内容正文:
高一英语学科素养测评
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段录音,每段录音后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. What time is it now?
A. 9:10. B. 8:45. C. 10:00.
2. What does the woman think of the weather?
A. It’s nice. B. It’s cold. C. It’s warm.
3. What will the man do next?
A. Give a lecture. B. Leave his office. C. Attend a meeting.
4. What is the woman’s opinion about the course?
A. Too hard. B. Quite bad. C. Worth taking.
5. What does the woman want the man to do?
A. Speak louder. B. Turn off the radio. C. Say sorry for his behavior.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段录音,每段录音后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间,每段录音播放两遍。
听第6段录音,回答第6、7题。
6. How long did Michael stay in India?
A. Five days. B. One week. C. Two weeks.
7. Where did Michael go last year?
A. China. B. Russia. C. Norway.
听第7段录音,回答第8、9题。
8. What food does Sally like?
A. Fish. B. Eggs. C. Chicken.
9. What are the speakers going to do?
A. Shop for food. B. Prepare dinner. C. Order their dishes.
听第8段录音,回答第10至12题。
10. Where are the speakers?
A. At home. B. In the office. C. In a hospital.
11. When is the report due?
A. Friday. B. Thursday. C. Next Monday.
12. What does George suggest Stephanie do?
A. Improve her work. B. Have a good sleep first. C. Hand the report in later.
听第9段录音,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Homeowner and cleaner. C. Salesperson and customer.
14. How much should one pay for the one-bedroom apartment?
A. $ 350 B. $ 400. C. $ 415.
15. What kind of apartment do the speakers prefer?
A. One near a market. B. One without furniture. C. One with two bedrooms.
16. Where are the speakers probably heading?
A. Lake Street. B. South Street. C. Market Street.
听第10段录音,回答第17至20题。
17. Where is the London Tea Trade Centre located?
A. In the center of the city
B. On the south bank of the river Thames
C. On the north bank of the river Thames
18. What percentage of the world’s tea exports go to London?
A. About 13%. B. Almost 30%. C. More than 40%.
19. What do tea tasters in the Tea Trade Centre usually taste the tea with?
A. Sugar B. Lemon C. Milk
20. Who suggests a price for each tea?
A. Tea tasters. B. Tea sellers. C. Tea makers.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Mind maps, also known as brain maps, men tal maps, use both pictures and text to express the relationship between things, help people understand the relationship between events and establish memory links. The following three mind maps are most commonly used: tree map, bubble chart, and timeline.
Map 1: A Tree Map
A tree map is a graph that looks like a tree. The theme is the trunk; the categories are the branches and the leaves. Each branch theme from the trunk to the upper right or lower right affects the subsequent result formation. It visualizes data structures. As a concise and clear structural diagram, it has unique advantages in displaying structural relationships and organizational structures. Left is one of the examples about a teaching procedure
Map 2: A Bubble Chart
Bubble charts are used to expand topics, descriptions, and associative details. Generally speaking, bubble charts are composed of two or more circles. The middle circle is the central topic, and the outer circles are branch topics. There are many forms of bubble charts, which are suitable for a variety of scenes, such as deepening understanding, improving conceptual mastery and insight. Lef t is one of the examples about the benefits of traveling.
Map 3: A timeline
A timeline is a concept or tool used to represent the order of time. It usually connects past, present and future events in a linear manner to form a clear time context. The timeline can be applied to multiple fields, including recording history, and a person’s life experience, to help people clearly understand and track the development process of events. Above is one of the examples about how the United Kingdom came into being.
21. Which activity belongs to the post-reading stage in the tree map example of a reading class?
A. Brainstorming. B. Skimming. C. Scanning. D. Summarizing.
22. What is the main function of a bubble chart?
A. To visualize the organizational structure of a company.
B. To expand topics and deepen conceptual understanding.
C. To track the development process of historical events.
D. To display ideas in a concise and clear structural way.
23. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To persuade readers to use mind maps in daily life.
B. To compare the advantages of different mind map tools.
C. To introduce three common types of mind maps and their uses.
D. To teach readers how to draw mind maps for English learning.
B
For some families, birthday parties that often end up with bags of plastic can be a source of stress, or even shame. Many parents say the gifting aspect upsets them. But can a party really be a party without presents?
According to Charlotte Mason-Curl, it’s possible! Like many parents, Mason-Curl experienced climate anxiety after her daughter’s birthday party and became determined to make a change. She wanted to get rid of the usual gift-giving tradition and replace it with something more sustainable. She launched the Kids’ Party Pact-- a digital promise to take a low-waste approach to hosting and attending birthday parties. The pact has three parts: agreeing not to use plastic bags; giving secondhand or homemade gifts (or none); and issuing guidance on greener gifts for their own children.
The response from parents has been positive. “I thought we were the only family who had these concerns,” wrote one mother. “So happy other parents feel the same!”
The pact provides suggested wording for invitations to help parents communicate their stance (立场) without causing problems. For example: “Gifts are not required.” If you insist on being a rule breaker, a homemade card or a hand-picked flower would be welcome, but not necessary!
“We’re so truly accustomed not to turning up empty-handed, even if we’re asked to,” Mason-Curl explains. “It’s better to give people some guidance, telling them what to bring, than to tell them not to bring anything, because often they still bring a little something. A little something times 20 equals an alarmingly large amount of waste.”
Thanks to the Kids’ Party Pact, we are reminded that true celebration doesn’t depend on material gifts. By giving up expensive presents, we can focus on precious time with loved ones and protect our planet. It teaches both parents and children that love and friendship are the most valuable gifts, far more meaningful than any wrapped plastic or fancy goods.
24. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. The Kids’ Party Pact has been widely accepted by all parents.
B. Plastic bags are the biggest source of waste at birthday parties.
C. Many parents feel upset about the traditional gift-giving tradition.
D. Homema de gifts are more popular than secondhand gifts among parents.
25. Why did Charlotte Mason-Curl launch the Kids’ Party Pact?
A. She hoped to earn money from the digital promise.
B. She wanted to make her daughter’s birthday more fun.
C. She found that parents were not interested in birthday parties.
D. She was worried about the environmental impact of gift-giving.
26. Which of the following is a “rule-breaker” gift according to the text?
A. An expensive branded backpack.
B. A plastic-wrapped set of pencils.
C. A handwritten card and a self-picked flower.
D. A new toy car bought from a department store.
27. What can be inferred from Mason-Curl’s words in the fifth paragraph?
A. Small gifts do not cause much waste.
B. People are used to bringing gifts to parties.
C. People should never bring anything to parties.
D. Only expensive gifts are the main cause of waste.
C
On any given night, countless teenagers share their anxiety and loneliness with AI chatbots. A survey published by Common Sense Media found that 72 percent of American teenagers have used AI chatbots as companions, with millions seeking “emotional or men tal health support” from them. For many adolescents, these digital companions are appealing because they are always available and never judgmental.
However, this trend has raised serious alarms among experts. Research shows that when asked about self-harm, some chatbots have offered dangerous advice or failed to lead users to meaningful action. Operating in a “gray zone” between casual advice and professional therapy (治疗), these tools can sometimes provide unsafe guidance that might normalize harmful behaviors for vulnerable (易受伤害的) teenagers.
The risks are particularly high because the teenage brain is still developing. In regions governing impulse (冲动) control and emotional regulation, young people are more easily influenced and less equipped to judge the accuracy or safety of advice. This is one reason why their emotions can be so easily affected by digital platforms.
Despite these concerns, AI chatbots show potential when specifically trained as digital therapists. For example, a study on “Therabot” showed significant reductions in depression among users. Yet, these findings from adults don’t necessarily apply to teenagers. To ensure safety, researchers suggest using strict standards to test whether a chatbot can distinguish between helpful and harmful responses. In recent tests, some AI models even performed better than trained professionals, but they still showed a tendency to rate potentially harmful advice too positively.
Rather than a total ban, a middle path is needed. Experts call for a set of rules similar to those applied to medical devices, including age-appropriate safety standards and strict privacy protections. By acting now to set evidence-based standards, we can actively shape how AI supports teenagers’ mental health, rather than repeating the mistakes of unchecked social media.
28. What does the survey by Common Sense Media show?
A. AI chatbots can treat depression effectively.
B. Most teenagers use AI chatbots for entertainment.
C. A majority of teens seek emotional support from AI.
D. Teenagers prefer human friends to AI companions.
29. What can we infer about chatbots from paragraph 2?
A. They function as professional medical tools.
B. They provide more accurate advice than humans.
C. They are designed to replace human therapists.
D. They might treat harmful behaviors as normal.
30. Why does the author mention the teenage brain?
A. To show how age affects brain development.
B. To explain why teenagers are easily influenced by AI chatbot.
C. To suggest that experts are seriously worried about brain health.
D. To describe the physical changes in the teenagers’ brain development.
31. What is the author’s attitude toward the future of AI in teen mental health?
A. Objective. B. Opposed. C. Indifferent. D. Doubtful
D
As a crop, the potato is among the world’s most important, with more than 350 million tons produced annually. Its ability to grow in various environments has made it essential to global food security. However, despite its popularity on our dinner tables, the plant’s origins have long remained unknown.
Now, a study published in the journal Cell provides a surprising answer: the potato is actually a”child” of tomatoes. Researchers found that potatoes arose nine million years ago through the combining of genetic material from wild tomato plants and Etuberosum, a group of potato-like plants from South America. This hybridization (杂交) led to the origin of the potato’ s distinctive feature-the tuber, an underground structure that stores nutrients and can be eaten.
For years, scientists were puzzled by the potato’s appearance. Above ground, it closely looks like Etuberosum, but genetically, it is more closely related to tomatoes. To solve this mystery, an international team analyzed 128 genomes (基因组) from these plant families. They discovered that the genes responsible for tuber formation were a combination from both “parents.” The gene that tells the plant when to start making tubers originated with the tomato, while the gene controlling the growth of underground stems came from Etuberosum.
This ancient mixing of genomes wasn’t an immediate success. At first, it might have produced weak plants. However, over millions of years, natural selection led to a new species that could expand across the high Andes, where colder climates were common.
The discovery also holds great potential for agriculture. Currently, improving potato crops poses challenges because they are typically grown through cloning, which reduces their genetic diversity and makes them vulnerable to diseases. “Engineering potatoes with genetic material from tomatoes could be a promising way forward,” said Zhang Pingxian, a lead author of the study.
This research has revolutionized our understanding of the past. As plant expert Richard Veilleux noted, the study is a creative use of gene study. While the species that existed millions of years ago no longer exist, we now know the history of our food better than ever before.
32. According to the study, the potato originated from ________.
A. the process of natural selection
B. the evolution of Etuberosum alone
C. the cloning of ancient tomato plants
D. the combination of wild tomato plants and Etuberosum
33. What had long confused scientists about the potato?
A. The mismatch between its appearance and genetic relation.
B. Its inability to grow in cold climates.
C. The reason for its producing tubers underground.
D. Its popularity as a global food crop.
34. How does the discovery help agriculture?
A. It proves potatoes can grow in cold climates.
B. It shows cloning is the best method for potato farming.
C. It offers a way to improve potato crops by using tomato genes.
D. It explains why potatoes are not easily infected with diseases.
35. What is the best title for the passage?
A. How to Improve Potato Crops.
B. The Surprising Genetic Journey of the Potato.
C. Why Potatoes Are Essential to Food Security.
D. The Future of Agriculture: Genetic Engineering.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Strengthen Your Happiness Muscle
We’ve all experienced the urge to avoid activities we know we’ll enjoy. When we’re feeling down, we might skip a birthday party or cancel a lunch date. However, doing so often makes us feel worse than before. 36 One proven strategy is to improve your reward sensitivity. Just as a muscle strengthens with exercise, our motivation to seek out happiness can be developed by training ourselves to notice and enjoy positive emotions. Here are some methods to help you strengthen it.
37
Begin by planning one activity per day that will make you happy or give you a sense of accomplishment. It can be as simple as treating yourself to a favorite snack, reading a few pages of a novel, or calling a friend. Being practical makes you less likely to put off these positive experiences.
Savor your positive emotions
Psychologists call the process of identifying and fully experiencing positive emotions “savoring” (品味). After enjoying a daily moment, close your eyes and recall the details of the experience. 38 This strengthens your memory of positive moments and increases your motivation to seek them out again.
Expand your joy vocabulary
Many of us struggle to label our positive emotions beyond “fine” or “good”. However, research suggests that finding more precise words to describe those feelings can strengthen them. 39
Imagine future successes
If looking at your calendar causes anxiety, pick an approaching event and think of the best possible result. For instance, if you’re tired but have a workout planned with a friend, imagine yourself feeling energetic and proud after the class. 40 Using positive images can also prepare you for more cheering experiences.
A. Plan small daily activities.
B. Make a list of simple activities.
C. Sharing your highlights with others can also strengthen bonds.
D. Such images in your mind can increase motivation and reduce stress.
E. So how do we break the cycle and find the motivation to get out there?
F. The goal is not just to remember how you felt, but to increase and experience the joy again.
G. When reflecting on your day, try to use specific terms like “inspired,” “delighted.” or “peaceful.”
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Simple habits can often bring the greatest peace to our troubled minds. This is how I manage my anxiety — when I feel like something in my life is 41 , I can always depend on the healing qualities of 42 to make me feel like I’m regaining power.
In my mid-20s, a friend 43 a calendar store and decided to buy me one, to make fun of my strong need for everything to be organized. I 44 the calendar in my apartment, right there in the kitchen I 45 with a roommate.
I ended up 46 my entire schedule on that calendar. Every appointment, every date, every out of town visitor and every meeting. It became part of my 47 : I’d walk by and check it every day before I headed out the door.
However, the 48 to loving a wall calendar is that it is quite literally a calendar 49 on a wall and not movable. But I had a 50 : I’d note important events in my phone calendar, and set 51 when I absolutely needed to do them.
When 2015 became 2016, I stopped buying calendars and relied heavily on my phone calendar. Besides, I felt 52 about having my entire life on the wall for my roommates and guests to see.
But after a while, I 53 the calming habit of writing my entire month out, and being able to see my schedule at a 54 . That’s why I decided to finally get a calendar again earlier this month, and to take it 55 . With my wall calendar, I once again found strength in my life.
41. A. out of danger B. out of control C. on duty D. on time
42. A. cooperation B. direction C. competition D. organization
43. A. passed by B. cut off C. stuck to D. picked up
44. A. returned B. held C. hung D. lifted
45. A. shared B. spent C. lived D. offered
46. A. memorizing B. detailing C. destroying D. ignoring
47. A. routine B. duty C. task D. risk
48. A. secret B. advantage C. disadvantage D. value
49. A. fixed B. drawn C. mixed D. folded
50. A. power B. burden C. doubt D. system
51. A. distances B. destinations C. reminders D. facts
52. A. surprised B. awkward C. curious D. comfortable
53. A. lost B. missed C. forgot D. regretted
54. A. pace B. speed C. loss D. glance
55. A. lightly B. carefully C. clearly D. seriously
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A quiet trend from east China suddenly lit up global social media at the 56 (begin) of 2026: the revival of the traditional fish lantern. Videos of glowing paper fish “swimming” through ancient towns have become one of China’s most unexpected cultural scenes.
The fish lantern, typically crafted from bamboo and paper, and with light inside, is a folk art 57 (root) in Anhui and other regions of China. Historically, these lanterns were mainly used for Chinese New Year celebrations or local temple fairs, which are 58 (beauty), symbolic and beloved.
The reason 59 this centuries-old lantern suddenly goes viral lies in the rise of interactive cultural tourism. As cultural tourism becomes popular nationwide, many ancient towns in Anhui have begun offering immersive fish lantern experiences: Tourists can touch the fish heads for luck, lift the fish tails for blessings, or even join nighttime parades, thus 60 (gain) a deeper understanding of local folk customs. This combination of accessibility and beauty has turned the fish lantern into a form of “Chinese romance” that can 61 (enjoy) by both domestic and international visitors.
Traveling even 62 (far) beyond China, the fish-lantern imagery has appeared in international fashion magazines, brand collaborations, and even on 63 giant screens of New York’s Times Square.
Ranging 64 handicrafts and festivals to ancient music and traditional cuisine, heritage is preserved not by freezing it in time, but by inviting people 65 (engage) with it, reinterpret it, and carry it forward. As these glowing lanterns swim into new cities and new hearts, they light up not only the beauty of Chinese culture but also the vitality of a civilization that continues to create, inspire and connect, across generations and across the world.
第四部分 写作(共两节;满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假设你是李华,上周你校举办了“首届校园美食节”。请你为校英文报写一篇报道,介绍此次活动。内容包括:
①活动目的;
②活动内容(美食展示、品尝、厨艺比赛);
③活动反响。
注意:(1)写作词数应为80左右;(2)请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
The First Campus Food Festival
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Alina looked over the street in front of her school, looking for her mom. “Where is she?” Alina said under her breath, feeling impatient and anxious. Then she saw Zoe heading her way. As her fifth-grade classmate dropped her backpack on the ground, Alina froze.
Now she had to stand there, waiting, with Zoe… though she didn’t exactly want to. In the universe of fifth grade, Alina and Zoe were on different planets. Zoe played soccer and did ballet, raised her hand in class a lot, and had two best friends. And here’s what Alina knew about herself: she wasn’t good at playing any sport and she was nervous any time a teacher called on her. In addition, Alina didn’t even have one close friend at her school.
The only thing that Alina was enthusiastic about was anime (动画片). The new episode of her favorite series, Breakfast Academy, was airing live online at 5:30 p.m. It was 4:50 now.
Alina heard Zoe sigh. She considered asking Zoe about it, but what if Zoe pretended not to hear and didn’t even bother to reply? The awkwardness was unbearable. Finally, with a huge sense of relief, she saw her mom heading in her direction.
When she looked up, however, Alina noticed her mom waving to Zoe’s mother, who was also walking toward the school. Before Alina had a chance to say a word, the two parents started chatting. Oh nooo! Alina screamed internally. If her mother started a conversation, it would take forever to escape.
Fortunately, Zoe stepped in, pulled her mother’s arm, and begged, “Mom, let’s go!”
“Wait, are you heading to the shopping center, too?” Zoe’s mom asked Alina’s mother regardless of Zoe’s request. “That’s wonderful. We can walk together and buy some fruits.” Zoe and Alina both rolled their eyes. Then Alina realized that she was now stuck with Zoe for the entire trip. Alina could only hope that this experience would be over soon.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Following behind the chatting mothers, Alina noticed that Zoe kept checking her watch.__________________
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After their mothers agreed, they rushed to Alina’s house for the live anime.____________________________
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学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$
高一英语学科素养测评
评分细则
1-5 ABCCB 6-10 ABACB 11-15 BCABC 16-20 BCBCA
21-23 DBC 24-27 CDCB 28-31 CDBA 32-35 DACB 36-40 EAFGD
41-45 BDACA 46-50 BACAD 51-55 CBBDD
56. beginning 57. rooted 58. beautiful 59. why 60. gaining
61. be enjoyed 62. further / farther 63. the 64. from 65. to engage
【评分细则】56-65.按照答案评分。
The First Campus Food Festival
Aimed at enriching our campus life and strengthening the bond among students, our school held the first campus food festival last week, which turned out to be a huge success and brought students a memorable experience.
Throughout the festival, students from different classes presented a wide variety of delicious homemade foods, ranging from traditional snacks to creative desserts. Besides, everyone present enjoyed the tasty food and shared cooking skills, having a wonderful time together. The most eye-catching part was the cooking competition, where participants showed their excellent cooking abilities and impressed the judges deeply.
The festival received warm feedback from both teachers and students. Not only did it satisfy our taste buds but also offered us a chance to relax and taste the joy of cooperation. We all look forward to more wonderful activities like this in the future.
【评分细则】应用文:第二段介绍校园食品节的内容和过程时要用一般过去时。时态混乱或者用一般现在时或一般将来时可以降一档。
第五档:漂漂亮亮13-15分。
卷面整洁,要点齐全,词汇和语法结构准确,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,全文结构紧凑,上下文连贯,语言得体。
第四档:普普通通10-12分。
基本完成写作任务。语法和词汇基本准确。有些许错误。有意识地使用连接成分让文章条理清楚。
第三档:马马虎虎7-9分。
整体完成了写作任务,有语法结构和词汇错误,但不影响理解。有基本的连接成分。
第二档:稀里糊涂4-6分。
未完成写作规定的任务,没有描述清楚主要任务,有语法和词汇错误并且影响理解。
第一档:一塌糊涂1-3分。
没有完成试题规定的任务。错误频出,让人不能理解所写内容。
0分试卷:
白卷或者是无法评判,写的内容与题目无关或者无法看清。
Following behind the chatting mothers, Alina noticed that Zoe kept checking her watch. Gathering her courage, she whispered, “Are you in a hurry?” Zoe looked surprised, then smiled softly. “I’m waiting for the new episode of Breakfast Academy! It’s my favorite anime and I don’t want to miss it.” Alina’s eyes lit up — she loved it too. The awkwardness melted away as they complained about their mothers’ endless chat, realizing they had something in common, a bond that broke the invisible wall between them. Hoping to catch the episode on time, they quietly walked up to their mothers, asking for permission to leave early.
After their mothers agreed, they rushed to Alina’s house for the live anime. Upon arrival, Alina turned on the computer quickly, and they sat side by side, holding their breath as the new episode started. They watched attentively, sometimes gasping at the exciting plot and whispering their thoughts to each other. When the episode ended in suspense, they grinned at each other, still immersed in the story. Alina felt warm inside — for the first time, she didn’t feel lonely. What started as an awkward, unwanted trip turned out to be a gift: it taught her that friendship often hides in unexpected moments, and that breaking her shyness to reach out could lead to something beautiful.
【评分细则】读后续写
评分时,先根据所写的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
1.篇章的逻辑和衔接,写作内容与所给短文及段落开头语是否衔接得当、富有逻辑性;
2.情节的推进和融洽,写作内容是否具有合理性、丰富性;
3.语言的丰富和准确,是否准确、丰富地运用语法结构和词汇;
4.文章的贯通和流畅,是否有效地使用语句间的连接成分,使行文流畅。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
补充说明:
阅卷老师应先看续写内容的完整度,从整体情况定档,即内容比表达重要;
续写两段中的细节若与背景信息相悖的,酌情扣分甚至降档;
若结尾处有对主题的合理升华和出彩表达,可加1-2分;
仅续写一个段落的,按第三档中位数(12.5分),在此基础上根据情节、内容、语言等相应扣分。
评分档次
第五档
(21-23分)创造了丰富、合理的内容,有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高。使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语
第四档
(16-20分)创造了比较丰富、合理的内容,比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高。使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有些许错误,但不影响理解。内容比较丰富,应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
第三档
(11-15分)创造了基本合理的内容,基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情境相关。使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有一些错误或不恰当之处,但基本不影响理解。写出了一些有关内容,应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
第二档(6-10分)未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯。逻辑上有一些重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文情境有一定程度脱节。写出了一些有关内容,应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
第一档(1-5分)有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情境基本脱节。
逻辑上有较多重大问题。所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误很多,严重影响理解.
产出内容太少,很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
不得分
(0分)1.未作答;所写内容与题目要求无关,或全篇摘抄、默写与题目无关的内容。
如果学生没写出来为什么zoe一直看时间,是为了和我一样看动画片,属于偏离故事内容15分以下。
录音稿
Text 1
W: What time is your train leaving?
M: It leaves at ten. I’ve got fifty minutes left.
W: You’d better hurry, or you won’t be able to catch it.
Text 2
M: Nice weather we’re having, don’t you think?
W: No. It is too cold.
M: I think it is just right.
W: I’d prefer it a few degrees warmer.
Text 3
M: Now, let’s stop talking and get going. I need to be in my office in fifteen minutes, or I’ll be late for a meeting.
W: Okay, bye.
Text 4
M: This course is really difficult.
W: I don’t think it’s all that bad. And we’ll benefit a lot from it.
M: So, you’re taking it too?
W: That’s true.
Text 5
W: Could you turn that off? I can’t hear myself think.
M: What?
W: The radio.
M: Oh! Sorry.
Text 6
W: Hi Michael! I heard you just came back from a holiday.
M: Yes. I stayed for a week in China, and five days in India.
W: You do travel a lot, don’t you? Last year, you went to Norway, right?
M: Well, I’ve been to quite some countries, but not yet to Norway. Last summer, I toured Russia for two weeks.
Text 7
M: Sally, do you like seafood?
W: Yes, of course.
M: Is there anything you especially like?
W: Well, I really don’t know. I can never remember the names.
M: Okay. Is there any food you don’t eat?
W: Well, I don’t eat chicken. And I don’t like eggs, either. But I like all kinds of fish and vegetables.
M: Then let’s look at the menu and see what they’ve got for us.
Text 8
M: You look pale, Stephanie. What’s wrong?
W: I don’t feel good. I have a bad headache. In fact, I haven’t got much sleep this past week, and I feel really tired.
M: Why don’t you go to see a doctor?
W: Yeah, I think I should. But I have a report due tomorrow. Ms. Jenkins needs it for the board meeting next Monday.
M: Well, it’s Wednesday today. Why don’t you talk to Ms. Jenkins, and ask if you can hand it in on Friday morning?
W: Maybe I should try. I guess I just need a good sleep. Thanks, George.
M: If you need any help with the report, just let me know.
Text 9
W: Anything interesting in the paper today, dear?
M: Well, yeah. There are a few here that might interest us. Here’s one for just four hundred dollars. It only has one bedroom, but it sounds nice, near Lake Street.
W: Yeah. Let me see what the cheapest two-bedroom apartment is. Oh, here’s one on Market Street. It’s a real bargain. Only three hundred and fifty dollars. But it doesn’t have any furniture.
M: Well, it costs a lot to buy all the furniture.
W: Oh, here’s another one for just over four hundred dollars. This sounds very interesting! It’s on SouthStreet. That’s a nice area.
M: Yes, it’s quiet. Did you say two bedrooms?
W: Yes, at four hundred and fifteen dollars.
M: Why don’t we go and have a look?
W: Okay, I’ll give them a call.
Text 10
Look at this picture. It’s the London Tea Trade Centre. As you can see, it is on the north bank of the river Thames. It is the center of an important industry in the everyday lives of the British people. Tea is the British national drink. Every man, woman, and child over ten years of age has on average over four cups a day. Or some one thousand, five hundred cups annually. About thirty percent of the world’s exports of tea makes its way to London. And Britain is by far the largest importer of tea in the world. Now, in the second picture, you can see how tea is tasted in the Tea Trade Center before it is sold. Here, different types of tea are tasted by skilled tea tasters, before they’re sold at each week’s tea sale. It’s amazing to see them at work. Over a hundred kinds of tea are laid out in a line on long tables. The tasters generally taste teas with milk, since that is how the majority of British people drink their tea. The tasters move down the line with surprising speed, tasting from a spoon and deciding what is a fair price for each tea. After that, they…
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