安徽省合肥市包河区2026年中考二模英语试卷

2025-2026学年第二学期教学质量检测（二） 九年级英语试题卷 （满分120分 考试时间120分钟） 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Tony going to learn this summer holiday? A. B. C. 2. Which gift may the girl buy for her mom? A. B. C. 3. Which festival is the liveliest in the girl’s country? A. The Dragon Boat Festival. B. The Mid-Autumn Festival. C. The Spring Festival. 4. How soon will the cinema open? A. In 10 minutes. B. In 15 minutes. C. In 20 minutes. 5. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Cousins. B. Strangers. C. Friends. Ⅱ．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7题。 6. What kind of books is the man looking for? A. Books on art. B. Books on science. C. Books on geography. 7. How many books can the man check out each time? A. At most two. B. At most three. C. At most four. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8. What did Mike do last Saturday morning? A. He did voluntary work. B. He learned first aid. C. He played in a park. 9. Who helped Mike send the boy to the hospital? A. The boy’s parents. B. Mike’s classmates. C. Some passers-by. 10. What does the girl think of Mike? A. Good and helpful. B. Good but careless. C. Brave and honest. Ⅲ．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Who is Mr Henry? A. Amy’s guide. B. Amy’s father. C. Amy’s friend. 12. What happened to Amy’s team last night? A. A strong wind broke their tents. B. Some monkeys entered their tents. C. Their food was finished by bears. 13. How did the speaker feel after getting Amy’s call? A. Surprised. B. Worried. C. Angry. 14. What did Mr Henry advise the speaker to do? A. To get Amy back. B. To send food to Amy. C. To believe in Amy. 15. What will the speaker do after the call? A. She will go and take good care of Amy in person. B. She will help Amy repair the tents or bring a new tent. C. She will ask Amy to solve the problems with her team. IV．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Self-study Advantages ★It 16 us to learn more and study better. ★It helps us manage ourselves, making us more organized and 17 . ★It helps train our 18 to think and improve our problem-solving skills. Ways of self-study ★Set clear goals first to help us know what we want to achieve. ★Take online courses because they can provide us with a 19 of knowledge and materials. ★Manage our time so that we can 20 our studies and other activities. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V．单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. — I’m a little worried that I might forget the ______ during my speech. — Take it easy. You’ve prepared really well. A. belts B. prizes C. menus D. lines 22. In a team, we should work hard on our own instead of ______ too much from others. A. suffering B. protecting C. expecting D. separating 23. The speaker was ______ and shared many funny stories to make his opinions easy to accept. A. curious B. humorous C. single D. peaceful 24. — Some teenagers may not quite understand ______ there are so many rules. — If there are no rules, everything will be out of order. A. when B. whether C. where D. why 25. — How was the test? Was it difficult? — Not really. ______ was easy except the last two. A. Everything B. Something C. Anything D. Nothing 26. — You will never know your friend ______ you stand in his shoes. — That’s the spirit. A true friend is someone who always considers your feelings. A. as B. though C. since D. unless 27. — I heard the events and people in the film are real. — Yes. Actually, it ______ in honour of Wu Shi and other heroes of the secret front. A. will film B. was filmed C. filmed D. will be filmed 28. Thank you so much for giving me a ride. Just ______ near the shopping mall. A. bring me up B. drop me off C. kick me out D. knock me down 29. If everyone does his part in daily life, the environment will get better ______. A. lately B. correctly C. naturally D. seriously 30. — AI has greatly changed our lives, yet many people depend on it too much. — ______. What matters is how we use it wisely. A. That’s the point B. Not at all C. Help yourself D. It’s a deal VI．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Next door to each other lived two women, Anna and Bella. Both loved 31 . Anna wanted quick results, so she bought the most beautiful, fully-grown 32 from the market and planted them in her garden. It looked perfect immediately. Bella, however, started with young sprouts (幼苗). Her garden looked 33 and empty at first. One night, a strong storm 34 their small town. The next morning, Anna’s garden was a sad 35 . Her large flowers were broken and looked terrible, because their roots (根) were not strong enough to 36 the wind. She was sad to see her garden in such a mess. She then 37 Bella’s garden. To her surprise, the young plants were still there. They were bent (弯曲的) but not 38 . Their roots, grown deep and strong while no one was watching, had held them in the earth. Within days, they stood 39 again, even greener than before. Anna finally understood true strength and beauty need time and deep roots to grow. Sometimes 40 and hard work are more valuable than quick success, because quick and easy results may not last when difficulties come. 31. A. swimming B. painting C. skating D. gardening 32. A. crops B. fruits C. flowers D. vegetables 33. A. thick B. lonely C. crowded D. clean 34. A. hit B. stopped C. saved D. missed 35. A. lesson B. answer C. sight D. choice 36. A. stand B. direct C. catch D. follow 37. A. dug B. watered C. noticed D. reported 38. A. smooth B. round C. smelly D. broken 39. A. silently B. straight C. lazily D. alone 40. A. patience B. courage C. progress D. confidence B Almost everybody makes video calls every day, but do you know when the video call first appeared? According to the record, this useful 41 didn’t appear until the late 19th century. However, common people could not use it until the 1930s. At that time, very few people had chances to 42 it as the machine was big and not easy to carry. Besides, these early machines were only shown in post offices. As well as these reasons, it was 43 to use phone lines to send videos also because videos were large then and scientists did not have the technology to make them 44 . Then in 1955, a lab called Kay Lab in San Diego made the “Television-Phone”, which could show a 25-centimeter picture of the person you called. And the picture stayed on the 45 until someone hung up. It was a big 46 for video calling. From the 1980s to the 1990s, video calling systems became better. But they were still very 47 . Only governments and large companies could afford them. In the late 20th century, high-speed broadband (宽带) Internet 48 . Since then, video calling has become a useful tool for common people and an important part of our lives. It 49 people to talk face to face whenever and wherever they are. Although there were some embarrassing (令人尴尬的) mistakes when people used the technology — for example, people might 50 show private information to their workmates or family — it overall brought the world much closer. 41. A. habit B. method C. table D. tool 42. A. fill B. tap C. try D. fix 43. A. difficult B. enjoyable C. creative D. shameful 44. A. brighter B. thinner C. faster D. smaller 45. A. wall B. screen C. hill D. road 46. A. trade B. block C. risk D. step 47. A. expensive B. heavy C. noisy D. strange 48. A. fell over B. came out C. cut in D. went off 49. A. forces B. enables C. warns D. requires 50. A. especially B. properly C. accidentally D. actively VII．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Long time no see, Johnson. What do you do now? B: I work as a helper at an animal hospital. A: 51 Why did you decide to get the job? B: Well, I’ve always loved animals. 52 A: Do you like your job? B: 53 For example, I can be around animals all day. And I can help sick animals get well. A: Are there any bad parts? B: Well, you have to clean up after the animals. 54 Also, you might get bitten. A: I see. 55 B: Yes, I really love it. A. I’ve given it all. B. That sounds cool. C. It can be pretty messy. D. I wanted to work with them. E. Sure, it has many good parts. F. Do you think it’s your dream job? G. How do you deal with the sick ones? 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） VIII．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Community Safety Activities Green Community offers free safety lessons for all people. We invite you to join in our activities in August. Family Fire Safety Class Time: 6:00–7:30 p.m. Free for community members Non-members: ¥15 per family Monday, August 5: How to call 119 correctly Wednesday, August 7: How to use fire extinguishers (灭火器) Friday, August 9: Safe indoor activities Sunday, August 11: Safety Sharing Day Kids’ Traffic Safety Program Time: 5:00–5:30 p.m. For children aged 10–13 August 19–22 : Learn traffic rules and road signs Sign up at: greencommunity.org Contact (联系): Mrs. Li Email: li@greencommunity.org For more information, please click: www.greencommunity.org A. How to call 119 correctly. B. Safety Sharing Day. C. Safe indoor activities. D. How to use fire extinguishers. 57. What do these safety activities have in common? A. They are free to enter. B. They are held in August. C. They last for 1. 5 hours. D. They are for children only. 58. Where can we probably read the text? A. In a story book. B. In a travel guide. C. On a community website. D. In a science magazine. B A young boy named Alex was not good at his schoolwork, but he discovered the amazing world of chess. Unluckily, his parents did not support his interest. “Chess will not help you in the future,” his parents often told him. They kept telling him how important schoolwork was. His friends also laughed at him, saying that playing chess was just a waste of time. But Alex kept trying. He spent his free time learning chess late at night after finishing his homework. He watched online lessons and played against the computer to improve. Although he had little time, he loved chess more and more each day. Months later, there was a local chess competition. Alex saw it as a great chance. It was harder than ever to balance study and chess practice, but he did not give up. He hoped to do something great. The day of the competition arrived. Alex felt nervous but excited. The games were difficult. Every move needed careful thinking, and all the players were very good. However, ▲ He won the first prize. He brought home not only a cup, but also support from his friends and, more importantly, from his parents. Later, Alex told his classmates that chess was more than just a game. It taught him about planning, patience, and how to keep trying when facing difficulties. Winning the competition was great, but the real success was finding his own way to learn. 59. What did Alex’s parents think of playing chess at first? A. They thought it helped a lot. B. They thought it was useless. C. They thought it cost a lot. D. They thought it was difficult. 60. Which of the following sentences can be put in the ▲ ? A. Alex’s parents didn’t stand by him. B. Alex’s hard work finally paid off. C. Alex had to give up his schoolwork. D. Alex failed to complete the match. 61. Which of the following sayings can best describe Alex? A. Many hands make light work. B. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket. C. Don’t judge a book by its cover. D. Nothing is impossible for a willing heart. C Lucas Green and his team work hard to develop clean energy and protect our planet. They believe great inventions can make the Earth a better home for everyone. Their latest creation is SunBox, a small, light machine that turns sunlight into electricity for families. It is easy to use and carry, and has become very popular in many remote (偏远的) and poor areas. They have also invented WindyBot, a helpful tool that uses wind power to help farmers water their fields with little effort. This saves them a lot of time and energy. Another invention is EcoBag, a strong and reusable bag that helps cut down plastic waste. All these inventions are friendly to the environment. However, Lucas is proudest of SharePower. It’s a special machine widely used in schools to teach students about clean energy in fun and simple ways. Developing it wasn’t easy. The first version (型号) was too big and hard to use, so the team had to start over. They tested again and again, fixing small problems each time, until they got it right. His team has made its design free for schools around the world. They hope more young people will learn about clean energy and take action to protect the Earth. “Failure is not the end,” Lucas says. “It just tells us what we need to improve. We must keep trying new ways. Only in this way can we make better technology and build a greener world for us all.” 62. What is the newest invention of Lucas’s team? A. WindyBot. B. SunBox. C. EcoBag. D. SharePower. 63. What is special about SharePower? A. It can turn sunlight into electricity. B. It can help cut down plastic waste. C. Farmers can use it to water fields easily. D. Schools in the world can use it for free. 64. What can we infer about Lucas and his team? A. They don’t like working with others. B. They are patient and hard-working. C. They are good at selling products. D. They like teaching students at schools. 65. How can people make better technology according to Lucas? A. By developing more reusable products. B. By using machines in poor areas. C. By continuing to explore new methods. D. By learning more about clean energy. D Nowadays, most of us buy plenty of food from supermarkets and store it in the fridge. But here’s a common mistake: we often eat leftover (残留的) food without checking it first. This small carelessness can actually bring big health risks! A recent example shows why food safety matters so much. A middle school student ate some meat from the fridge and got really sick. His parents hurried to take him to the hospital. The doctor explained: the meat had gone bad, and that’s what caused his terrible stomachache. Later, the family found out they’d made two mistakes — they forgot to check the expiry date (保质期), and kept the meat in the fridge for too long. Luckily, avoiding such trouble is easy if we follow these simple rules. First, always check the expiry date before buying or eating any food. Second, if food smells terrible or looks strange, just throw it away — don’t eat it! Third, keep raw (生的) and cooked food separate in the fridge. This stops them from polluting each other. Food safety is very important for our health. Being careful with what we eat keeps us safe and strong. So let’s all get into good habits and take food safety seriously — it’s something everyone needs to do! 66. What does the example of a middle school student in Paragraph 2 tell us? A. People get sick easily now. B. Doctors are very important. C. Never put meat in the fridge. D. Be careful about food safety. 67. What’s the main idea of the third paragraph? A. Advice on keeping food safe. B. Importance of following rules. C. Risks of eating unhealthy food. D. Reasons to avoid eating raw food. 68. Which of the following is the best title (标题) for the text? A. How to check expiry dates correctly. B. Where to buy safe and fresh food. C. Why raw and cooked food need separation. D. The importance of food safety for health. E When you think about vacations, what comes to mind? Visiting 10 countries on a busy one-week trip? Spending all day and night with family or friends? These are all popular but tiring ways to spend holidays. In general, sleeping is not seen as the most important thing for people on vacation. But recently, more and more travellers are choosing something distinct — sleep tourism. It is all about people’s wish to go to bed and have a good rest. People’s lives are full of busy work times and different needs. Late-night meetings, endless to-do lists and noisy city environments fill every day. So, getting a good night’s sleep is not always easy. The United Kingdom reports that over 70% of its people say they sleep poorly, and many of them say they feel tired and have no energy even after a whole night in bed. A recent report from Hilton Hotels showed that rest was the top reason people wanted to travel last year. The report also said that more travellers would plan their whole vacation around resting and getting their energy back. So hotels begin to improve sleep services. One Italian hotel uses traditional Chinese medicine to improve people’s sleep. A hotel in Thailand offers a special massage (按摩), followed by a relaxing bath to help people fall asleep easily. Guests at a California hotel can fall asleep to a “sound bath” provided by a live musician. These days, the best way for some to take a vacation is to sleep through it. 69. What does the underlined word “distinct” in Paragraph 1 mean? A. Tiring. B. Different. C. Popular. D. Simple. 70. What can we infer from Paragraph 2? A. Many people feel tired in daily life. B. People like having meetings at night. C. People in the UK sleep the latest. D. Sleep tourism started in the UK. 71. How is Paragraph 4 mainly developed? A. By giving some examples. B. By explaining reasons. C. By listing some numbers. D. By comparing hotels. 72. What’s the purpose of the text? A. To advise people to travel more. B. To explain reasons why people sleep late. C. To show how busy people’s lives are. D. To introduce a new way to spend a vacation. 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 F Last summer, 15-year-old Mia spent a happy holiday on her grandparents’ farm. One warm afternoon, as she walked through the grass, she found a tiny bird lying weakly on the ground. Its wing was hurt, and it could not fly, looking lonely and helpless. Mia felt a deep pity for the little bird, so she gently (轻柔地) picked it up, took it home and put it in a soft box lined with cotton. Every day, she fed it warm rice and clean water, watching over it carefully. A week passed, and the bird’s wing got much better. It became lively and cute, and Mia fell in love with it deeply — she wanted to keep it as her pet forever. But her grandpa noticed her thought and said softly, “My dear, look at the little bird. It will never feel comfortable if it keeps staying in such a small box. Let it fly back to where it truly belongs.” Mia felt a little sad but understood her grandpa’s words. She opened the box gently. The bird hopped (跳) out, moved its wings happily, and flew up into the tall tree nearby. It sang a bright song, as if saying “thank you” to her. That autumn, many birds came to the trees of the farm, singing and dancing. Mia understood her grandpa and learned an important lesson. 73. How did Mia feel when she saw the bird?（不超过10个词） 74. What did Mia want to do after the bird got better?（不超过10个词） 75. What important lesson did Mia understand in the end?（不超过15个词） 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76. You’d better not m (标记) a book that doesn’t belong to you. 77. It’s necessary for students to learn some b (基础的) life skills. 78. In the last round, our team s (得分) again and won the match. 79. On the table there is a glass b (瓶子) with a few flowers in it. 80. Every great idea starts as a c (模仿), but people make it their own. X．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 假设你是李辉，为响应安徽省“爱的生长”教育号召，你班设立了“Help & Share Corner”互助分享角。请结合图示信息，向你的美国笔友Mike介绍这个分享角，并讲述一个在这里发生的、让你印象深刻的温暖瞬间。 Help & Share Corner 注意：1．语言规范，意思连贯，条理清晰； 2．必须包含所有提示要点，可适当发挥； 3．词数：80-100词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Mike, How is everything going? Yours, Li Hui 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $