山东烟台市福山区2026年初四英语诊断性测试

2026年初四英语诊断性测试 参考答案 第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 1—3 ACB 4—7 BDCD 8—11 ADCA 12—15 BADB 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 16—20 DBCFA 第二部分 语言知识应用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10题；每小题1分，满分10分） 21—25 ABDCA 26—30 BCABD 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 31.else’s 32.is done 33.to read 34.an 35.only 36.Although 37.successful 38.patiently 39.helping 40.connection 第三部分 书面表达（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 41. Because of climate change and the loss of natural homes for plants and animals. 42. To help people understand the natural environment and what we can do to protect it./ To help people learn about nature and know how to protect it. 43. Their good green habits can easily inspire their parents and grandparents to live a greener life. 44. To recycle waste, save water and electricity, and use reusable things. / Recycling waste, saving water and electricity, and using reusable things (任选两项) 45. Helping young people know about, care about, and do things to protect the environment. / It not only helps us know and care about the environment but also encourages us to take real action. 第三节 写作（满分20分） 评分标准： 1．本题满分为20分。按五个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言表达的流畅、准确程度等确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来确定本档次得分。出现考生个人信息不得分。 3．作文词数不少于80，不多于120，否则扣1分。 4．书写不规范，卷面不整洁，扣1-2分。 5．各档次的给分范围和要求： 第一档（17—20分）：要点全面，能正确表述自己的观点，行文流畅，无语法和词汇错误。 第二档（13—16分）：能写出绝大部分要点，行文基本流畅，有少量语法和词汇错误。 第三档（9—12分）：写出大部分要点，行文尚通顺，有一些语法和词汇错误。 第四档（5—8分）：只写出部分要点，语言不通顺，有很多语法和词汇错误。 第五档（0—4分）：基本上没有实际内容，语法及拼写错误太多，不知所云。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年初四英语诊断性测试 （100分钟，90分） 考生注意： 1．答题前请把答题卡密封线内的项目填写清楚。 2．请把所选的所有试题的答案涂在（用2B铅笔）或填写在（用0.5毫米黑色签字笔）答题卡上。考试结束上交答题卡。在试卷上和答题卡指定区域外的答案无效。 第一部分 阅读理解 共两节，满分35分 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Are mosquitoes driving you crazy? This summer, make some mint oil to drive them away! Mosquitoes are awful. They seem to be everywhere and may bite you badly. This makes mint (薄荷) oil a perfect gift for your family and friends in summer. This weekend, you can try making mint oil FOR FREE. Time: 9:00 a.m. — 11:50 a.m. Saturday (July 6) Place: Riverside Community Center Please note: ♥ We’ll get all the tools and materials ready. ♥ For 40 people only: First come, first served. ♥ To book a place for the activity, please call Lucy at 458378 by 7:00 p.m. Friday. For those who would like to practice it at home, here are the steps: ◆ Cut up the mint. Put it into a bottle with olive (橄榄) oil. ◆ Cover the bottle and place it in hot water. ◆ When the water cools down, move the bottle to a warm area and leave it there for at least two hours. ◆ Pour the mixture onto a thin piece of cotton cloth on top of a dark bottle. Let the oil go through the cloth into the bottle. Now you get your homemade mint oil. 1. What do we know about the mint oil making activity? A. Only 40 people can take part in the activity. B. It will cost people little money for the activity. C. People need to bring their own tools and materials. D. People can book a place by calling Lucy on Saturday. 2. What is the right order of the steps? A. ③→①→②→④ B. ②→④→①→③ C. ③→②→④→① D. ②→①→③→④ 3. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To tell people how to make mint oil at home. B. To introduce a free activity of making mint oil. C. To show why mint oil is a good gift in summer. D. To ask people to protect themselves from mosquitoes. B Caroline Herschel was a great astronomer (天文学家). She was born in Hanover, Germany, in 1750. At the age of 22, she moved to England to live with her elder brother, William. William worked as a musician and gave Caroline singing lessons. In return, Caroline helped him with housework. She practiced singing very hard and soon began to sing at his concerts. Later, William developed an interest in astronomy. He read books about space late every night, and breakfast often became a time for him to teach Caroline about stars. Caroline learned a lot from him, and they even worked together on a big project: building telescopes (望远镜). These tools are special for seeing things far away. To make good mirrors for their telescopes, they heated metals and shaped them with special molds. Some of these molds were made from dry horse waste, and Caroline had to break it into small pieces. It was dirty work, but she didn’t mind it. Making the mirrors smooth was quite difficult. William invented a machine to help with this work, but once he started, he had to keep working for hours without stopping. He even couldn’t stop to eat, so Caroline fed him and read stories to make him relaxed. In 1781, William made a wonderful discovery — a new planet. King George was very happy and made William his astronomer. William then made a telescope just for Caroline, and she started to search the sky together with him. On August 1, 1786, Caroline also found something special — a comet (彗星). She watched it carefully for another night and made sure it was a real comet. Soon, everyone talked about her discovery, and people called it the Lady’s Comet. This was the first comet Caroline discovered, and she went on to find seven more comets by herself between 1786 and 1797. She was one of the first women astronomers to get paid for her work, and her story still inspires many people today. 4. What does the word “molds” mean in Paragraph 2? A. Pieces of dry horse waste. B. Tools used to shape metals. C. Mirrors for the telescopes. D. Machines invented by William. 5. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. William discovered a new comet in 1781. B. The Lady’s Comet was discovered in 1797. C. Caroline got a telescope from William in 1786. D. Caroline found eight comets by herself in total. 6. What does the passage mainly tell us? A. How Caroline discovered her first comet. B. William’s great contribution to astronomy. C. The life story of a great woman astronomer. D. How Caroline and William built telescopes together. 7. Which of the following best describes Caroline and William’s working relationship? A. Caroline gave William more help. B. Caroline had to do all the dirty work. C. William took care of most of the work. D. They were important to each other’s success. C On a February afternoon, Andrea Coatti watched a Chinese snowboarder race down a course he helped build for the 2026 Milan - Cortina Olympic Winter Games. He shouted “Steady! Beautiful!” in Mandarin (普通话), his voice mixing with the cheers of the crowd. In China’s Chongli, the 41 – year - old Italian is known as Yibu, a Chinese name he gave himself, meaning “one step”. This name comes from his life philosophy (哲学) — taking things one step at a time, and it also reminds him of the important choice he made 20 years ago. In 2006, Coatti came to Chongli to help build a ski resort at his teacher’s invitation. At first, he was shocked by the dark night there, but the beautiful snow-covered mountains and the warm, friendly local people made him decide to stay. Back then, Chongli was a quiet mountain town with only a few, simple ski areas, and few people knew how to ski. Coatti hoped to build a place where everyone, from beginners to pros, could enjoy the fun of skiing. Later, Coatti and his partner Simon Adams, a Scot with the same interest for skiing, set up a company and built many parks in Chongli. They even helped build the venue (场馆) for the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics. With the rich Olympic experience, they got more international projects. Over the years, Chongli has changed greatly: high-speed rail connects it to Beijing in less than an hour, and it has become a popular international ski center. What makes Coatti happiest is seeing many children skiing happily in Chongli. Once, there were very few young skiers, but now kids from all over China come here to learn skiing. “A love for snow starts with a seed,” he said. Coatti now lives in Chongli and sees himself as a local, and his “one step” in this small town has become a big leap (飞跃) connecting China and Italy. 8. What does Coatti’s Chinese name mean? A. One step. B. Beautiful snow. C. Ski resort. D. Big leap. 9. What made Coatti choose to stay in Chongli at first? A. The good pay of his job. B. His interest in learning Mandarin. C. His love for dark nights. D. The beautiful scenery and kind locals. 10. How has Chongli changed over these years? A. It has the most ski areas in China. B. It becomes the center for Italian skiers. C. It has many foreign visitors to ski now. D. It takes several hours to get to Beijing. 11. What’s the main idea of this passage? A. To show how Coatti helped Chongli develop. B. To tell the history of development in Chongli. C. To talk about Coatti’s life in Italy and his work. D. To introduce the 2026 Milan-Cortina Olympic Winter Games. D From March 13 to 15, the 2026 FIRST Robotics Competition (FRC) Shanghai Regional was held at East China Normal University. The venue was full of excitement — the sound of robot motors and cheers from students and audience filled the air. Nearly 1,000 young students from 50 teams around the world joined the event to show their engineering skills. This year’s theme was “Rebuilt”, which asked students to learn about history through engineering. Many teams brought their carefully made robots, and they were all ready to show their hard work and creativity. Before the competition, most teams spent months preparing: they drew designs, bought parts and tested their robots again and again to make sure they worked well. Teams first took part in qualifying rounds. Only the best teams would get the chance to go to the global finals in Houston, the US, in April. In each match, two teams worked together as a group to finish tasks like scoring fuel, crossing obstacles (障碍) and climbing towers in limited time. Every match started with a 20-second autonomous period (robots worked by themselves), followed by 2 minutes and 20 seconds when students controlled the robots by hand. All the students tried their best to finish the tasks well and win the game. Some students even stayed up late before the match to check their robots and fix small problems. Collin Fultz, senior director for FRC, said the competition let students experience real-world engineering. The game changes every year, so students can’t reuse last year’s robot design. He added that students need to work closely in teams, practicing communication and problem-solving skills while building their robots. Chen Bangchao from FRC China noted that the number of Chinese teams increased by 20% this year, showing more Chinese students’ interest in engineering and innovation. A Taiwan student Wang Po-hao loved robotics and learned a lot from building robots. He said he spent months with his teammates testing and improving their robot, which made him more patient and creative. Lu Yixuan, a team captain from Shanghai, felt proud of their student-made robot and fell in love with robotics. She shared that their team overcame many difficulties together, and the experience taught her the importance of teamwork and persistence (坚持). Both Wang and Lu said the competition helped them know more about their interests and future dreams. 12. What did most teams do before the 2026 FRC Shanghai Regional? A. They went to Houston to watch the global finals. B. They prepared by drawing designs and testing robots. C. They reused their robots from last year’s competition. D. They learned history through different kinds of books. 13. What’s the purpose of the 2026 FRC Shanghai Regional? A. To let students show engineering skills and learn new things. B. To ask students to design the best robot for the global finals. C. To help students make more good friends from other countries. D. To teach students how to win all kinds of competitions in the world. 14. We can learn from the passage that ______. A. Wang Po-hao was the captain of a Taiwan team B. all the teams could go to the global finals in Houston C. students controlled the robots all the time during a match D. more Chinese students are becoming interested in engineering 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The 2026 FRC Shanghai Regional lasted for 2 days. B. The theme “Rebuilt” is about history and engineering. C. Lu Yixuan’s team met few difficulties during the competition. D. There were 1000 teams from all over the world in the competition. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Sports might have started as a way to survive. Long ago, people ran, jumped, and climbed to stay alive. 16 Wall paintings from centuries ago, showing activities like wrestling (摔跤) or dancing, were found in an Egyptian tomb. The ancient Greeks made a big change by holding the first Olympic Games. Modern sports began in England in the early 19th century and then spread globally. These became the models for sports such as football that we play now. 17 Organized sports, whether swimming or skating, are serious forms of play. There are rules to obey, skills and positions to learn, and plans to carry out. Team sports like soccer require you to work with teammates, while individual (个人的) sports such as tennis focus on your personal performance. 18 The American Academy of Pediatrics says play is important for kids’ and teens’ thinking, bodies, social lives and feelings. Sports exercise our bodies and teach us about ourselves and our world. Organized sports get us using our bodies and minds, which makes us more imaginative, curious (好奇的), and creative. 19 In an ideal world, sports would always be fun. But in reality, sports can cause physical hurt like broken bones, and also harm in mind. In team sports, misunderstandings and hurt feelings are part of the learning process. Sports are supposed to bring people together. 20 Even when they’re not always a cheerful experience, they show us how to face life’s challenges. There’s no better place to play and learn about the world than on a sports field. No matter what sport you choose, the key is to play for fun. When you do, you’re already a winner. A. But they can also drive people apart. B. Sports come in many shapes and sizes. C. There’s no doubt that sports are valuable. D. Hunters were known for their special skills. E. Most People like doing sports with their friends. F. The skills we learn can help us in school and later at work. 16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________ 19. ________ 20. ________ 第二部分 语言知识应用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 We do everything in a hurry — finishing our meals quickly, completing our tasks in a rush, running to the gyms without a break... We choose fast living because we think we have no 21 of time. We try to do as much as we can each day, carefully checking off tasks on our to-do lists. Living in a rush makes us feel always pressed for time and unable to slow down to enjoy a peaceful moment. Our way of thinking that focuses on speed 22 doing more than doing things well. For a long time, we believe that speed means being hard-working and successful, and 23 , we keep rushing here and there to finish everything. Yet now and then, we find ourselves in a predicament (困境) that no matter how fast we go, we never seem to catch up with our endless tasks and 24 . The Slow Movement thinks that the 25 to our predicament is not to live faster, but to learn to live slower. The movement started with the Slow Food Program, which was 26 in 1986. It suggested that we should refuse fast-food restaurants, protect traditional cooking, and encourage people to 27 preparing and eating food with their families. This belief soon spread from the Slow Food Program to other parts of life, such as work and daily communication. The main idea of the Slow Movement is to care more about 28 over quantity (数量). Slow living is a healthy lifestyle based on this movement. Its goal is to free us from the endless rush that 29 us from enjoying moments of rest and happiness. Today, more people are interested in the Slow Movement, 30 social media shares many benefits of living slowly with the public. 21. A. control B. use C. mind D. need 22. A. avoids B. values C. refuses D. hides 23. A. however B. but C. though D. therefore 24. A. dreams B. orders C. goals D. predictions 25. A. answer B. question C. problem D. trouble 26. A. put up B. set up C. turned on D. given up 27. A. practice B. keep C. enjoy D. remember 28. A. quality B. speed C. safety D. health 29. A. makes B. stops C. takes D. teaches 30. A. so B. if C. though D. because 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Reading a good book is really a great journey. When a reader gets into a well-written book, it’s just like going into a new world and living someone 31 (else) life for some time. This experience becomes even more wonderful when it 32 (do) by buddy (伙伴) reading. That means two or more people read together. During buddy reading, the buddies do lots of different reading activities. They may take turns 33 (read) out loud, share their favorite parts, or talk about the characters and the story. For example, they can stop at 34 exciting part of the story and argue about what will happen next. This not 35 makes reading more fun but also helps them understand the book better. 36 having students of the same age do buddy reading is a good choice, schools often like to match older students with younger ones. In 2021, Green School started such a program, and it has been very 37 (succeed). In this two-year program, both the younger and older readers have got a lot of benefits. They have learned to be kind and patient when listening to each other. A younger student may be a little shy at first when reading out loud, and the older buddy has to wait 38 (patient) for him to finish. Also, this program gives chances to practice important life-long skills. Take leadership for example. Older students can lead the talk about the book, 39 (help) the younger ones to think carefully. Communication skills are improved as they share their ideas about the story. What’s more, the school has become a more united community because of buddy reading. The reading buddies are looking forward to their meetings and feel a strong 40 (connect). The students are really excited when they see their reading buddies in the school hallway. Now that summer vacation is coming, it’s a perfect time to start reading. So, why not get together with a friend, choose a book you both like, and start this great reading journey together? 第三部分 书面表达（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，完成短文后的问题。 The world is facing serious environmental challenges nowadays. Climate change and the loss of natural homes for plants and animals are making the Earth less and less livable (宜居) for humans. Many people are worried about this and keep thinking: What can we young people and our friends do to change our daily lifestyles to build a healthier planet? How can society help us become more active in protecting the Earth? Environmental education might be the most helpful way. For many years, experts have developed all kinds of environmental education programs to help people learn about nature and know how to protect it. Most of these programs are specially made for teenagers like us. We have more ability to make a real difference than we can imagine. Because we have a long future ahead of us, our daily lifestyle choices will influence the world greatly in our lifetime. What’s more, our good green habits can easily inspire our parents and grandparents to live a greener life too. But do these programs really work? The answer is certainly yes. Scientific studies show that environmental education greatly improves young people’s knowledge of nature, climate and protection. It also helps them hold positive attitudes and feel inspired to take action. Besides, they are more willing to recycle waste, save water and electricity, and use reusable things in daily life. In a word, environmental education has wide and great benefits. It not only helps us know and care about the environment but also encourages us to take real action. However, some questions still need to be discussed. For example, what is the best teaching method for environmental education? Which activities fit students of different ages better? There is no perfect answer, but we can learn from different ideas to make it better. 41. Why is the Earth harder to live on according to the passage? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 42. What is the goal of environmental education programs? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 43. What influence can teenagers’ green habits have on the old generations? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 44. List two kinds of environmental action young people may take according to the passage. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 45. What are the benefits of environmental education programs? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 写作（满分20分） 假如你是李华，你的英国笔友Tom来信询问山东省新设立的中小学春秋假，请你根据以下提示完成回信。 提示要点： 1．介绍春秋假：2026年起实施，春秋假各3天，期中前后放假； 2．假期要求：无书面作业，不补课，日常教学中完成学习任务； 3．你的假期计划：研学实践，亲近自然，参与劳动等； 4．你对春秋假的看法。 要求： 1．词数100左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）； 2．条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范； 3．结合提示要点，可适当发挥，避免重复，不使用真实姓名和校名。 参考开头和结尾： Dear Tom, How is everything going? I’m writing to tell you about the new spring and autumn vacations in Shandong. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $