山东烟台市海阳市2025-2026学年七年级下学期4月阶段英语试题

初二英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分90分，考试用时100分钟； 2. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上； 3. 选择题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的选项标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它选项； 4. 非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新答案；不能使用涂改液等。不按以上要求作答无效； 5. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分） 第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） A 从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出划线部分与其他三个不同的选项。 1. A. health B. although C. bath D. truth 2. A. doctor B. perform C. short D. born 3. A. serious B. honest C. pleasure D. personality 4. A. appearance B. near C. early D. dear 5. A. shy B. pretty C. university D. lazy B 根据所给的音标，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出与所给音标对应的单词。 6. /weɪ/A. wing B. weigh C. without D. warm 7. /stɔ: (r)/A. story B. star C. start D. store 8. /'pleznt/A. planet B. play C. pleasant D. plant 9. /bəʊl/A. bowl B. boil C. born D. bake 10. /fɔ:m/A. from B. fact C. fashion D. form 第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 根据句意和所给的汉语提示，写出句中单词的适当形式。 11. After ________ (解决) this math problem, Teng Fei felt very happy. 12. I felt ________ (失望的) when I heard the bad news. 13. We should often ________ (交流) with our parents. 14. Vegetables can help us stay ________ (健康的). 15. What is the ________ (实际上的) price of the book? 第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 16. The old man walks slowly. (改为感叹句) ________ ________ the old man walks! 17. Tom is taller than any other student in his class. （改为同义句） Tom is ________ ________ student in his class. 18. Is Peter going to play football with his friends this afternoon? (作否定回答) No, ________ ________. 19. Tom is a clever student. (改为感叹句) ________ ________ clever student Tom is! 20. John wants to be a lawyer when he grows up. (对划线部分提问) ________ ________ John want to be when he grows up? 第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 根据所给汉语句子，把英语句子补充完整。 21. 我不知道该怎么处理我的旧衣服。 I don’t know what to ________ ________ my old clothes. 22. 由你决定。 It’s ________ ________ you. 23. 生活中有幽默感很重要。 It’s important to have a ________ of ________ in life. 24. 我意外地割到了手指。 I cut my finger ________ ________. 25. 在社交媒体上把你的生活和别人的生活作比较是不明智的。 It is not wise to ________ your life ________ others’ on social media. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 As the New Year drew near, Jack was excited. In Jack’s country, it was a time for fun, and it was also a time for making New Year’s ____26____. Jack loved to ____27____, but he usually couldn’t keep his resolutions for long. At first he did just what he planned, ____28____ later he found that he couldn’t keep them. That was because he made too many resolutions, and some were too difficult to ____29____. But this year Jack ____30____ to try his best to keep his resolutions. He made a plan carefully. He ____31____ his plan on a big piece of paper. Then he placed the paper on the ____32____ of his bedroom. Every ____33____ he did his homework, he could see his resolutions there. This method really ____34____. Jack ____35____ his goal, and he was happy. 26. A. hobbies B. education C. relationships D. resolutions 27. A. change habits B. give up C. make money D. make promises 28. A. so B. or C. but D. if 29. A. take off B. look for C. put on D. stick to 30. A. decided B. believed C. stopped D. forgot 31. A. sat down B. wrote down C. cut down D. turned down 32. A. wall B. desk C. door D. floor 33. A. week B. night C. morning D. time 34. A. worked B. failed C. created D. stopped 35. A. realised B. missed C. set D. forgot 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Last summer, my best friend Lily and I ____36____ (plan) to take up a new hobby together. We both loved cooking and wanted to do something new. We decided to learn to mix different fruits ____37____ (make) a special salad. On a sunny afternoon, we started ____38____ (we) first try. ____39____ (Final), we made the salad successfully. We were ____40____ (amaze) at how great the fruit salad tasted. It made a big ____41____ (different) to our day. We were so excited about ____42____ (achieve) our goal. We shared our salad ____43____ our parents. They praised us highly. They thought we cooked ____44____ (delicious) food than they cooked. Our little kitchen time was closely connected with our daily life and played ____45____ important role in our friendship. 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Helen I am going to be an actress because I like acting. I think it is very interesting and actors can play different roles. I am going to take acting lessons. Jim I like writing. I am going to write articles for magazines when I grow up. Reading more is good for writing. So I am going to read books in the library to realise my dream. Han Mei Children are lovely, so I want to be a teacher. During the vacations, I can also do what I want to do. 46. Helen’s dream is to be a (n) ________. A. teacher B. director C. actress D. reader 47. How is Jim going to realize his dream? A. By taking writing lessons. B. By writing articles every day. C. By reading books in the library. D. By working in a magazine after school. 48. What can we learn from the text? A. Han Mei loves children. B. Helen thinks acting is boring. C. Jim wants to be a reporter in the future. D. All of them have the same dream job. B Fish and apple soup? Yes, and you won’t believe how delicious it is. This first came out of a restaurant in Singapore, but it is now very popular as the soup du jour (the soup of the day) in Chinese restaurants. Ingredients (serve 4 people): 1 whole fish 2 apples, quartered 4-6 ginger slices (姜片) 1 bunch of green onions, cut into pieces 1 red tomato, cut into 8 pieces oil, salt and pepper Methods: 1. Remove the bones from the fish. 2. Pour oil into a pan. Fry the ginger slices and the green onions. Add the fish bones and fry. 3. Add enough water and boil it for about 15 to 20 minutes. 4. Add the apples, the fish and the tomato. When the apples go soft, add salt and pepper. 49. You will need ________ red tomatoes if you want to cook the soup for 8 people. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 50. What does the underlined word “quartered” mean? A. cooked in hot water B. cut into small pieces C. mixed with other food D. cut into four parts 51. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The fish bones are useless for this soup. B. You need to add salt and pepper when you fry the ginger slices. C. You should boil the fish bones in water for about 15 to 20 minutes. D. The soup du jour means “the soup of the day” in English. 52. Where can you most likely read this passage? A. In a cooking magazine. B. In a storybook. C. In a history book. D. In a travel guide. C Are you similar to or different from your friends? Many students talk about their best friends on the school forum. Lisa has a best friend called Linda. They look similar and both are quiet. They like reading books and studying together after school. They are hard-working and always help each other with their lessons. Lisa thinks it’s easy to be friends if they have the same hobbies. Jack’s best friend is Dave. They are quite different. Jack is outgoing and likes sports. He loves playing basketball after class. Dave is calm and enjoys music. But they still get on well. Dave always listens to Jack carefully, and he is honest all the time. When Jack has problems, Dave cares about him and gives good advice. Jack says friends don’t need to be exactly the same. It’s important to understand each other. What really matters in a friendship? In fact, good friends may be similar or different. The most important thing is to respect and help each other. 53. What do Lisa and Linda have in common? A. They are both outgoing. B. They both like sports. C. They are quiet and love reading. D. They both enjoy music. 54. From the passage, we know Dave ________. A. is similar to Jack in many ways B. never gives advice to Jack C. is honest and a good listener D. likes playing basketball with Jack 55. What is Jack’s opinion about friends? A. Good friends must have the same hobbies. B. Different friends can get on well with each other. C. Friends should never have any problems. D. It’s easy for quiet students to make friends. 56. The underlined word “matters” in the last paragraph means ________ in Chinese. A. 重要 B. 事情 C. 学习 D. 改变 D Do you ever try to swat (拍打) a fly (苍蝇)? Your hand moves super fast. But you still miss it. It feels like the fly has a lot of time to get away. How can that be? Flies see changes in the world about four times as fast as humans do. To them, your quick swat looks like slow motion (慢动作) in a movie. Imagine they break one second into many small parts. That gives them a better chance to get away. This power is special to smaller and lighter animals. It’s like their life skill. It helps them stay safe from bigger animals. Sea turtles follow the moon. They lay eggs more often near the new moon. The weak moonlight helps hide their eggs from predators (捕食者). Dogs smell time. When you are home, your scent (气味) is strong. After you go to school, your scent slowly fades (减弱). By smelling how much scent is left, your dog knows when you’re coming back. Honey bees count minutes. They remember when flowers open. Then they fly there at just the right time to get pollen. How many changes can animals see in one second? dragonfly fly pigeon dog sea turtle sea star 300 250 100 75 15 less than 10 57. Why is it not easy for people to catch a fly? A. Because flies fly much higher than people. B. Because flies see changes much faster than humans. C. Because flies are too small to be seen clearly. D. Because flies always stay in dangerous places. 58. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. A sea star can see over 10 changes in a second. B. Dogs know their owners’ coming time by smelling. C. Sea turtles lay eggs more under the bright sunlight. D. Only small animals can know when flowers open. 59. Why can honey bees get pollen on time? A. Because they know when flowers open. B. Because they can see things in slow motion. C. Because they follow the moon all the time. D. Because they have a good sense of smell. 60. What is the main idea of the passage? A. How we can protect animals. B. Small animals are smarter than big ones. C. All animals can count time very well. D. Animals have different ways to sense the world. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下列对话，从对话后的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 You are known as Generation Alpha (α世代), born between 2010 and 2025. ____61____ Why alpha? Alpha is the first letter in the Greek alphabet (希腊字母). ____62____ You were born in the 21st century. Also, you are the first to grow up with AI and smart computers. AI experts Some people call Gen Alpha AI natives (原住民). You use AI in different ways: asking questions, searching for information, learning new things, helping with homework and having fun. Money smart Many Gen Alpha kids start learning how to earn (赚钱) and spend money wisely at a young age. ____63____ Others earn money through pocket money, chores, or selling things. The largest generation ____64____ India has the most with 390 million, followed by China and Indonesia. Future jobs With new technology, some kids want jobs like game maker, Internet star, or IT engineer. Others still dream of being doctors or teachers. ____65____ A. Some know how to find cheaper things online. B. It means your generation is the start of something new. C. Taking good care of Gen Alpha kids is very important for their growth. D. Here are some cool facts about your generation. E. Also, many may even work in jobs that do not exist (存在) yet. F. There are over 2 billion (十亿) Gen Alpha kids around the world. 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下列短文，完成短文后的问题。 In 2025, people around the world fell in love with a toy named Labubu. And its popularity will only keep growing in the future. The cute monster toy will be popular in stores, movies, and theme parks. In the future, Labubu might be in a movie. Labubu’s creator, Pop Mart, talked about this with several movie makers. Many people are excited and want to know more about it. For example, will the movie use real actors or animation? We’ll wait and see. The popular Chinese “monster” doll is going to Times Square, in the New York city of US. Pop Mart rented a 650-square-meter store in Times Square. When the store opens in the future, fans there will no longer need to order from the Pop Mart website. POP LAND, a Pop Mart theme park, opened in 2023 inside Chaoyang Park in Beijing. It covers about 40,000 square meters. A new “1.5 version (版本)” of the park will open to the public in 2026, according to the NEW TIME. It will be twice as big as the old one. The company believes the park will do well for a long time. 66. Which company created Labubu? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 67. How do people feel about Labubu’s new movie? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 68. Why won’t American fans need to buy Labubu online any more? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 69. When did POP LAND first open? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 70. How big will the new version of POP LAND be? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 写作（满分15分） 71. 为增进同学们对友谊的理解与感悟，校英语报现面向全体同学征集友谊主题稿件。你刚结识了一位志同道合的好朋友Tom，请你根据以下要点写一篇短文投稿： 内容包括： 1. 介绍你们共同喜爱的动物，并说明喜爱的原因； 2. 介绍你们共同的爱好——做饭，并说明喜爱的原因/意义； 3. 分享你们对未来的共同规划。 要求： 1. 必须包含以上提示内容，适当增加细节，以使语句通顺，行文连贯； 2. 书写规范工整，词数控制在80词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。 3. 文章中不得出现个人真实姓名和校名。 My Friend and I Hello! I’m glad to talk about my new friend Tom. We have a lot in common. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 初二英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分90分，考试用时100分钟； 2. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上； 3. 选择题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的选项标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它选项； 4. 非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新答案；不能使用涂改液等。不按以上要求作答无效； 5. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分） 第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） A 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A B 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D 第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 根据句意和所给的汉语提示，写出句中单词的适当形式。 【11题答案】 【答案】solving 【12题答案】 【答案】disappointed 【13题答案】 【答案】communicate 【14题答案】 【答案】healthy##fit 【15题答案】 【答案】actual 第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 【16题答案】 【答案】 ①. How ②. slowly 【17题答案】 【答案】 ①. the ②. tallest 【18题答案】 【答案】 ①. he ②. isn’t 【19题答案】 【答案】 ①. What ②. a 【20题答案】 【答案】 ①. What ②. does 第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 根据所给汉语句子，把英语句子补充完整。 【21题答案】 【答案】 ①. do##deal ②. with 【22题答案】 【答案】 ①. up ②. to 【23题答案】 【答案】 ①. sense ②. humour##humor 【24题答案】 【答案】 ①. by ②. accident 【25题答案】 【答案】 ①. compare ②. with 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【26~35题答案】 【答案】26. D 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. A 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. planned 37. to make 38. our 39. Finally 40. amazed 41. difference 42. achieving 43. with 44. more delicious 45. an 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【46~48题答案】 【答案】46. C 47. C 48. A B 【49~52题答案】 【答案】49. B 50. D 51. C 52. A C 【53~56题答案】 【答案】53. C 54. C 55. B 56. A D 【57~60题答案】 【答案】57. B 58. B 59. A 60. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【61~65题答案】 【答案】61. D 62. B 63. A 64. F 65. E 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【66~70题答案】 【答案】66. Pop Mart. 67. They feel excited./They are excited and want to know about it. 68. Because they will be able to buy Labubu at the store in Times Square./Because there will be a local store in Times Square, New York. 69. In 2023. 70. It will be twice as big as the old one./About 80,000 square meters. 第二节 写作（满分15分） 【71题答案】 【答案】范文 My Friend and I Hello! I’m glad to talk about my new friend Tom. We have a lot in common. Among all animals, we both love pandas best. They are the cutest animals in the world and a symbol of peace and friendship. We also enjoy cooking together in our spare time. It’s fun to learn to make delicious food and share it with each other. It brings joy to our hearts and creates valuable memories. We have great plans for the future. We plan to be volunteers to protect pandas one day. We will work hard to make our dreams come true. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $