安徽省合肥市滨湖世纪城中学2025-2026学年第二学期阶段测试八年级英语

2025-2026学年第二学期期中测试 八年级英语试题卷 （满分：100分 考试时间：100分钟） 第一部分 听力（满分20分） I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. When it Bill going to leave Guilin? A. B. C. 2. What does the boy think he can be? A. B. C. 3. What programme is Thomas listening to? A. A weather report. B. A news report. C. A music programme. 4. What does Rob want to learn to do? A. To play the piano. B. To write songs. C To play the violin. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to set up camp. B. Where to take a holiday. C. When to clean up the beach II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。 6. Which beach will the speakers go to tomorrow? A. White Sands Beach. B. Big World Beach. C. Blue Sky Beach. 7. What will the speakers do tomorrow? A. Swim in the sea. B. Have a picnic. C. Go sailing. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. What is Mr John’s House probably? A. A restaurant. B. A supermarket. C. A clothes shop. 9. How many people did Jane go camping with last Sunday A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 10. What animal did the rock look like? A. A bird. B. A tiger. C. A panda. III. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项. 短文读两遍。 11. What time did Helen start to work every morning? A. At 8: 00. B. At 8: 30. C. At 8: 40. 12. How long did it take Helen to get home by bus? A. Half an hour. B. One hour. C. One and a half hours. 13. What did Helen often do on the bus. A. She listened to music. B. She read emails. C. She made plans 14. Where did Helen and Eve sometimes go after work? A. To the cinema. B. To the park. C. To the museum. 15. What did Helen think of her part-time job? A. It was difficult. B. It was boring. C. It was interesting. IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 My life in France My homestay family They are very (16) _________ They both work as (17) _________ They leave the (18) _________ before me every morning. My school life I usually walk to the language school. If I’m late, I (19) _________ the bus. I have made lots of new friends. We often meet in a (n) (20) _________ house or go out to the cinema after school. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分20分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. If you keep trying and never give up, you will build up your _________ and do things better. A. drop B. pressure C. confidence D. effort 2. —My parents will be angry if I’m late for the family party. —Don’t worry. I’ll _________ you to leave on time. A. remind B. promise C. organise D. freeze 3. — You look so _________. Are you feeling all right? — I’m just a little tired. I’ll be OK soon A. pale B. proud C. glad D. mad 4. — Look! The old car can’t start again. — Yes, it often _________ on rainy days. A. takes off B. breaks down C. shuts down D. shows up 5. —I’m afraid I can’t finish the work in time. —_________. I’m sure you can make it. A. That’s no problem B. Take it easy C. Not at all D. It’s a pleasure VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Last term, our class took part in a meaningful football competition. At first, during the daily practice, we were not a good team at all. We just cared about our own ___6___ and didn’t listen to each other patiently. Some students only wanted to show themselves and seldom thought of the group. Our teacher told us that communication was ___7___ for a team. When we had different opinions, she asked us to communicate ___8___ and think about the whole group instead of ourselves alone. When someone made mistakes, we didn’t ___9___ or get angry easily. Instead, we would give kind advice and help each other out. Besides, we worked together to ___10___ a common goal and tried our best to achieve it as a team. In the end, we learned to be patient, and we became much ___11___ than before. During the competition, things didn’t always go well. We met many ___12___, but we encouraged each other ___13___ and kept trying together. We also ___14___ and supported each other all the time. To our joy, we won the first prize. This unforgettable experience taught us what makes a great team. The ___15___ of a great team is—it’s not about strong people, but about trust and teamwork. 6. A. ideas B. pains C. hobbies D. troubles 7. A. interesting B. relaxing C. necessary D. boring 8. A. loudly B. politely C. sadly D. angrily 9. A. notice B. cheat C. replace D. laugh 10. A. set B. miss C. forget D. leave 11. A. closer B. farther C. slower D. higher 12. A. chances B. difficulties C. messages D. competitions 13. A. clearly B. badly C. exactly D. warmly 14. A. shared B. stopped C. left D. finished 15. A. matter B. step C. secret D. race B Food is very important for our health. It helps our body ___16___ well in different life stages (阶段) , so we should ___17___ healthy eating habits from an early age. When we are babies, we need soft and healthy food to grow well. It is ___18___ for us to have soft food. As time passes, we become students, we ___19___ more different kinds of food to get ready for study and sports every day. Fresh vegetables and fruit provide useful vitamins (维生素) . Meat and eggs can make us strong. These foods can keep us ___20___ and away from illness. They can make our mind clear and help us learn ___21___ at school as well. We should ___22___ junk food like hamburgers and sweet drinks. It tastes good but is really bad for our body. Eating properly is a kind of self-care. It influences (影响) our ___23___ step by step. When we have a balanced diet, we can grow ___24___ and stay active. In short, remember to ___25___ food wisely and keep a healthy eating habit. They play an important role in our lifelong growth. 16. A. sleep B. work C. move D. speak 17. A. keep B. break C. catch D. throw 18. A. popular B. important C. dangerous D. different 19. A. make B. bring C. need D. hide 20. A. fit B. worried C. angry D. busy 21. A. widely B. badly C. happily D. quickly 22. A. pick up B. take off C. give out D. throw away 23. A. study B. growth C. success D. mind 24. A. slowly B. safely C. healthily D. quietly 25. A. choose B. realise C. check D. show 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分） VII. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Tony. I heard you attended the career talk last Friday afternoon. B: Yes, I did. ___26___ A: What did the speaker mainly talk about? B: He introduced many cool jobs, like pilots, designers and scientists. ___27___ A: That sounds meaningful. Did he talk about how to choose our future jobs? B: Sure. ___28___ A: I see. Which job are you interested in? B: ___29___ I hope to design wonderful things for people. A: Wonderful! I believe you’ll make it if you keep trying. B: Thanks. ___30___ A. I hope so too. B. I’m interested in designing. C. How often do you read books? D. Do you like your school life? E. It was quite helpful for our future. F. He also told us what each job needs. G. He said we should think about our hobbies and advantages (优点). VIII. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Nowadays, digital tools are everywhere in our life. They make our study and daily life easier and more interesting. But do you know how to use them wisely? Topic Our Colourful Digital Life Day Purpose To help students use digital tools wisely and make our life more colourful. Date April 20th/ Monday Time 2:30 p.m-4:30 p.m. Place School Hall Activities 1. Listen to a talk about safe digital life. 2. Learn to use apps for learning English and reading books. 3. Share how digital life helps with study and hobbies. 4. Watch short videos about warm digital stories. What to bring A pencil and a small notebook. Telephone 139xxxx5678 Warm Tip Don’t play games for too long. Use digital things in a right way. 31. What is the purpose of the school activity? A. To teach students to cook healthy food. B. To help students use digital tools wisely. C. To ask students to watch games all day. D. To hold a sports meeting for students. 32. When will the activity take place? A. April 20th, Monday B. April 12th, Friday C. May 20th, Sunday D. March 20th, Tuesday 33. What should students bring to the activity? A. A mobile phone. B. Some snacks. C. An English storybook. D. A pencil and a small notebook. 34. Which of the following is the warm tip from the poster? A. Play digital games as much as you can. B. Don’t use any digital tools at school. C. Don’t play games for too long. D. Use digital tools to do homework only. B I used to hate being different from my classmates. I am a quiet girl. While most of my classmates love noisy games and funny online videos, I prefer reading books alone and keeping diaries. At first, I paid little attention to this difference. But as time went by, I slowly felt left out (冷落). My classmates often talked about popular stars and hot jokes that I knew nothing about. When they gathered to laugh and chat happily, I could only stand aside (在旁边) silently. Some of them even thought I was boring and strange. Gradually, I was filled with huge peer pressure. I feared that they would make fun of me if I showed my real hobbies. To fit in with others, I tried my best to change myself. I made myself watch meaningless videos and acted interested in their topics. I gave up my favorite books and followed their choices blindly. However, I felt bored and sad every day. I lost my true self and just became a copy of others. Luckily, my head teacher talked with me patiently. She told me everyone is special and being different is never wrong. I finally realized that I should be myself instead of pleasing others. True friendship will accept who you are. 35. Why did the writer have strong peer pressure? A. She failed her exams many times. B. She was different from her classmates. C. She had no hobbies in her spare time. D. Her head teacher cared little about her. 36. What did the writer do to go along with others? A. She kept reading books day and night. B. She refused to talk with her classmates. C. She changed herself and followed others. D. She gave up listening to her teacher’s advice. 37. What can we learn according to the passage? A. Changing herself made the writer happy. B. The teacher advised her to hide true self. C. Her classmates always understood her. D. The writer felt tired after copying others. 38. What is the best title for the passage? A. Ways to Get Along with Classmates B. The Pressure of Being Different C. How to Develop Good Hobbies D. A Wonderful Talk with My Teacher C Good communication is the key to successful teamwork. In our school life, we often take part in group tasks such as sports games, class projects and study groups. Simply putting talented people together is never enough. Without proper and smooth communication, a team may fail easily, even if every member is hard-working and excellent alone. When team members communicate well, they can share thoughts freely and understand each other’s real needs. They discuss difficulties openly instead of hiding their worries or doubts. In this way, mistakes can be corrected early, as disagreements can be solved peacefully, and the team can work in an organized way. Poor communication however, always causes lots of trouble. Some members only stick to their own opinions and refuse to listen to their partners. They often misunderstand others and waste plenty of time on meaningless arguments (争论) . Slowly, the team loses trust and becomes unable to work well. As middle school students, we should learn to communicate politely and patiently. True teamwork does not require everyone to share the same idea, but to listen, respect and support each other. Good communication surely leads a team to finally achieve common goals. Only by communicating well can a team finally reach its shared dreams and long-term goals. 39. What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Excellent members are easy to find in a team. B. Success mainly depends on personal hard work. C. Group work is always difficult for ordinary students. D. Good communication matters greatly in teamwork. 40. What result may proper communication bring to a team? A. Members will avoid mistakes in time together. B. Members will never have different opinions. C. Members will refuse to share their own doubts. D. Members will argue with each other more often. 41. Which of the following is true about poor communication? A. It helps the team build long-term trust quickly. B. It makes team members understand each other well. C. It leads to misunderstanding and low efficiency. D. It encourages people to listen to different ideas. 42. What does the writer advise teenagers to do in teamwork? A. Always hold the same opinion as others. B. Complete projects with proper communication. C. Refuse to listen to different voices around them. D. Finish tasks as the team leader asks you to do. D In a small village by the sea, there lived a kind young boy named Leo. He loved the ocean and all the lovely animals that lived in it. Every summer, the village held a Beach Clean-Up Day to protect the ocean and keep it beautiful. Leo was excited to join this meaningful activity because he wanted to keep the beach clean and safe for the baby turtles that would soon hatch (孵化). On the morning of the event, Leo and his friends got together early with buckets and gloves. The teacher told everyone to look for rubbish and help protect the sea animals. They walked along the beach, picking up plastic bottles, broken fishing nets, and food wrappers. Leo worked very carefully and filled his bucket quickly. When he reached a quiet rocky area, he was surprised to find a small baby turtle stuck in a plastic bag. It could not move. He took out his small scissors and gently cut the bag. Then he set the turtle free. The little turtle crawled slowly toward the waves and swam away. By noon, the beach looked much cleaner. The villagers praised Leo for his kind heart and quick action. “You saved a life today,” said the old villager. Leo felt warm and proud. He said, “______43______.” 43. Why did the village hold a Beach Clean-Up Day? (不超过10个词） ______________________________________________________________________ 44. What did Leo find in the rocky area? (不超过5个词） ______________________________________________________________________ 45. What did Leo say to the villager? (不超过15个词） ______________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 语言综合运用（共两大题，满分20分） IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 46. The small b__________ (刷子) can help us clean the little corners of our school carefully. 47. Nothing is a__________ (糟糕的) if we keep a hopeful heart and try our best. 48. During the summer camp, we put up a t__________ (帐篷) and enjoyed the beautiful stars together at night. 49. When we face difficulties, we should not l__________ (降低) our head but keep trying. 50. Keeping healthy and active r__________ (需要) regular exercise and a balanced diet. X. 语法填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面短文，填入适当的单词或用括号内的单词的适当形式填空。 Last weekend, my family and I went to the beach. We had a great time. The clean water and soft sand ____51____ (love) by all of us. My sister enjoyed swimming in the sea. She is a good swimmer. I collected some beautiful ____52____ (stone) on the sand. The sun was shining ____53____ (bright). We also brought ____54____ (we) own food and drinks. For lunch, we had sandwiches and fruit. After lunch, we played beach volleyball. It was really fun. Suddenly, a wave came and washed away my hat. I felt sad, ____55____ my father bought me a new hat. Then we went home happily. XI. 书面表达（共1小题，满分10分） 56. 每个人在成长路上都会遇到烦恼与挑战，它们看似是阻碍，实则让我们变得更坚强。请以Growing Pains Make Me Stronger为题，写一篇英语短文。 作文要求：1. 把握要点，适当发挥。 2. 语言流畅，条理清晰，80-100词。 3. 文中不得出现真实姓名与校名。 Growing Pains Make Me Stronger _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025-2026学年第二学期期中测试 八年级英语试题卷 （满分：100分 考试时间：100分钟） 第一部分 听力（满分20分） I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. When it Bill going to leave Guilin? A. B. C. 2. What does the boy think he can be? A. B. C. 3. What programme is Thomas listening to? A. A weather report. B. A news report. C. A music programme. 4. What does Rob want to learn to do? A. To play the piano. B. To write songs. C To play the violin. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to set up camp. B. Where to take a holiday. C. When to clean up the beach II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。 6. Which beach will the speakers go to tomorrow? A. White Sands Beach. B. Big World Beach. C. Blue Sky Beach. 7. What will the speakers do tomorrow? A. Swim in the sea. B. Have a picnic. C. Go sailing. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. What is Mr John’s House probably? A. A restaurant. B. A supermarket. C. A clothes shop. 9. How many people did Jane go camping with last Sunday A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 10. What animal did the rock look like? A. A bird. B. A tiger. C. A panda. III. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项. 短文读两遍。 11. What time did Helen start to work every morning? A. At 8: 00. B. At 8: 30. C. At 8: 40. 12. How long did it take Helen to get home by bus? A. Half an hour. B. One hour. C. One and a half hours. 13. What did Helen often do on the bus. A. She listened to music. B. She read emails. C. She made plans 14. Where did Helen and Eve sometimes go after work? A. To the cinema. B. To the park. C. To the museum. 15. What did Helen think of her part-time job? A. It was difficult. B. It was boring. C. It was interesting. IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 My life in France My homestay family They are very (16) _________ They both work as (17) _________ They leave the (18) _________ before me every morning. My school life I usually walk to the language school. If I’m late, I (19) _________ the bus. I have made lots of new friends. We often meet in a (n) (20) _________ house or go out to the cinema after school. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分20分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】B VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【6~15题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C B 【16~25题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分） VII. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. E 27. F 28. G 29. B 30. A VIII. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【31~34题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. A 33. D 34. C B 【35~38题答案】 【答案】35. B 36. C 37. D 38. B C 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. D 40. A 41. C 42. B D 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. To protect the ocean and keep it beautiful. 44. A small baby turtle. 45. Protecting nature is important./It’s our duty to protect nature./... (保护环境言之有理即可) 第四部分 语言综合运用（共两大题，满分20分） IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【46题答案】 【答案】brush##rush 【47题答案】 【答案】awful##wful 【48题答案】 【答案】tent##ent 【49题答案】 【答案】lower##ower 【50题答案】 【答案】requires##equires X. 语法填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. were loved 52. stones 53. brightly 54. our 55. but XI. 书面表达（共1小题，满分10分） 【56题答案】 【答案】例文 Growing Pains Make Me Stronger I used to be afraid of speaking English in class. I worried about making mistakes and being laughed at, which made me really upset. To solve this problem, I practiced English every morning. I also asked my teacher for help. She encouraged me and told me mistakes are part of learning. Little by little, I dared to speak up. Now, I’m much more confident. This experience taught me to face challenges bravely. Growing pains make me stronger and help me grow into a better person. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $