2026年安徽省合肥市寿春中学中考二模考试英语

安徽省初中学业水平考试模拟（二）英语（试题卷） 2026年4月 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（10页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is the boy going to do at the art festival? A. B. C. 2. When will they finish training on Saturday? A. B. C. 3. How many ways are mentioned to protect the environment? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 4. Who has a black watch? A. Jack. B. Lily. C. Jerry. 5. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Waiter and customer. C. Brother and sister. II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 6. What was the score of the football game? A. 1-1. B. 3-1. C. 2-0. 7. How do Tom’s team improve teamwork? A. They have team meetings and encourage each other. B. They stay up late to discuss game skills every night. C. They ask good players for help before games. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. How long did the festival last this year? A. For a week. B. For 25 days. C. For a month. 9. Why did the artists start the festival in the beginning? A. Because they weren’t allowed to take part in Edinburgh’s international festivals. B. Because they wanted to get a lot of attention. C. Because they wanted to sell their works. 10. What did the man do last week? A. He saw a doctor. B. He cared for his mother. C. He went to a festival. III. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. What does the speaker do before going to a dinner party? A. He buys some fruit. B. He wears new clothes. C. He asks whether to bring food or not. 12. When did the speaker host a party? A. In summer. B. In autumn. C. In winter. 13. What kind of person is the speaker? A. A person who loves making desserts and sharing. B. A person who loves having parties and making friends. C. A person who loves making up his own mind. 14. Why does the speaker still bring something when he is told not to? A. To show his kindness. B. To be polite. C. To get nice words. 15. What does the speaker advise us not to bring to a dinner party? A. Something that doesn’t go with the menu. B. Something that is too expensive. C. Something that is too heavy to carry. IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。 短文读两遍。 My family and I love doing charity work together One of our favorite activities Visit the old people’s home My mom makes 16 biscuits. My dad brings his 17 . My brother asks the old people about their lives. I like to read them short stories or help them write 18 to their families. Other charity work 19 old clothes, books and toys and take them to a children’s home The kids there are excited. My brother and I often play 20 games with them. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Guess what? I went to the Martyrs’ Park on April 5th to remember the heroes. —It’s really meaningful. We should show our ________ to them and pass on their spirit. A. honor B. fear C. surprise D. doubt 2. —I’m always nervous before exams and make silly mistakes. —You need to stay calm. A ________ state of mind is the key to good grades. A. painful B. sleepy C. peaceful D. strict 3. We should ________ our daily waste properly to protect the environment and make our school more beautiful. A. produce B. divide C. record D. receive 4. —My mother doesn’t allow me to scroll on my mobile phone these days. —Neither does mine. She always says ________ but hard work can help me achieve my dream in the high school entrance examination. A. something B. everything C. nothing D. anything 5. —Could you tell me how to improve my English writing? —________ you keep writing diaries in English, you’ll make progress little by little. A. As long as B. Even though C. As if D. So that 6. —The senior high school entrance exam is coming soon. —So we should ________ plan our time and make every minute count. A. recently B. hardly C. suddenly D. wisely 7. The 15th Five-Year Plan will ________ new chances for Anhui’s high-quality development and bring more happiness to local people. A. put up B. set up C. take up D. open up 8. —Some students only study without any exercise. —________, we should keep a balance between study and physical activities. A. In general B. In person C. In public D. In silence 9. —How long have you been back from London? —For two months. I ________ there for three years. A. have studied B. studied C. study D. will study 10. —I didn’t get full marks in the PE high school entrance exam. I feel upset. —________. You have tried your best already. A. Forget it B. Far from it C. Never mind D. With pleasure VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A Zhang Linghe is a famous young actor in China. Many teenagers like him a lot. He was born in Wuxi, Jiangsu Province. When he was a college student, he ____11____ Electrical Engineering at Nanjing Normal University. He didn’t plan to be an actor at the beginning. One day, he got a(n) ____12____ to act in a TV drama. He decided to have a try. In 2020, he appeared in his first work The Justice and ____13____ the role of Pei Zhao. He tried his best to act well and soon ____14____ the New Force Award. The year 2022 was ____15____ for him. He played Chang Heng in Love Between Fairy and Devil. This role made him ____16____ all over the country. Many people fell in love with this gentle character and the actor ____17____ played him. Later, he took on more challenging roles in My Journey to You and Story of Kunning Palace. He always keeps ____18____ and learns from other excellent actors. He believes that ____19____ hard work, he can make greater progress. Zhang Linghe sets a good ____20____ for young people. He shows that it’s never too late to run after your dream. 11. A. learned B. saw C. worked D. taught 12. A. answer B. chance C. idea D. place 13. A. made B. did C. played D. found 14. A. won B. gave C. sent D. showed 15. A. boring B. difficult C. special D. common 16. A. serious B. popular C. careful D. lucky 17. A. what B. which C. who D. whose 18. A. warm B. modest C. rich D. funny 19. A. with B. on C. about D. for 20. A. wish B. story C. plan D. example B World Book Day, celebrated on April 23 annually, is a worldwide festival to promote the beauty of reading. It helps us build a deep ____21____of how reading shapes our personality and future life. Reading is ____22____regarded as a lifelong journey for every growing teenager. Nowadays, most teenagers are buried in short videos and online games, ____23____ they spare little time for paper reading. It has become a ____24____ social problem among young people. To change this situation, our school organizes colorful reading activities ____25____different themes every spring. Books are silent but wise teachers. They bring us rich wisdom ____26____ inner peace in our busy study life. When we meet with ups and downs and feel upset, we can always ____27____strength and inspiration from classic works. We should never ____28____ the lasting power of reading. Daily reading will create ____29____ and positive changes to our minds. As long as we keep reading steadily, we will surely ____30____ unexpected progress and growth in the end. 21. A. memory B. understanding C. secret D. mistake 22. A. truly B. nearly C. hardly D. rarely 23. A. though B. because C. so D. if 24. A. strange B. serious C. simple D. tiny 25. A. in B. on C. at D. by 26. A. but B. and C. or D. yet 27. A. draw from B. put away C. turn off D. cut down 28. A. ignore B. accept C. praise D. support 29. A. slight B. sudden C. lasting D. quick 30. A. lose B. waste C. refuse D. gain VII. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Tom. You look so excited today. ___31___. B: Have you heard the latest news? Bayern Munich has successfully entered the Champions League semi-finals. A: Wow, that’s fantastic! ___32___. B: They won the match against Real Madrid. A: Nice! ___33___. B: They will compete with Paris Saint-Germain next. A: ___34___. B: It will start on April 29th. A:I hope Bayern can get good grades. ___35___. B: Me too. I’m looking forward to the wonderful game. A. Who will be their next rival? B. Good luck to the team! C. How did they win the game? D. When will the semi-final begin? E. What do you want to do next? F. Why are you so happy? G. Where will the match be held? 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） VIII. 阅读理解（共20 小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Community Volunteer Notice: Campus Sports Meet Theme: Green Sports & Healthy Life Time: April 25-26, 2026 Place: School Playground Volunteer Roles & Duties: 1 .Guide Team: Help students and parents find seats; show directions. 2.Service Team: Hand out water and first-aid supplies. 3. Green Team: Collect rubbish Requirements: Grade 9 students are welcome. Be on time and responsible. Wear the volunteer vest on duty. Sign-up: Send your name, class and role to your PE teacher no later than April 20. 36. When can students sign up for the volunteer work? A. After April 20. B. By April 20. C. On April 25. D. On April 26. 37. Which team will help keep the playground clean? A. Guide Team. B. Service Team. C. Green Team. D. PE Team. 38. What is the notice mainly about? A. A sports meet schedule. B. Volunteer notice for a sports meet. C. How to keep safe at school. D. Ways to protect the environment. B In March 2026, more than 50 teenagers from our city joined a wetland protection volunteer activity, which was part of the national environmental protection campaign. The volunteers walked along the city wetland park, picking up plastic waste, bottles and other rubbish left by visitors. They also handed out leaflets to tell visitors the importance of wetland protection and ask them not to destroy the living environment of birds and fish. During the activity, the volunteers learned about different wetland plants and animals from professional guides. They were shocked to see the harm that human rubbish brought to the wetland ecosystem. Though the work was tiring, all volunteers said it was meaningful. They hoped more people would join in green actions to protect our natural environment and build a more beautiful hometown. 39. What did the volunteers do in the wetland park? A. Fed wild birds and fish B. Picked up rubbish and handed out leaflets C. Planted wetland plants D. Built new homes for animals 40. What did the volunteers learn from professional guides? A. Ways to make leaflets B. Knowledge of wetland creatures C. How to organize activities D. History of the wetland park 41. What does the underlined word “ecosystem” mean? A. 旅游景点 B. 公共设施 C. 生态系统 D. 生活区域 42. What can be the best title for the text? A. A Wetland Park Visit B. How to Protect Wild Animals C. National Environmental Protection Campaign D. Teenagers’ Wetland Protection Volunteer Action C In recent years, many Chinese intangible cultural heritage (ICH) (非遗) activities have entered middle and high schools, becoming a new bright spot in school education. Our school has set up several ICH clubs, such as paper-cutting, Chinese calligraphy and shadow play. Professional teachers are invited to teach students every Friday afternoon. Students can learn traditional skills, understand cultural stories and make their own works. This kind of activity helps teenagers know more about traditional Chinese culture. It not only enriches our after-school life, but also lets us take on the duty to pass on our excellent culture. More schools are expected to carry out such activities, letting traditional culture stay alive in the new era and grow deeply in teenagers’ hearts. 43. Which ICH club is NOT mentioned in the text? A. Paper-cutting club B. Calligraphy club C. Shadow play club D. Traditional painting club 44. What benefit do ICH activities bring to students? A. Help get higher exam scores B. Let students know traditional culture C. Make students learn more skills quickly D. Reduce students’ study pressure 45. What is the main idea of the text? A. Intangible cultural heritage enters campus B. How to set up school clubs C. Ways to learn traditional skills D. Traditional culture in the new era D Green plants are more than just decorations in our daily life. They are necessary for both nature and humans, offering plenty of unexpected benefits. This passage will explain their importance and influence. Firstly, plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis. They take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen, which is necessary for humans and animals to breathe. Without enough plants, the air quality will drop quickly, and living things will face trouble. Secondly, green plants help improve people’s mood. Studies show that staying around plants can reduce stress and make people feel relaxed. Many offices and homes put plants to create a comfortable and peaceful environment. Besides, plants can cool the environment and save energy. Tall trees provide shade in summer, lowering the temperature around buildings. This helps cut down the use of air conditioners and reduces energy waste. In short, green plants play a key role in keeping the balance of nature and improving human life. We should realize their value and plant more trees and flowers. 46. What does the text mainly tell us? A. Ways to grow green plants. B. Benefits of green plants. C. The way of photosynthesis. D. How to protect environment. 47. How is the text organized? A. Topic—Reason—Result. B. Opinion—Discussion—Conclusion. C. Introduction—Body—Conclusion. D. Problem—Advice—Suggestion. 48. Why do people put plants in offices and homes? A. To save money. B. To make the air clean and mood relaxed. C. To decorate rooms for beauty. D. To increase the temperature. E On April 19, 2026, the 2026 Beijing E-Town Humanoid Robot Half-Marathon took place in Beijing, China. It was a groundbreaking event where over 100 teams of humanoid robots raced alongside 12,000 human runners. The race covered the full half-marathon distance of 21.0975 kilometers. Two types of robots competed: autonomous navigation robots and remote-controlled robots to encourage autonomous technology, their times were weighted differently. Autonomous robots’ results counted at 1.0, while remote-controlled robots’ times were adjusted by 1.2. The star of the race was “Lightning,” an autonomous robot from Honor’s “Monkey King” team. It finished in an astonishing 50 minutes and 26 seconds. This time was faster than the current men’s human world record of 57 minutes and 20 seconds. Although a remote-controlled “Lightning” crossed the finish line first in 48:19, its weighted score was lower. This year’s event was a huge leap from 2025. The number of teams grew five times, and robots’ speed doubled or tripled. Engineers designed the robots by studying professional human runners. They used advanced cooling systems and powerful batteries to keep them running steadily. The race showed how quickly robot technology is developing and how it may change our future lives. 49. What is the main purpose of the weighted scoring system? A. To make remote-controlled robots run faster. B. To encourage the development of autonomous robots. C. To ensure all robots finish the race. D. To help human runners keep up with robots. 50. Which “Lightning” won the championship? A. The remote-controlled one from “Jueying Chitu”. B. The autonomous one from “Monkey King”. C. The fastest human runner. D. An international robot from France. 51. What can we infer about the 2025 race? A. Over 100 robot teams participated. B. Many robots could easily break world records. C. Fewer teams finished and speeds were slower. D. Human runners did not compete. 52. What is the main idea of the text? A. Human runners won a marathon in Beijing. B. 2026 robot marathon shows big tech progress. C. Remote-controlled robots are better than autonomous ones. D. How to build a fast humanoid robot. F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 A long time ago, there lived a poor farmer in a small village. He worked hard every day but still struggled to make ends meet. One day, a neighbor gave him a strange hen. To his great surprise, this hen laid a golden egg every single morning. The farmer quickly learned that each egg was made of pure gold. He took the eggs to the town and sold them for a high price. Soon, he became wealthy. He bought a bigger house, new clothes, and delicious food. His life changed greatly. However, as time went by, the farmer’s greed grew. He thought, “This hen must have a lot of golden eggs inside its body. If I kill it and open it up, I can get all the eggs at once instead of just one a day!” So, he took a knife and killed the hen. But when he opened its body, he found nothing but ordinary chicken parts inside. He was heartbroken. He had lost the only hen that could give him golden eggs, all because of his greed. 53. Why did the farmer kill the hen?（不超过10个词） __________________________________________________________________________ 54. What happened when the farmer killed the hen?（不超过10个词） __________________________________________________________________________ 55. What lesson can we learn from the story?（不超过10个词） __________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. The students often play games in a large f________ (场地) at the weekend. 57. My grandpa’s memory is getting p________ (差) as he grows older. 58. Our teachers always ask us to take n________ (笔记) carefully in class. 59. Learning to t________ (对待) everyone fairly is an important lesson for us. 60. I can’t stand the n________ (吵闹的) music that my neighbor plays every night. X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 61. 假如你是李华，初中生活即将结束，学校公众号征集主题为“Growth”的英语文章。请参考以下提示，以“My school life”为题写一篇英语短文投稿。 注意：1．词数80～100，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2．根据要点提示，可适当发挥； 3．文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。 My school life Happiness in life is to move forward and grow up. The past three years taught me that there is much to cherish in my school life. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 安徽省初中学业水平考试模拟（二）英语（试题卷） 2026年4月 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（10页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is the boy going to do at the art festival? A. B. C. 2. When will they finish training on Saturday? A. B. C. 3. How many ways are mentioned to protect the environment? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 4. Who has a black watch? A. Jack. B. Lily. C. Jerry. 5. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Waiter and customer. C. Brother and sister. II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 6. What was the score of the football game? A. 1-1. B. 3-1. C. 2-0. 7. How do Tom’s team improve teamwork? A. They have team meetings and encourage each other. B. They stay up late to discuss game skills every night. C. They ask good players for help before games. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. How long did the festival last this year? A. For a week. B. For 25 days. C. For a month. 9. Why did the artists start the festival in the beginning? A. Because they weren’t allowed to take part in Edinburgh’s international festivals. B. Because they wanted to get a lot of attention. C. Because they wanted to sell their works. 10. What did the man do last week? A. He saw a doctor. B. He cared for his mother. C. He went to a festival. III. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. What does the speaker do before going to a dinner party? A. He buys some fruit. B. He wears new clothes. C. He asks whether to bring food or not. 12. When did the speaker host a party? A. In summer. B. In autumn. C. In winter. 13. What kind of person is the speaker? A. A person who loves making desserts and sharing. B. A person who loves having parties and making friends. C. A person who loves making up his own mind. 14. Why does the speaker still bring something when he is told not to? A. To show his kindness. B. To be polite. C. To get nice words. 15. What does the speaker advise us not to bring to a dinner party? A. Something that doesn’t go with the menu. B. Something that is too expensive. C. Something that is too heavy to carry. IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。 短文读两遍。 My family and I love doing charity work together One of our favorite activities Visit the old people’s home My mom makes 16 biscuits. My dad brings his 17 . My brother asks the old people about their lives. I like to read them short stories or help them write 18 to their families. Other charity work 19 old clothes, books and toys and take them to a children’s home The kids there are excited. My brother and I often play 20 games with them. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 【6题答案】 【答案】D 【7题答案】 【答案】D 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】C VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D VII. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. F 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. B 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） VIII. 阅读理解（共20 小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. C 38. B B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. B 40. B 41. C 42. D C 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. D 44. B 45. A D 【46~48题答案】 【答案】46. B 47. C 48. B E 【49~52题答案】 【答案】49. B 50. B 51. C 52. B F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. Because of his greed./To get all golden eggs at once. 54. He found no golden eggs inside. 55. Don’t be greedy./Greed leads to loss. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】field##ield 【57题答案】 【答案】poor##oor 【58题答案】 【答案】notes##otes 【59题答案】 【答案】treat##reat 【60题答案】 【答案】noisy##oisy X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 My school life Happiness in life is to move forward and grow up. The past three years taught me that there is much to cherish in my school life. One of the most influential things is that I mastered some learning skills, such as what to preview and review and how to use mind maps. During that time, I found my increasing interest in English, too. Moreover, I also kept training on our school football team. Because of it, I made many friends and became more active and independent. I also formed many good habits, including reading some classics, keeping a diary and not eating junk food. To sum up, surrounded by kind and helpful teachers and schoolmates, I really enjoyed the past three years. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $