2026年江西省抚州市部分学校中考二模九年级英语试题

英语试题卷 说明：1.本试题卷满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答，答在试题卷或其他位置无效。 一、听力理解(本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分) 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话，然后回答问题。 What is the boy going to buy? A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples. 答案是C。 A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What food does Luke like best? A. Noodles. B. Mooncakes. C. Dumplings. 2. How will the weather be tomorrow? A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny. 3. What's the matter with the man? A. He has a headache. B. His arm is hurt. C. He has a stomachache. 4. What is Annie doing? A. Watching a movie. B. Writing a report. C. Reading a storybook. 5. What does the man mean? A. The girl can watch TV now. B. The girl should practice the piano today. C. The girl can put off practicing the piano until tomorrow. B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。 6. Where was Alan at 4 p. m.? A. In the playground. B. At a book club. C. At his neighbor's home. 7. What does Alan's community hold every year? A. A football game. B. Different activities. C. A community party. 请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。 8. What will the woman have? A. Vegetable noodles. B. Beef noodles. C. Chicken noodles. 9. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Mother and son. C. Waiter and customer. 请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。 10. What are the speakers doing? A. Making a phone call. B. Doing some cleaning. C. Watering flowers. 11. When is this volunteer activity? A. This Saturday morning. B. This Saturday afternoon. C. This Sunday afternoon. 12. What can we learn from the conversation? A. Linda will do the cleaning alone. B. Tom is happy to join the activity. C. Tom has been to Green Park before. 请听第4段对话，回答第13至第15 小题。 13. What competition did John win? A. A reading competition. B. A singing competition. C. A dancing competition. 14. How long did John prepare for the competition? A. For about one week. B. For about two weeks. C. For about one month. 15. What does John want to be in the future? A. A writer. B. A teacher. C. A singer. C)请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。 16. The trip to the indoor farm is on . 17. Students will meet at the school gate at in the morning. 18. Students will visit the planting area first to see many growing in water. 19. Then each student can grow a small with the guide's help. 20. Students should stay with their groups and pay attention to their . 二、单项填空(本大题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分) 请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 21. When I felt sad, my parents were always there to offer by spending time with me. A. information B. support C. training D. health 22. Please watch the traffic lights when you are crossing the road. A. slowly B. quietly C. loudly D. carefully 23. Friendship is one of the most things in our life. A. general B. delicious C. valuable D. expensive 24.—— Why are you carrying so many books? —— Because I a report about Jingdezhen ceramic culture these days. A. prepared B. am preparing C. will prepare D. have prepared 25. I will go over the exercises I make sure I understand all the key points in math. A. until B. unless C. after D. whether 26.—— Do you think AI really helps humans in daily life? —— Yes. The invention of AI people's lives since it was used in many fields. A. improved B. improves C. will improve D. has improved 27.—— Which bag's price is ? —— The white one. It's two dollars and the blue one is three dollars. A. low B. lower C. high D. higher 28. The National Children's Diving Championships(Region C) in Nanchang from February 2 to 4, 2026, and all players enjoyed it. A. was held B. is holding C. will be held D. is held 三、完形填空(本大题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分) A)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 The morning air in Fuzhou is still and clear. From an old courtyard, a familiar 29 flows softly into the street. It is the voice of Wan An' an. The 84-year-old inheritor(传承人) of Fuzhou Tea-picking Opera is warming up for her daily 30 . “I can't go a day without singing,” Wan said with a gentle smile.“It's 31 a part of me.” Born in Fuzhou, Jiangxi province, Wan grew up at a time when Tea-picking Opera was popular in daily life. This art form started from local folk songs 32 is sung in the Fuzhou dialect(方言). It 33 stories of common people in a lively way with a bright voice. At just 14, Wan 34 the Fuzhou Tea-picking Opera Troupe(剧团).“The conditions were 35 ,” she recalled.“We had no professional teachers, but we gave it our all.” Her hard work 36 in 1959. Her performance in the revolutionary drama Red Pine Forest made her 37 across the country. In 2011, Fuzhou Tea-picking Opera became a national intangible cultural heritage. The next year, Wan was recognized as its national representative inheritor. Though she retired (退休) from the troupe in 2001, Wan never left the 38 completely. Instead, she tried her best to 39 young performers.“You must practice every day,” she told her 40 .“On stage, you need to interact with the audience. Only then can the play come 41 .” Today, Fuzhou's cultural scene is enriched by international exchanges. Wan 42 these exchanges.“It's a deep dia-logue between cultures,” she said.“Tea-picking Opera can also learn from Western stagecraft.” Even at 84, Wan continues to perform and teach.“I hope Tea-picking Opera can keep its traditional beauty and also take in new things,” she said.“It should be seen by more people and have a 43 future.” 29. A. dance B. movie C. song D. story 30. A. practice B. cleaning C. experience D. success 31. A. still B. sometimes C. never D. already 32. A. and B. before C. or D. for 33. A. adds B. tells C. finds D. notices 34. A. missed B. created C. left D. joined 35. A. perfect B. special C. difficult D. wonderful 36. A. paid off B. went on C. got through D. took up 37. A. lucky B. famous C. funny D. busy 38. A. seat B. countryside C. stage D. school 39. A. teach B. protect C. choose D. trust 40. A. listeners B. students C. neighbors D. friends 41. A. silent B. alone C. afraid D. alive 42. A. welcomes B. copies C. refuses D. minds 43. A. smaller B. closer C. brighter D. faster B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空，并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位每个词限用一次。 where carefully love us but same into river listen jump mark Long ago, there was a man from the State of Chu who owned a beautiful sword. The man 44 it so much that he took it everywhere he went. One day, he took a boat to go across a(n) 45 . As the boat moved, it rocked suddenly, and his sword fell 46 the river. The fisherman old him 47 in quickly, but the man had another idea. He took out a knife and made a(n)48 on the boat. He believed that by marking where the sword dropped, he could jump in at the 49 place after reac-ing the bank and find it easily. The fisherman tried to tell him that it would not work, but the man didn't 50 . When the boat reached the bank, he mped into the water right where the mark was. He found nothing and wondered 51 his sword had gone. The fisherman said, “The mark moved with the boat, 52 the sword stayed in the middle of the river.” The man fi-ally understood. He had lost his sword because of his foolish mistake. The story tells us that we should think 53 before aking decisions. Also, we should consider the changes around 54 8、阅读理解(本大题共23小题，每小题2分，共46分) A)请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项黑。 A 5. What can you do in the Goals Journal club? A. Write letters to your friends. B. Borrow books from the library. C. Record your goals and plan steps. D. Watch movies with other students. 6. What is the requirement for becoming a student helper? A. Being in Grade 8. B. Speaking three languages. C. Working on Sunday morning. D. Being a member of this club for one year. i7. Who is the passage probably written for? A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Parents. D. Doctors. B Hari Budha Magar, a former soldier from Nepal, reached the top of Mount Vinson in Antarctica in January 2026. He successfully completed the“seven summits” challenge. He has climbed the highest mountain on each of the world's seven continents(洲). Magar, aged 46, also set a record as the first person with both legs cut off above the knee to complete this challenge. Magar was born into a poor family in Nepal. He joined the British Army at age 19. In 2010, while in Afghanistan, he lost both legs in an explosion(爆炸). After that, Magar found it hard to get back to normal life. He got artificial(人工的)legs and slowly learned to walk again. Later, he decided to follow his childhood dream of becoming a mountain climber. Magar trained for five years. He also had to ask experts to make special artificial legs and other equipment for him tc climb in very difficult conditions on the world's highest mountains. In 2019, he reached the top of Mount Blanc in Europe.Then he climbed Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa, Mount Qomolangma in Asia, Mount McKinley in North America, MounAconcagua in South America, and Mount Puncak Jaya in Oceania. They were all extremely challenging, but he successfully reached every summit. Along the way, Magar met many challenges. He was not allowed to climb Mount Qomolangma at first because of his disa-bility. He only got permission after a legal(合法的) fight. Now he wants to help people understand more about disabilities.He also plans to give the money he raised from the seven summits challenge to groups that help veterans (老兵).“If you have a dream and give it your all and never give up, you can achieve anything,” he said. 58. What made Magar's“seven summits” challenge special? A. He finished the challenge at age 46. B. He climbed the mountains with both legs cut off. C. He reached the top of each continent. D. He was the first climber to climb Mount Vinson. 59. What does the underlined word“They” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. The special artificial legs. B. The experts who helped him. C. The mountains he climbed. D. The challenges he faced. 60. Put the events about Magar into the correct order according to the passage. a. He lost both legs in an explosion. b. He completed the“seven summits” challenge. e. He decided to become a mountaineer. d. He joined the British Army. A. d-a-c-b B. a-b-c-d C. c-d-a-b D. d-c-a-b 61. What is Magar like according to the passage? A. Friendly and honest. B. Lucky and confident. C. Strong and brave. D. Quiet and polite. 62. What do Magar's words mean at the end of the passage? A. Dreams are easy to achieve. B. Only soldiers can climb mountains. C. Giving up is sometimes a good choice. D. Hard work and never giving up can lead to success. C Often called the smartest bird in the world, the grey parrot catches people's eye because of its soft feathers and curious eyes. However, what truly makes it stand out is its excellent memory and amazing learning ability. One of these parrots' most unbelievable talents is mimicking human voices. They can learn hundreds of words and also make their tones(语调) and emotions(情感) sound like those of humans. Some pet owners say that their grey parrots can even sing short songs or repeat daily phrases like“good morning” at the right time of day. Scien-tists have even studied them to learn about their problem-solving skills and learning abilities. The most famous example is that a parrot named Alex could count, recognize colors, and answer simple questions. All of these show that these birds understand far more than once believed. Africa is the home of grey parrots. They have long been celebrated in old African stories. Among the Yoruba people,grey parrots are related to royalty(皇室) and spiritual messages. They are important because their feathers are often used in important ceremonies(仪式) to communicate with nature. In Ashanti traditions, the parrots serve as a means of sending messages between real life and the world of imagination.It's a sign of great cultural respect. Today, though still respected in stories and traditions, grey parrots face many problems and dangers. Their living space is becoming smaller and smaller. And the illegal trade has caused their numbers in the wild to drop greatly. While they remain good friends or family members in homes worldwide, these smart birds are in great need of protection to save their future. 63. What makes the grey parrot truly stand out from other birds? A. Its role in African traditions. B. Its soft feathers and curious eyes. C. Its ability to live in different places. D. Its good memory and amazing learning ability. 64. What does the underlined word“mimicking” in Paragraph 2 probably mean? A. Following. B. Recognizing. C. Comparing. D. Copying. 65. Why were grey parrots important in Yoruba culture? A. Because their feathers were used for trade. B. Because they were kept as pets by important people. C. Because their feathers were used to communicate with nature. D. Because they could send messages between different groups of people. 66. Which of the following is the structure of the passage? A.①/②③④⑤⑥ B.①/②③/④⑤/⑥ C.①/②③/④⑤⑥ D. ①②/③/④⑤/⑥ 67. What is the main purpose of the last paragraph? A. To show how to keep parrots as pets. B. To explain why grey parrots are smart. C. To call for protection of grey parrots. D. To introduce African stories about parrots. D If you' re nearsighted, you can see close things clearly, but things far away look blurry(模糊的). This is a problem that is becoming more common in kids around the world. Research shows that spending a couple of hours outside every day can help stop or slow down nearsightedness, although scientists are not sure why. One possible reason is that your eyes see more changes in light and more different shapes outside instead of just smooth, flat shapes. This natural environment gives your eyes a kind of exercise. It serves as an exercise for your eyes, which helps them stay healthy as you grow. To test this idea, scientists in China decorated(装饰) indoor classrooms to look like woodlands. They covered walls and desks with pictures of trees and bushes(灌木). They painted the ceiling(天花板) to look like the sky. They tried to create as much visual stimulation(视觉刺激) for the eyes to see as students would find outdoors. For one year, about 250 nine-year-olds had their lessons in the woodland classrooms, while another 250 were taught in regular classrooms with white walls. At the end of the year, the scientists tested the children's vision(视力) and found that the kids in the woodland classrooms showed fewer signs of nearsightedness. However, being in the decorated classrooms did not help kids who were already nearsighted. Experts say that decorating classrooms cannot replace spending time outdoors,but it might be better than nothing. 68. Why might spending time outside be good for our eyes? A. Because the air is cleaner outside. B. Because the sun makes our eyes stronger. C. Because there are fewer things to look at. D. Because our eyes can see more changes and shapes. 69. What can we know about the woodland classroom? A. It was built outside. B. It had strong light. C. It had white walls. D. It had tree pictures on walls. 70. How many children took part in the experiment described in the passage? A. Around 250. B. Around 500. C. Around 750. D. Around 1000. 71. What's the main idea of the last paragraph? A. Spending time outdoors is not important for eye health. B. Decorated classrooms can help but cannot replace the outdoor activities. C. Decorating classrooms is the best way to prevent nearsightedness. D. Experts suggest that classrooms should be decorated like woodlands. 72. Where is the passage most probably from? A. A health magazine. B. A sports magazine. C. A travel guide. D. A computer magazine. B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文意思通顺、结构完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。 A simple way to relax is reading in a quiet, comfortable place. Reducing distractions(使人分心的事) from phones and noise helps you focus. You don't need much room. 73 Find a quiet, comfortable place. Your reading nook can be a corner, a soft chair, or your bed. With an adult's help,get some things from home to make it comfortable. 74 You can also put a small plant, a family photo, or a picture you like, which can help you feel relaxed. Adjust(调节) the lighting. 75 With an adult's help, you can move a floor lamp beside or behind the area where you' ll read a book. Or position a lamp with an adjustable arm over your reading place. If you' re reading in bed, you can set up a simple book light or use a flashlight to read under the covers. 76 The most important thing you need for your reading place is, of course, books! You can keep a book within reach on a nightstand or a small table. Or keep a small group of books so you can choose one depending on your mood. Make any space comfortable for reading. You can create a“book corner” almost anywhere. Pack a book and a blan-ket in your bag for a trip to the park, or bring a book and a soft pillow on a long trip. 77 You can also talk to your family about downloading an audiobook(有声书) you can all enjoy together on car rides. A. They' re cheap. B. Here's how to start. C. Keep books close by. D. Home is the best place for reading. E. Add a pillow, a soft blanket, or your favorite toy. F. Libraries also have plenty of seating to enjoy reading. G. You need enough light to read without hurting your eyes. 五、补全对话(本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分) 请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。 (Mary is interviewing Peter. Mary=M, Peter=P) M: Do you mind answering some questions for our reading research? P: Of course not! 78 I'd be happy to help. M: How often do you read books? P: 79 M: What are you reading now? P: 80 M: So what kind of books do you like? Travel stories? P: Not really. 81 M: That's great. By the way, when do you read? P: Let me see... Almost before going to bed. M: Got it! Thanks for answering all my questions! P: 82 Hope your research goes well! A. You' re welcome. B. More or less every day. C. I'm reading a travel book. D. Where do you like to read? E. What would you like to know? F. The book is bought by my father. G. I like history books and science fiction. 六、书面表达(15分) .2026年2月6日至22日米兰冬奥会成功举办，冰雪健儿的拼搏身姿点燃了全民健身的热情。为了加强学生的体育锻炼，学校英语专栏以“Keep Fit”为题向学生征文。请根据下列写作要点写一篇短文投稿。 写作要点： 1. What's your favorite way of exercising? 2. Why do you choose this way? Give three reasons. 3. What's your advice to others? 写作要求： 1.短文应包括所有写作要点，条理清晰，行文连贯，可适当发挥； 2.短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息； 3.短文不少于80词。开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Keep Fit Regular exercise helps keep fit. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $江西省2026年初中学业水平考试英语试题卷黑卷现在是试听时间，请听一段对话，然后回答问题。I'm going shopping. Mom, do you need anything? Yes, get some apples and some oranges to make juice with. Well, we already have lots of oranges. Okay, just some apples, then. 答案是CA请听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。Number one, look what food do you like best. I like . dumplings is best. Look what food do you like best. I like dumplings best. Number two, look at those dark clouds will be clear up by tomorrow. I'm afraid not. The weather report says it'll be rainy tomorrow too. Oh, no. So no picnic tomorrow. Look at those dark clouds will IT clear up by tomorrow. I'm afraid not. The weather report says it'll be rainy . tomorrow too. Oh, no. So no picnic tomorrow. Number three, doctor, my ARM hurts badly. I think I pulled IT while playing basketball yesterday. Don't lift heavy things. It'll get Better soon. Doctor, my ARM hurts badly. I think I pulled IT while playing basketball yesterday. Don't lift heavy things. It'll get Better soon. Number four, hey, what's Annie doing over there in the library? She's reading a storybook look. She's smiling. IT must be very interesting. Oh, SHE does that when she's into a book. Hey, what's Annie doing over there in the library? She's reading a storybook look. She's smiling. IT must be very interesting. Oh, SHE does that when she's into a book. Number five, dad, can I practice the piano tomorrow? I want to watch T. V now. Never put off what you can do today till tomorrow. Dad, can I practice the piano tomorrow? I want to watch T, V now. Never put off what you can do today till tomorrow. B请听下面四段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍，请听第一段对话，回答第六、七小题。Allen, I called you at four P. M. You didn't answer. sorry. I was playing a community basketball game in the playground. then was IT held by your community. Yeah, our community holds different activities every year. Lucky you. Yeah, i'm happy here. Allan, I called you at four P. M. You didn't answer. sorry. I was playing a community basketball game in the playground. then was IT held by your community. Yeah, our community holds different activities every year. Lucky you. Yeah, i'm happy here. 请听第二段对话，回答第八、九小题。Hello, a table for one, please. Right this way, here's the menu. thanks. I'd like to order one vote of noodles. please. sure. What kind of noodles would you like? We have beef noodles and vegetable noodles. Beef noodles, please. great. And anything to drink? Just hot tea. thanks. Got IT your order will be ready soon. Hello, a table for one, please. Right this way, here's the menu. thanks. I'd like to order one bowl of noodles, please. sure. What kind of noodles would you like? We have beef noodles and vegetable noodles. Beef noodles, please. great. And anything . to drink? Just hot tea. thanks. Got IT your order will be ready soon. 请听第三段对话，回答第十至第十二小题。Hello, this is Linda speaking. Is that tom? Hi Linda. This is tom. I'd like to invite you to join us for a volunteer activity . at Green park. Well, what will we do? We will do some cleaning and water the flowers and trees. There sounds good. That's really meaningful. When is the activity . this saturday afternoon? And we will meet at the school gate. Okay, i'm free. Then i'd love to join you. Hello, this is Linda speaking. Is that tom? Hi Linda. This is tom. I'd like to invite you to join us for a volunteer activity at Green park. Well, what will we do? We will . do some cleaning and water the flowers and trees. There sounds good. That's really meaningful. When is the activity . this saturday afternoon? And we will meet at the school gate. Okay, i'm free. Then i'd love to join you. 请听第四段对话，回答第十三至第十五小题。Hi, john. I heard that you want the school reading competition. congratulations. Thanks, mary. I was really surprised. How long did you prepare . for IT for about one month? I read one book every week. That's a lot. Did you have time for other things? I finished my homework first, then read before bed. That's a good habit. Do you want to be a writer . in the future? Yes, I love telling stories. I hope to write my own book one day. great. Keep reading and . writing. I will. Thanks mary. Hi, john. I heard that you want the school reading competition. congratulations. Thanks, mary. I was really surprised. How long did you prepare . for IT for about one month? I read one book every week. That's a lot. Did you have time for other things? I finished my homework first, then read before bed. That's a good habit. Do you want to be a writer . in the future? Yes, I love telling stories. I hope to write my own book one day. great. Keep reading and . writing. I will. Thanks mary. C请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过三个单词，将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前，你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容，独白读两遍。Attention class. Now i'd like to tell you about our trip to an indoor farm this saturday. We will meet at the school gate at eight in the morning. Then we will take the bus to the farm and arrive there around nine thirty. The farm tour will be from ten o'clock to eleven thirty. There are two main activities. First, we will visit the planting area where we can see many Green vegetables les growing in water. The guide will teach us how to grow and take care of them. Next, we will experience planting in another area. We can each grow a small flower with the guidance help. Please stay with your group and pay attention to your safety. I hope everyone can learn something from this trip. Let's make IT a great trip. Attention class. Now i'd like to tell you about our trip to an indoor farm this saturday. We will meet at the school gate at eight in the morning. Then we will take the bus to the farm and arrive there around nine thirty. The farm tour will be from ten o clock to eleven thirty. There are two main activities. First, we will visit the planting area where we can see many Green vegetables growing in water. The guide will teach us how to grow and take care of them. Next, we will experience planting in another area. We can each grow a small flower with the guidance help. Please stay with your group and pay attention to your safety. I hope everyone can learn something from this trip. Let's make IT a great trip.