山西晋中市2025-2026学年4月期中高二下学期素养测评(二) 英语试题

2025—2026学年高二下学期素养测评（二） 英语试题 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的Ａ、、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will the woman do on Saturday night? A. Visit a popular singer. B. Go to Lily’s party. C. Buy a birthday present. 2. What does Jean think of her travel experience? A. It’s just so-so. B. It’s quite disappointing. C. It’s very satisfactory. 3. What did the man eat yesterday evening? A. Seafood. B. Steak. C. Hamburger. 4. Why does the woman come to the man? A. To ask for direction. B. To consult about a show. C. To make a reservation. 5. What happened to Mike? A. He messed up his work. B. His phone was broken. C. He was held up in traffic. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why does the woman look unwell? A. She has an uncommon blood disease. B. She is scared by going to the hospital. C. She lost too much blood in an accident. 7. What is courage according to the man? A. Winning a victory over fear. B. Saving people’s lives. C. Never being afraid. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What are the speakers mainly discussing? A. The various benefits of keeping a pet. B. The different ways of managing stress. C. The positive effects of some animals on people. 9. Which animal can help people improve social skills according to the woman? A. Horses. B. Dogs. C. Fish. 10. What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Take a medical exam. B. Select his pet carefully. C. Change his lifestyle. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In an office. B. In a museum. C. In a forest. 12. Which type of art did the woman experience over the weekend? A. A music festival. B. A photo exhibition. C. A light and sound show. 13. When will the speakers meet next? A. At 1:00 p.m. B. At 6:00 p.m. C. At 10:00 p.m. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the most probable relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Deliveryman and customer. C. Car salesman and customer. 15. What is the main reason for the woman to buy an electric car? A. Its cool style. B. Its environmental benefit. C. Its lower price. 16. How does the man feel about electric cars? A. They need more public chargers. B. They require less maintenance. C. They need a higher skill to drive. 17. Where will the woman probably keep her new car powered next time? A. In a 4S shop. B. In her community. C. In a shopping mall. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. A new school meal program. B. The benefits of healthy eating. C. Students’ comments on school meals. 19. Which of the following foods would be grouped as “Blue”? A. An egg. B. An apple. C. A bowl of rice. 20. What does the school plan to get rid of? A. Desserts. B. Candies. C. High-fat foods. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Whether young readers are fans of realistic stories or science fiction tales, time travel books often hold broad appeal because they satisfy people’s curiosity about life in the past or future. The stories below range from adventures to family dramas, all with an element of time travel. Time Traveling with a Hamster (仓鼠) by Ross Welford On his birthday, AI Chaudhury receives a letter from his dead father, which leads him to the basement of his old house. There he finds a time machine made from an ancient computer and a tin bucket. Following the instructions, AI returns to 1984 on a mission to prevent the incident that will claim his father’s life. Funny and moving, it works well for both book lovers and students who seldom read. Lost Time by Tas Mukanik When Evie gets lost in time, she finds herself in the Cretaceous Period (白垩纪). At first, each day is a challenge, but she refuses to give up. She struggles for survival, raises a baby dinosaur, and searches for a way home. This beautifully illustrated graphic novel is perfect for young readers who like prehistoric animals, time travel, and adventure. Time Chasers #3 by James S. Murray and Carsen Smith To save her long-lost father, Viv and her friends use the time machines in Area 51 to look for him. What starts as a simple rescue mission quickly becomes dangerous as the kids avoid meteors (流星) and strange creatures. This series is excellent for readers interested in technology and time travel. Emily Windsnap and the Tides of Time by Liz Kessler, illustrated by Erin Farley Emily Windsnap travels to the future in the ninth book of this series. A magic stone sends her decades into the future, and she discovers that the ocean and the earth are both heading for a terrible end. With her friends’ help, Emily tries to change the earth’s destiny. 1. Which book is most suitable for kids interested in prehistoric life? A. Time Traveling with a Hamster. B. Lost Time. C. Time Chasers #3. D. Emily Windsnap and the Tides of Time. 2. What do AI Chaudhury and Viv have in common? A. They receive a letter on their birthdays. B. They try to change the future of the Earth. C. They undertake a task to save their fathers. D. They complete a mission in the dinosaur age. 3. What is the text mainly intended to do? A. To compare four science fiction novels. B. To inspire teenagers’ curiosity about history. C. To explain the educational value of four books. D. To introduce time travel books to young readers. B In the age of online advocacy, Shailene Woodley knows well the possible problems of celebrity public welfare. So in 2019, when Greenpeace asked her to join a trip to collect microplastics in the Sargasso Sea, she expressed her worries clearly before agreeing to take part. “This can’t just be a one-time event: taking beautiful photos and posting them on social media to attract attention,” she said seriously. Instead, she wanted to know Greenpeace’s specific plans in detail, for she firmly believes that she should put her time and energy into things she can really change. As a famous actress having played many popular roles in films and TV shows, Woodley has devoted considerable efforts to practical environmental protection. She has actively joined various Greenpeace’s activities and spoken publicly to support an important UN ocean protection agreement. Skillfully employing her acting experience in environmental documentaries and on social media, she has helped spread environmental awareness effectively. Besides, she has participated in grassroots environmental activities in her busy acting career to protect local natural resources. For over a decade, Woodley has been determined to make real and practical changes rather than just take photos for show. As a Greenpeace ocean ambassador, she worked hard day and night to help pass the High Seas Treaty (条约), which aims to protect international marine areas and improve marine biodiversity. While filming in South Africa, she helped push for expanding protected marine areas from 5 to 10 percent. Documentaries have also helped her spread the message. In 2024, she appeared in PBS’s Hope in the Water about overfishing and alternative seafood options, which led to increased sales of sustainable seafood products. Whether on the ground or on camera, Woodley avoids anger. Instead, she appeals to people on a more fundamental level. “If somebody is not familiar with who I am or my work, then I sit there, explaining it to them from a very human-based place,” she says. “We’re in this room together. So how do we create a solution?” 4. What worried Woodley about the Greenpeace trip in 2019? A. How to take attractive photos. B. Whether she could be an ambassador. C. How to post on social media properly. D. Whether she could do something practical. 5. How is paragraph 2 mainly developed? A. By giving examples. B. By providing statistics. C. By stating arguments. D. By making a comparison. 6. What is Woodley’s attitude to people unfamiliar with her work? A. Annoyed but tolerant. B. Patient and sincere. C. Indifferent but polite. D. Humorous and relaxed. 7. Which is the best title for the passage? A. An Actress Leading Ocean Conservation B. Woodley’s Career as a Famous Actress C. Woodley’s Fighting for Ocean Exploration D. An Ocean Advocate Gaining Recognition C Forests across the globe have faced challenges from fire and drought, and the beautiful laurel (月桂) trees of the Canary Islands are part of this story of quick recovery. In recent years, the Canaries have experienced significant desertification, impacting the rich forests that once grew well. Environmentalist Gustavo Viera shared insights on this issue, noting the loss of forested areas due to agricultural expansion. He also highlighted the profound effects of climate change, which led to destructive fires in 2007 and 2009 that affected regions typically nourished by moisture (潮气). Viera, serving as the technical director of Life Nieblas — a remarkable public initiative focused on innovative water collection, has led efforts in a fascinating technique known as “cloud-milking”. This sustainable method uses the power of nature by using metal nets to gather small water drops from low-hanging fog, requiring no energy to operate. “Our goal was to address the delicate nature of the nets while ensuring we protect the environment,” Viera explained. The team developed a system inspired by pine needles, which excel at capturing water while allowing air to flow freely. This approach is not only effective but also easily transportable and adaptable to various locations in need. As fog drifts through the metal leaves, water drops collect and gently fall into containers below. The dedicated workers of Life Nieblas then use this precious water to grow young trees, playing a vital role in reforesting the area. “The Canaries are the ideal setting for developing these techniques,” remarked Vicenc Carabassa, the project’s lead scientist. He also pointed out that other regions, such as Chile and Morocco, have similar conditions and a rich history of fog water capture. The work being done in the Canary Islands serves as a beacon of hope, showcasing the possibilities of innovative solutions and cooperation for a brighter future. As Carabassa thoughtfully noted, “We’re living with drought throughout the Mediterranean and also in the Canaries. Every drop of water counts.” 8. What contributes to the forest loss in the Canary Islands according to Gustavo Viera? A. Lack of water collection. B. Fog shortage and water waste. C. Human and natural factors. D. Air pollution and tree diseases. 9. What is a feature of the “cloud-milking” technique? A. It is highly mechanized. B. It employs recycling materials. C. It is eco-friendly and efficient. D. It is independent of natural power. 10. Why does Vicenc Carabassa mention Chile and Morocco? A. To present their water shortage issue. B. To compare their forest conditions. C. To introduce their fog capture history. D. To show the technique’s applicability. 11. What does the passage mainly focus on? A. The ways to prevent forest desertification. B. A practical solution to local forest recovery. C. The severe drought in the Mediterranean area. D. The promotion of fog water collection technique. D While health studies often focus on sleep quality and length, researchers from the University of Oulu in Finland found that going to bed at the same time each night also matters greatly, especially for people who sleep less than eight hours. The researchers measured sleep behavior activity of 3,231 individuals aged 46. Sleep was tracked via wearables over the course of a week. Participants who slept under eight hours were divided into regular, fairly regular, and irregular groups based on their sleep habits. Data showed that the irregular group had doubled the risk of a major heart event over the next decade, compared to the regular sleepers. More variability in the sleep “midpoint” (halfway between bedtime and waking up) was also linked to worse heart health. However, wake-up times didn’t appear to matter, the, data showed. The connection was only there for large variations in getting to bed. In the irregular group, the average variability in bedtime over the week was 108 minutes, compared to 33 minutes for the regular group. “Our findings suggest that the regularity of bedtime may be important for heart health,” said researcher Laura Nauha. There is a caveat here, though, in that the risk only appeared in those who got less than an average amount of sleep (just under eight hours) each night. Getting enough sleep seemed to protect against the dangers of an irregular bedtime. The researchers believe that changing bedtime may disrupt the body’s natural 24-hour cycles, which means the heart doesn’t have proper rest and recovery periods. It’s also important to put the research in context. Out of the more than 3,000 participants, 128 suffered an event like this over the 10-year study period, so we’re talking about a relatively low number overall. What’s more, sleep was only tracked for seven days, and routines may not necessarily have stayed the same for all participants. Further studies are needed to look at this bedtime relationship in more detail, and across larger and more diverse groups of people. 12. What can we know about the study led by Finnish researchers? A. It lasted for a whole week. B. It focused on sleep length and health. C. It used wearable devices to monitor sleep. D. It tracked middle-aged adults with sleep difficulties. 13. What did the researchers find in their study? A. The regular group showed great health improvement. B. Irregular sleepers had a higher risk of heart events. C. The wake-up time played a key role in heart health. D. Variability in sleep midpoint was irrelevant to heart diseases. 14. What does the underlined word “caveat” in paragraph 4 mean? A. Warning. B. Debate. C. Threat. D. Assumption. 15. What is the purpose of the last paragraph? A. To question the reliability of previous findings. B. To explain the study’s significance and impacts. C. To give readers suggestions on sleep habits. D. To stress the importance of future research. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Phones are designed to grab your attention and keep you scrolling. The solution to cutting down phone use is to find effective ways to resist the frequent desire to pick up your device. Here are some expert-recommended strategies to help you stop checking it so often. Ask yourself why you’re picking it up. Before reaching for your phone, notice how you feel at that moment._____16_____ Most of the time, what you can do to address what’s really going on is not scrolling. It’s a rest, a conversation with a friend, or an activity that brings you joy. Get to the root of the habit. _____17_____ Removing any one of them can break the habit. There are lots of ways to do this with your phone. Turning off unnecessary notifications is an easy way. You can also reduce motivation by making your screen less attractive. _____18_____ Practice “urge surfing”. Having the urge to use your phone doesn’t mean you must act on it._____19_____ They rise, grow stronger, and then gradually disappear. The practice of riding out an urge without doing anything about it is called “urge surfing”. Instead of giving in immediately, wait for a few minutes. Do nothing and let the wave pass. _____20_____ That can cut down phone time by removing the temptation (诱惑) to scroll before sleep, during the night or right after waking up. Research shows that even having a phone nearby can reduce sleep quality. The light from screens can disturb your biological clock, keeping your brain too active to rest well. A. Urges are a lot like waves. B. Are you bored, lonely, or just tired? C. Keep your phone out of the bedroom. D. For example, change it to black and white. E. Turn off your phone before you go to sleep. F. Do you really need to check your phone right now? G. A habit is formed by three parts: motivation, ability and a cue. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、CD四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Roche was born with a cataract (白内障) that left him mostly blind in his right eye. Growing up, he was self-conscious about it, trying to hide his eye and ____21____ any attention. When Roche was 15, he played on a baseball team. He was a ____22____ defensive player in the field, but batting had always been a(n) ____23____ — each swing missed the ball, leaving him frustrated. That day, batting practice was no ____24____. After 20 awkward swings with most misses, Coach Wells, a quiet and ____25____ man, signaled the pitcher (投球手) to stop. He walked over and pointed out that Roche ____26____ his blind right eye when hitting, causing him to lose track of the ball. Roche shook his head, voice ____27____: “I can’t see out of this eye anyway.” Coach Wells didn’t ____28____. Instead, he waited a couple seconds and then said, “Try the left side.” His teammates took it as a ____29____, but Roche, desperate to prove himself, stepped into the left-handed batter’s box. To everyone’s ____30____, he hit the first pitch quickly, then the next dozen. In that moment, he felt a ray of ____31____ he’d never known. Coach Wells then ____32____ his position, putting his hands on Roche’s shoulders, and gently moving his left foot outward to help him track the ball. By the season’s end, Roche could hit ____33____. Fifty years later, he still remembers that kindness — the first time someone saw his ____34____ and lifted him up. True care isn’t grand gestures, but noticing the unseen and offering a hand, which can ____35____ a life forever. 21. A. intervening B. avoiding C. obtaining D. adapting 22. A. humble B. careless C. solid D. sensitive 23. A. struggle B. experiment C. assignment D. advantage 24. A. different B. mysterious C. familiar D. fortunate 25. A. modest B. stubborn C. humorous D. observant 26. A. blamed B. examined C. closed D. injured 27. A. noisy B. low C. cold D. calm 28. A. adopt B. argue C. switch D. investigate 29. A. joke B. reminder C. promise D. mission 30. A. disappointment B. relief C. surprise D. regret 31. A. hope B. freedom C. justice D. commitment 32. A. charged B. adjusted C. recovered D. marked 33. A. temporarily B. casually C. steadily D. instantly 34. A. flexibility B. achievement C. breakthrough D. potential 35. A. run into B. carry out C. show off D. light up 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 When Spanish influencer Helena Cuesta posted a photo of herself wearing a ____36____ (fashion) Chinese-style jacket, it drew wide attention from her followers. This reflects a hot trend in 2026 Western fashion: Chinese elements like Mandarin collars and frog buttons are ____37____ (increasing) appearing in many collections. Arguably, this trend can be traced back to October 2025, ____38____ Adidas Originals launched its “Chinese New Year” jacket at Shanghai Fashion Week. Initially sold only in China, the limited edition jacket quickly gained attention on social media. Then people from overseas rushed ____39____ (purchase) them, with some online resellers, like StockX, listing them for as high as $488 each. This trend quickly spread, with fashion-forward brands such as Ralph Lauren, Kenzo and Lemarie adding similar elements ____40____ their Fall/Winter 2026 shows. ____41____ (praise) as “incredibly versatile (多功能的)” by Vogue Magazine, “New Chinese Style” is transitioning from casual to streetwear to elegant looks. “New Chinese Style” is not new in China. It emerged in the early 2000s, developed around 2015 and ____42____ (grow) popular since 2021. Different from traditional formal Chinese clothing, it mixes traditional elements with modern design, ____43____ (emphasize) simplicity and practicality for everyday wear. Yang Jie, ____44____ associate professor at the Beijing Institute of Fashion Technology, noted that “New Chinese Style” is not simply a fashion trend. It speaks to shifts in the global landscape. As China’s influence continues to grow, Chinese culture is gaining more worldwide _____45_____ (recognize) and Chinese people are creating their own modern aesthetic language. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你校国际部拟招募“中国传统节日文化宣讲员”（lecturer on Chinese traditional festivals），负责向外国交换生介绍节日习俗。请你根据以下要点写一封申请信： 1.表达申请意愿； 2.陈述自身优势； 3.期待获批。 注意：1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear Sir/Madam, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I looked at the brochure for Ballston Spa High School. “I don’t want to go to this school,” I said. “I hate it here. I have no friends, and I have nothing to do.” My parents exchanged glances (眼神). We had moved from New Jersey to New York just a week before. Sighing, my mom turned to me from the front seat. “Can’t you try to look at the bright side?” “It’s different living here. I want to go home.” The car fell silent. We drove into Yaddo Gardens for a picnic, but my bad mood spoiled everything. As we laid out the blanket, we saw volunteers working in the gardens. My dad started talking to a woman named Vera, who told us they worked every Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday morning. My dad, noticing my low spirits, suggested I join the gardening team. Before I knew it, I was there early on a Tuesday morning. I struggled with heavy tools. Vera introduced me to John, the head gardener. He was eighty-one but still full of energy, moving around the garden with ease. “Dana, come here!” He showed me a beautiful flower, but when he touched it, the petals (花瓣) fell apart. “Looks alive, but it’s actually dead,” he said. Then he pointed to a bush that looked stick-like and flowerless. “This one will bloom in a few days. Just wait.” Over the next several months, I came to the gardens regularly. John taught me about roses and life. During breaks, we would chat and discuss everything from mountains to middle school, laughing and learning the joys of a friendship across generations. One day, I told him my fear about starting school. “What if I have no friends?” Instead of saying something, John led me to a terrace (观景台) overlooking the garden. He explained that the garden was designed so that from a certain angle, all beds looked the same size. “It’s called perspectivism,” he said. “You can look at your new school as something scary, or as an opportunity. The choice is yours.” 注意：1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The first day of school arrived, and I stood at the gate, remembering John’s words. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Three months later, I saw John again at the Yaddo Gardens celebration. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025—2026学年高二下学期素养测评（二） 英语试题 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的Ａ、、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will the woman do on Saturday night? A. Visit a popular singer. B. Go to Lily’s party. C. Buy a birthday present. 2. What does Jean think of her travel experience? A. It’s just so-so. B. It’s quite disappointing. C. It’s very satisfactory. 3. What did the man eat yesterday evening? A. Seafood. B. Steak. C. Hamburger. 4. Why does the woman come to the man? A. To ask for direction. B. To consult about a show. C. To make a reservation. 5. What happened to Mike? A. He messed up his work. B. His phone was broken. C. He was held up in traffic. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why does the woman look unwell? A. She has an uncommon blood disease. B. She is scared by going to the hospital. C. She lost too much blood in an accident. 7. What is courage according to the man? A. Winning a victory over fear. B. Saving people’s lives. C. Never being afraid. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What are the speakers mainly discussing? A. The various benefits of keeping a pet. B. The different ways of managing stress. C. The positive effects of some animals on people. 9. Which animal can help people improve social skills according to the woman? A. Horses. B. Dogs. C. Fish. 10. What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Take a medical exam. B. Select his pet carefully. C. Change his lifestyle. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In an office. B. In a museum. C. In a forest. 12. Which type of art did the woman experience over the weekend? A. A music festival. B. A photo exhibition. C. A light and sound show. 13. When will the speakers meet next? A. At 1:00 p.m. B. At 6:00 p.m. C. At 10:00 p.m. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the most probable relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Deliveryman and customer. C. Car salesman and customer. 15. What is the main reason for the woman to buy an electric car? A. Its cool style. B. Its environmental benefit. C. Its lower price. 16. How does the man feel about electric cars? A. They need more public chargers. B. They require less maintenance. C. They need a higher skill to drive. 17. Where will the woman probably keep her new car powered next time? A. In a 4S shop. B. In her community. C. In a shopping mall. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. A new school meal program. B. The benefits of healthy eating. C. Students’ comments on school meals. 19. Which of the following foods would be grouped as “Blue”? A. An egg. B. An apple. C. A bowl of rice. 20. What does the school plan to get rid of? A. Desserts. B. Candies. C. High-fat foods. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. C 10. D 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. G 18. D 19. A 20. C 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、CD四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. fashionable 37. increasingly 38. when 39. to purchase 40. to 41. Praised 42. has grown 43. emphasizing 44. an 45. recognition 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Sir/Madam, Learning that our international department is recruiting lecturers on Chinese traditional festivals, I am writing to apply for this position sincerely. I have a deep understanding of traditional festivals as I have read plenty of related books. Besides, I am good at oral English, which allows me to communicate with foreign exchange students fluently. Also, I am outgoing and patient, and I enjoy sharing traditional culture with others. I am eager to spread Chinese traditional culture and I will try my best to finish the work well. I would appreciate it if I could get this chance. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】参考范文 The first day of school arrived, and I stood at the gate, remembering John’s words. Taking a deep breath, I decided to view this new school as an opportunity. As I walked into the building, I helped a girl who was struggling with a heavy stack of books. We became friends later. That day, I made several new friends and even joined a school club. The day was filled with happiness and new experiences, and I realized that John was right. By choosing to see the positive side, I had opened myself up to a world of possibilities. Three months later, I saw John again at the Yaddo Gardens celebration. I gave him a big hug. John beamed with pride and patted my shoulder. “Remember, life is full of opportunities if you just choose to see them.” We spent the rest of the celebration chatting and reminiscing about our time in the garden. As I left, I felt grateful for John’s wisdom and friendship. I knew that no matter what challenges I faced in the future, I would always remember John’s words and choose to see the bright side. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $