大小写错误扣0.5分。 第50题评分细则 1.提炼、整合原文信息，有自主表达，表意准确、符合逻辑，允许有少量单词拼写、词 汇运用、语法结构等错误，可得2分。 2.提炼、整合原文信息，表意较为准确、符合逻辑，有少量单词拼写、词汇运用、语法 结构等错误，可得1.5分。 3.提炼、整合原文信息，表意基本准确，有部分单词拼写、词汇运用、语法结构等错误， 可得1分。 4.提到少量相关信息，有较多语言表达、单词拼写、语法结构等方面的错误，可得0.5 分。 5.完全答非所问，或未填写任何信息等，不得分。 第二节书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 一、评分重点 评分时，以内容要点、语言表达、逻辑连贯和紧扣主题等四个方面为重点。内容要点 主要涉及是否有效地涵盖了题目要求；语言表达着重关注考生在词、句、段、篇等各个层面 的表达情况：逻辑连贯考查考生在句间和段落间的衔接词运用和语意连贯层度：紧扣主题则 要求考生紧扣书面表达的主题，尤其注意不要跑题、不要写错体裁等。 二、评分方式 评分时，采用整体印象评分法。首先确定五类不同档次的分数，每档均有涉及内容要点、 语言表达、逻辑连贯和紧扣主题等四个方面的细则。阅卷教师应依据这四个方面的总体印象 大致判断所属档次，然后根据该档次细则进行调整，最后确定分数。 写作要点以词块的形式呈现，必须包括所有要点，每缺一个要点扣3分；对于要点提示 词，如果根据需要变换了表达方式，不扣分；文章必须根据要点合理扩展，使文章更完整、 自然，否则不能评定为第一档次；词数少于60的，从总分中扣去1分；书写较差，以致影 响理解的，从总分中扣去1分。 三、评分档次： 档次 分值 标准 1.覆盖所有内容要点，达到预期写作目的。 2.结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结 构和词汇，语法、词汇等方面错误较少，具备较强的语言运用能力， 一档 13--15 且书写规范，格式正确。 3.能有效地使用常见连接词表示顺序和逻辑关系，连接信息，做到 符合逻辑、意义连贯。 4.紧扣主题，无跑题、偏题等现象。 1.较好地完成了规定的写作任务，虽漏掉1、2处次重点写作信息， 但基本上包含所有内容要点。 2.结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少 二档 10--12 格式基本正确，书写较规范。 3.能应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 4.虽有少量无关信息，但基本能围绕主题。 1.基本上完成了规定的写作任务。重要的写作要点、内容信息有缺 三档 7.-9 失。 2 2.结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇 错误较多，但基本不影响理解。格式基本正确，书写基本规范。 3.能应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容基本连贯。 4.整体而言，基本能围绕主题，能看出写作意图。 1.未恰当完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点。 2.结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚、语法结构和词汇 四档 3--6 错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。 3.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 4.主题不太明确，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 1.未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。未能理解写作要求，明显遗漏 主要内容，只写出个别要点，写了一些无关内容。 2.结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多， 影响对写作内容的理解，书写不规范。 五档 0--2 3.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 4.主题完全不明，信息未能传达给读者。 5.无有效信息；照搬照抄试卷中原文：雷同试卷答题区域空白等情 况不得分。