河北省邯郸市永年区第二中学等校2025-2026学下学期4月高一期中考试英语试题

2025～2026下学期高一期中考试·英语 参考答案 题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 答案 C A C C B A C B C A B B C A B 题号 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 答案 C B A A A C B D A B C D A B B 题号 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 答案 C C D C A F C A G E B A D A B 题号 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 答案 A B D C A B D C D B 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 1～5 CACCB 6～10 ACBCA 11～15 BBCAB 16～20 CBAAA 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 【文章大意】本文是一篇应用文。文章向我们介绍了美国举办的顶级音乐节。 21.【答案】C 22.【答案】B 23.【答案】D 【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者和高中足球队队友在地铁上唱歌时,一位无家可归的老人加入并一起合唱,陌生人之间通过歌声产生了温暖联系的故事。 24.【答案】A 25.【答案】B 26.【答案】C 27.【答案】D 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了人们对减排及环保饮食的认知与实际效果不符，指出应摒弃感性环保方式，重视真正有效的环保行动。 28.【答案】A 29.【答案】B 30.【答案】B 31.【答案】C 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了为了让人工智能更好地具备情商，研究人员创造了一种电子“舌头”。这项技术可以用来识别所有主要的味道特征，从甜、咸到鲜味。 32.【答案】C 33.【答案】D 34.【答案】C 35.【答案】A 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了实现个人赋能的方法。 36.【答案】F 37.【答案】C 38.【答案】A 39.【答案】G 40.【答案】E 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者在网上接到一个被大风吹倒的大树需要伐木的生意，作者伐完木之后，老妇人积攒了半年并答应作者应付的150美元不见了。看到老妇人不太富裕的家庭现状，作者在没领到工钱的情况下，还帮她收拾了木柴。 41.【答案】B 42.【答案】A 43.【答案】D 44.【答案】A 45.【答案】B 46.【答案】A 47.【答案】B 48.【答案】D 49.【答案】C 50.【答案】A 51.【答案】B 52.【答案】D 53.【答案】C 54.【答案】D 55.【答案】B 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了剪纸艺术家Leong Koon Meng。 56.【答案】traditional 57.【答案】the 58.【答案】keeping 59.【答案】artists 60.【答案】that/which 61.【答案】to create 62.【答案】in 63.【答案】mainly 64.【答案】discovered 65.【答案】importance 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） One possible version: Dear Ryan, I’m glad to hear you want to join our school’s Tai Chi Club. This club, which was founded five years ago, brings together students who love Tai Chi. Here, you can learn basic movements and even advanced skills from experienced teachers. What makes it special is that we often organize performances, where you can show your talent. I believe joining the club will be a wonderful experience for you, and you’ll surely enjoy it. I hope you can improve your skills and make many friends here. Best wishes! Yours, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写(满分 25 分) One possible version: My concern touched Justine and she told me about her troubles. I had always been a good listener. I learned that she was devoted to painting and had a successful personal art exhibition one year ago. Unfortunately, her studio caught fire a year ago, which almost destroyed everything and her hand was injured. Then, she couldn’t find inspiration for her paintings and became less and less confident. So she took her luggage and began to travel around the country to forget the pain. I wanted to help her find a job to build up her confidence in life. I suddenly remembered a painting dealer, who opened an art gallery. Maybe he could use a painter like Justine there. That’s why I called him and told him about the story of Justine. To my delight, when he finished reading Justine’s paintings, he agreed to invite Justine to work in his gallery. Looking at Justine’s satisfied smile and tears, I knew my kindness was rewarded. A small act of kindness and concern for others is enough to make a difference in someone’s life. 听力部分录音材料 (Text 1) M: How much does it cost? W: 80 yuan. However, if you’re a VIP customer, I can give you 20% off. M: Wonderful! This is my VIP card. (Text 2) M: You seem in high spirits, Lily. Is there any good news for me? W: Mike has returned from Shanghai. M: No kidding! Should we head over and see him immediately? W: That’s exactly why I’m here. (Text 3) W: What jobs have you done in the past five years? M: Different kinds of jobs. I was once a painter for a year and I became a salesman after that. And now I work as a waiter. (Text 4) W: Could you walk a bit quicker? We’re going to be late for the concert. M: Slow down! I’m wearing new shoes and they’re killing my feet. Plus, look at this crowd on the sidewalk—we can’t exactly speed through them. (Text 5) W: Your grades have improved a lot recently! How did you do that? M: Well, I started to take more detailed notes in class and review them every day. Also, I stopped playing video games and spent more time doing my homework. W: That’s amazing! (Text 6) M: Did you enjoy yourself during your winter vacation? W: Yes! I had a wonderful time. It was freezing cold here, so my brothers and I went to Sanya and spent ten days there. The weather was warm and pleasant. M: Where did you live in Sanya? W: We stayed at our aunt’s beach house. Sanya is where my mum grew up, so it’s like a second home to me. (Text 7) M: Lily, there will be a flower show at Green Valley Garden tomorrow afternoon. Do you feel like going? W: That really catches my interest. What time does it start? M: Let me check. It starts at 2 o’clock tomorrow afternoon. W: Oh, but I promised our son that we’d go to the beach tomorrow. I should’ve mentioned it before. M: He already told me about it. We can bring him with us. We can go to the beach first and then visit the show. W: That’s a great idea. (Text 8) W: Sunshine Sports Centre, what can I do for you? M: Hi, I want to know something about the centre. W: Now, we just have a small shop. But next year, we’ll build a new part of the centre with a small exercise room. M: Do people who join the centre need to wear special clothes there? W: We’re not like some places where you must wear special sports tops or centre sweaters. But members here have to wear right sports shoes. M: OK. What about classes for young students? W: Our teachers are really good, but they don’t teach many students together. One-hour classes cost fifty dollars, but that’s usually too long for young students. So our teachers only give thirty-minute classes, and each class costs twenty-five dollars. M: Hmm. Can people who aren’t members come here? W: Yes, but they must come with a member of our centre. (Text 9) W: First, can you tell me something about the projects you did before? M: Sure. I’m finishing a project this month. W: Are you working by yourself now, or with a group of people? M: I’m in a small team. I think when you work with others, you can get more good ideas. When I’ve got enough experience, I will work on projects by myself. W: That’s just the way of thinking we like here. Our company often does projects with people from different parts of the world. Would you be all right with joining online meetings at strange times? We might have three to five late-night meetings every week. M: Three to five? That’s a lot. W: Yes, this job needs you to be able to change easily. M: I think it’s a fun chance. It’ll make me learn to get used to new things, and I’m ready for it. It’ll keep me busy and active. W: Great. I’ve liked talking with you. We’ll tell you if you get the job in five days when the office is open. M: Thank you, Mrs. Clark. I can’t wait to hear from you. (Text 10) W: Hey, classmates! I’ve got great news! Next Friday, we’ll go on a school trip to Riverview Park. This park is wonderful. It has big green trees, colourful flowers and a beautiful river. There are small hills too. Climbing them gives us a great view. I’m sure this trip will be one of the best this term! The cost is low. A ticket usually costs , but we only pay 5 each as a group. And the bus ride is free! Mr. Brown is away this week, so give your money to Ms. White. She works in the school office. Let’s talk about time. We’ll meet at the school gate at 7:45 a.m. The bus leaves at 8:00 a.m. Don’t be late! Come 15 minutes early. When we get to the park, I’ll give you a paper with questions and a pen. Answering them will be fun. Remember, there are no stores in the park. Bring enough food and drinks, like sandwiches, fruits and snacks. Also, take a water bottle. I’m really excited about the trip. I hope you are too! 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025～2026下学期高一期中考试 英 语 （试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. Where are the speakers now? A. In a hospital. B. At home. C. In a shop. 2. What will the speakers do next? A. Visit Mike. B. Go to Shanghai. C. Watch TV news. 3. What did the man work as first in the past five years? A. A waiter. B. A salesman. C. A painter. 4. What are the speakers doing? A. Buying new shoes. B. Playing in the concert. C. Walking on a street. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. The way to do homework. B. The man’s study habits. C. The woman’s grades. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. How long did the woman stay in Sanya? A. For ten days. B. For two months. C. For one week. 7. Where did the woman stay in Sanya? A. Far from the beach. B. In a hotel. C. In her aunt’s house. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. How does the woman find the flower show? A. Expensive. B. Attractive. C. Boring. 9. What did the woman promise her son to do? A. Visit the garden. B. Pick flowers. C. Go to the beach. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What will be added to Sunshine Sports Centre next year? A. A small exercise room. B. A large sports hall. C. A big shop. 11. What must members wear in the centre? A. Special sports tops. B. Right sports shoes. C. Centre sweaters. 12. How much does a young student pay for two 30-minute classes? A. 100 dollars. B. 50 dollars. C. 25 dollars. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How will the man do projects in the future? A. By leading a small group. B. By joining a big team. C. By working alone. 14. What does the woman say about the job? A. It needs the ability to change. B. It includes short meetings. C. It offers high pay. 15. How does the man feel about the job in the end? A. Challenging. B. Acceptable. C. Easy. 16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Co-workers. B. Boss and secretary. C. Interviewer and interviewee. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. How will the students go to Riverview Park? A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By car. 18. What can we know about Ms. White? A. She needs to collect money. B. She is the park manager. C. She is a tour guide. 19. What activity will be done in the park? A. Answering questions. B. Drawing pictures. C. Planting trees. 20. What does the speaker advise the students to do? A. Prepare food and drinks. B. Carry school things. C. Take an umbrella. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Top Music Festivals to Attend in the US Big Ears Festival Dates: March 27-30 Big Ears Festival brings a unique mix of new and experimental music to Knoxville, Tennessee. Set across various intimate venues (私密场所) in the city, Big Ears attracts fans of jazz, classical, and indie (独立) music looking for something different from traditional festivals. The festival mixes different types of music and has special teamwork, focusing on new and creative ideas. Austin City Limits Music Festival Dates: October 3-5 and 10-12 Austin City Limits (ACL) takes place over two weekends in the heart of Austin, Texas, a city famous for its live music scene. ACL brings together artists across rock, country, and electronic genres, attracting a large group of people. In addition to music, ACL offers local food, arts, and activities, all set in the Zilker Park, making it a lively experience for music lovers of all ages. Lollapalooza Chicago Dates: August 7-10 Lollapalooza is a long-running festival located in downtown Chicago’s Grant Park, bringing a wide range of musical acts to the heart of the city. It has many types of music like rock, hip-hop, pop, and EDM, and many people from all over the world come to enjoy it. The festival also has an impressive food and arts scene, offering attendees more than just live performances. Firefly Music Festival Dates: September 19-22 Firefly Music Festival combines the feel of a camping experience with live music across different stages. Located in the Woodlands of Dover, the festival attracts a wide range of artists and features pop-up shops and interactive art displays. It’s celebrated for its diverse lineup (多样化的阵容) covering rock, indie, pop, and hip-hop. 21. What type of music does the Big Ears Festival focus on? A. Hip-hop, pop, and EDM. B. Americana, blues, and folk music. C. Jazz, classical, and indie music. D. Rock, country, and electronic music. 22. Which festival takes place in Texas? A. Big Ears Festival. B. Austin City Limits Music Festival. C. Lollapalooza Chicago. D. Firefly Music Festival. 23. What makes Firefly Music Festival unique? A. Its focus on rock music. B. Its location in downtown Chicago’s Grant Park. C. The diverse lineup of international artists. D. The combination of camping and live music. B For all my seventeen years, New York City has been my home. It’s a place of energy, though often seen as cold and distant. Yet, personal connections can still happen here. One cold November, my high school soccer team was heading home to Manhattan after a game in the Bronx. Twenty of us piled onto the D train, loud and full of energy, filling the car with our talking and laughter. To pass the time on the long ride, we started singing loudly, our excitement making up for not having musical talent. Our noise was met with mostly unhappy looks from the other passengers. Then, an old homeless man with worn-out clothes and a calm and respectful way entered the car. He said he would sing a few songs. While most people ignored him, we watched closely. He began with “Joy to the World”. His strong and clear voice was so moving that we found ourselves joining in. The atmosphere (气氛) in the car changed; people who had been keeping to themselves now listened, enjoying this special moment. He sang a few more songs, including one of his own, and was met with applause (掌声). For his final song, he chose “God Bless America”. This time, not just our group, but everyone in the car joined in singing. The powerful, united singing drew people from other subway cars to ours. I saw a woman holding a baby, singing with tears streaming down her cheeks. In that moment, a group of strangers-quiet New Yorkers, high school girls, and a homeless man-came together through songs, allowing our voices and hearts to become one. It is a moment whose power will stay with me forever. 24. What do people often think of New Yorkers? A. They care little about others. B. They are always in a hurry. C. They are concerned about the homeless. D. They are proud of their soccer teams. 25. Why did we begin to sing on the D train? A. To show off their beautiful voice. B. To kill the time during the long ride. C. To cover the loud noise of the D train. D. To attract the attention of other passengers. 26. How did the atmosphere change after the old man started singing? A. It became more silent and serious. B. It remained largely unchanged. C. It became warmer and more united. D. It became strange and uncomfortable. 27. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To describe the challenges of living in New York. B. To explain the rules of behaviour on the D train. C. To discuss the musical talent of the homeless man. D. To tell the story of an unexpected human connection. C Years ago, Ipsos surveyed 21,000 people in 30 countries on actions they believed would cut greenhouse gas emissions (排放) most. Most people picked recycling, followed by buying renewable energy, turning to an electric car, and choosing low-energy light bulbs (灯泡). However, when classed by their actual influence, recycling was third-from-bottom, and low-energy light bulbs were last. None of the top three choices chosen by people appeared in the “real” top three, which were having one fewer child, not having a car, and avoiding one long-distance flight. The survey also asked about the climate effects of different diets. Many thought local meat and dairy were more eco-friendly than an imported (进口的) vegetarian diet. In fact, beef and dairy have among the highest carbon footprints, no matter where they come from. While buying locally might feel environmentally friendly, beef and dairy have two of the highest carbon footprints of any food. Finally, what you choose to eat is generally far more important than where you source it from. Data scientist and author Hannah Ritchie expands on these examples in her upcoming book, Not the End of the World. She notes that everything has a greenhouse gas footprint: watching movies, charging phones, or having a cup of tea. Naturally, we stress about the decisions we have to make. “The cost of fighting climate change is too high and it’s taken over our lives. That would be okay if all these actions were really making a difference, but they’re not. It’s misplaced effort and stress, sometimes even at the cost of the few actions that really will matter,” writes Ritchie. The emphasis (强调) on “natural” and “green” choices can mislead people. Maybe it’s time to drop the feeling-driven way of environmentalism. As Ritchie writes, there’s nothing wrong with doing things that have a small effect on the environment or help out in ways personally important to us, but we shouldn’t miss bigger changes just because they don’t feel obvious. 28. What was considered the most effective emission-reduction action by people in the survey? A. Recycling. B. Having one fewer child. C. Buying renewable energy. D. Avoiding one long-distance flight. 29. Why might local meat and dairy not be eco-friendly? A. Local food is less fresh than imported food. B. Their carbon footprint is high regardless of origin. C. Imported vegetarian food is always a better choice. D. Local farms often use more energy than large ones. 30. What does Hannah Ritchie mean by “misplaced effort and stress” in Paragraph 3? A. Climate data misleads people’s choices. B. People’s efforts bring little real effect. C. Experts don’t recognize people’s climate efforts. D. Small green actions hardly affect climate change. 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Bigger Changes Are upon Us B. Going Green Is Not Beyond Us C. Your Eco-Friendly Lifestyle Is a Big Lie D. Your Efforts Make a Big Difference D AI has advanced greatly over the years. However, its present models largely ignore human psychology, such as emotional intelligence. “The main focus of our work was how we could bring the emotional part of intelligence to AI,” says Saptarshi Das, associate professor at Penn State. “Human behaviour is easy to observe but difficult to measure and that makes it difficult to copy in a robot and make it emotionally intelligent. There is no real way right now to do that.” Eating habits serve as a prime example of this emotional intelligence. While hunger is the physiological drive to eat, our choices of what to eat are influenced by our sense of taste. As Das explains, even when one is not hungry, the psychological desire can drive him or her to have a sweet treat, rather than a piece of meat. To understand how taste works, researchers from Penn State studied the human tongue (舌头). The tongue turns chemical information into electrical signals that go to the brain’s taste centre. There, complex brain cell networks form our sense of taste. To copy this process, the team built an electronic “tongue”. This technology can be adapted to recognize all primary taste characteristics, from sweet and salty to umami (鲜味). Looking ahead, the researchers see many applications, including AI-designed diets based on emotional preferences or personalized restaurant meal suggestions. The team’s first goal is to improve the electronic tongue’s abilities. “We are trying to copy the 10,000 or so taste buds (味蕾) on our tongue. Each bud is a little different, which lets us tell apart small taste differences,” says Das. “The example I think of is people who train their tongue to become a wine taster. Perhaps in the future, we can have an AI system that you can train and be an even better wine taster.” Beyond taste, the team wants to broaden this concept to other senses, leading to a more complete and emotionally intelligent AI system. 32. What is the main problem with present AI models? A. They are hard to copy in robots. B. They have made little progress. C. They ignore human psychology. D. They can’t observe human behaviour. 33. What did researchers do to study taste? A. Trained an AI wine taster. B. Designed personalized diets. C. Broadened the concept to other senses. D. Studied the tongue and built an electronic one. 34. What might this electronic tongue be applied to in the future? A. Designing a healthier diet plan for people. B. Checking people’s diet plans. C. Helping restaurants serve customers better. D. Correcting people’s poor dietary preferences. 35. What is the team’s plan according to the last two paragraphs? A. Bringing all the human senses into the AI system. B. Making the electronic tongue available for everyone. C. Drawing other researchers’ attention to AI’s new ideas. D. Improving people’s taste sensitivity with the electronic tongue. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Surely, you want to be empowered (赋能的), always in the driver’s seat of your own life, but sometimes life leaves you feeling powerless or stuck, having no control over a situation 36 . Start by making a small change in your daily life. You don’t have to turn your whole life around all at once. 37 A few small decisions are just as good as one large decision. Good changes might include going to bed earlier, getting up earlier, commuting (通勤) by walking or biking, reducing time on the Internet and scheduling time for yourself. 38 Catch negative thoughts as they pass through your head and let them go like clouds floating by. Turn statements expressing worries into hopeful statements. You could turn a thought like, “I’m so nervous for this test” into a statement like, “This test is going to be hard, but I’m going to do my best.” Set reasonable goals. Measurable, achievable goals are an important makeup of personal empowerment, and understanding how to set them can help you feel good about your achievements. 39 Create short-term goals as well as long-term goals. Short-term goals include: giving up smoking, walking for 30 minutes per day, connecting with friends and family once a week, and so on. Accept your mistakes or problems. You won’t be able to achieve all of your goals perfectly, and that’s okay! Remember that you’re only human, and learn to forgive yourself if you mess up. 40 Remember that you should only compare yourself against who you were in the past, not against anyone else. A. Use positive self-talk. B. Practise self-care. C. Instead, pick something small that you can work towards today. D. Sticking to your promise can make you feel like you’re in the driver’s seat. E. The more you accept yourself for who you are, the more others will, too. F. The good news is that you can do something to achieve personal empowerment. G. If you have an area of life to change, try breaking them down into your goals. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分) 第一节 （共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分） 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I was having a hard time trying to find work. The economy in our area was 41 . And I was 42 for what to do next when I answered the online 43 . NEEDED: someone to cut and split (使裂开) wood. I drove to the address and there on the front field was a huge fallen elm tree 44 by strong winds. An old lady was sitting 45 at the door. We 46 on $150 to do the job. The old elm tree was tougher than I had 47 . My chainsaw (链锯) cut it fine, but when I tried to split it, my chainsaw was useless. So I had to 48 a wood splitter from her neighbour. I managed to finish the task at dusk. As she looked at the huge pile of wood on the lawn, a(n) 49 expression worked its way across her face. She invited me in for 50 . With tears building up in her eyes, she 51 me a sandwich and said, “I am sorry... the $150 I promised to pay you is going 52 . I had it in my purse but it is nowhere to be found. That is what little money I have 53 for half a year.” Seeing her home was not rich, I 54 she was having a hardship worse than I. I 55 her and then piled (堆放) what would fit into her wood storage room. On the way home I thought to myself, “It Is What It Is.” 41. A. unique B. difficult C. active D. different 42. A. at a loss B. at a time C. in a sense D. in a way 43. A. chance B. course C. activity D. advertisement 44. A. blown B. hit C. broken D. cut 45. A. happily B. helplessly C. directly D. briefly 46. A. agreed B. kept C. depended D. looked 47. A. mentioned B. expected C. experienced D. remembered 48. A. create B. produce C. buy D. borrow 49. A. annoyed B. surprised C. anxious D. unhappy 50. A. dinner B. breath C. money D. tea 51. A. returned B. served C. sent D. owed 52. A. short B. fast C. wrong D. missing 53. A. raised B. collected C. saved D. wasted 54. A. imagined B. stated C. assumed D. realised 55. A. changed B. comforted C. damaged D. backed 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 With the help of technology, one can print a paper-cut nowadays. Technological advances have pushed 56 (tradition) art forms like Chinese paper-cutting into the brink (边缘) of a sunset business. However, for Leong Koon Meng, the machines would never be able to copy the charm of handmade artworks. That is 57 biggest motivation (动力) for this 64-year-old retired teacher in 58 (keep) the tradition alive. “Machine-made art can never achieve the same results. There is rarely anything unique about it,” said Leong, one of the few remaining 59 (artist) of this ancient art form 60 has existed for more than 1,500 years. As a true artist in every sense of the word, the mother of two chooses 61 (create) her art by hand, which she believes is the only way to truly get 62 touch with the charm of the paper-cutting art. “Today, paper-cutting is 63 (main) created for festive seasons and special occasions such as the Spring Festival. Modern machines could produce thousands of paper-cuts in a matter of minutes, so this skill has faded (逐渐消失) over the years,” said Leong. Leong first 64 (discover) her love for the art 11 years ago when she joined an art course in China. “To truly master the art of paper-cutting, one must first understand the 65 (important) of the basic techniques. From there, inspiration, creativity, and love will lead the artist to create true masterpieces (杰作), ” said Leong. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 （满分15分） 假定你是李华，交换生Ryan想加入你校太极（Tai Chi）俱乐部。请你写一封邮件介绍该俱乐部，内容包括： 1．介绍该俱乐部； 2．表达祝愿。 注意： 1．写作词数应为 80 个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Ryan, Yours, Li Hua 第二节 （满分25分） 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。 We’ve been having a heat wave on the East Coast this summer, along with the rest of the US. So the very thing you wouldn’t want to do is sleep in a hot car! That’s what I thought when I saw a woman doing just that. Well, she wasn’t asleep at the time, but I guessed that was her difficulty when I noticed that the inside of the car was piled high with belongings from the passenger seat to the back seats. I’d been noticing this car parked in the same space on this quiet lot for a few weeks. I finally went over to the car and asked if I could get her something from the nearby store. She refused but at least I got a look close enough to see that she was normal, not on drugs, spoke English and was not in any immediate suffering despite how it looked. This made me all the more curious. The woman said her name was Justine. As we talked, darkness began to set in, so I told her I had to leave, thinking I’d return another day. Then I started for home. A week later, I was back shopping at a store near the lot and there was Justine in that car on a hot day! I had had enough. I went over to the car, hoping to hear her story. That’s the way everyone would do. It’s what all kind people should do. But I wonder how many persons would have simply passed by without stopping. I was there to help, not to judge or criticize (批评). What if we all try our best to help people in trouble? How much better would this world be? How many more good activities than bad would make paper headlines? There would be so many acts of kindness, and the media would have no choice but to switch the focus from the bad to the good. I decided to be such a good person. 注意： 1．续写词数应为 150 个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 My concern touched Justine and she told me about her troubles. I wanted to help her find a job to build up her confidence in life. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $