内容正文:
2025—2026学年度下学期阶段性素养作业
七年级英语试题
(总分:120分 时间:120分钟)
注意事项:1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题。答卷前,考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、座号、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上。2.选择题选出答案后,须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题号的答案涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案。3.非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定的区域内;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案。
第一部分 听力测试(共四节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。
1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________
第二节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题,第二段对话后有3个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第6和7小题。
( ) 6. Which team is Jack on at school?
A. Baseball. B. Badminton. C. Football.
( ) 7. How often does Jack’s team play a match?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a month. C. Once a month.
听第二段对话,回答第8至10小题。
( ) 8. Who does the man have dinner with?
A. His daughter. B. His mother. C. His sister.
( ) 9. What kind of noodles would the man like?
A. A large bowl of chicken and carrot noodles.
B. A small bowl of beef and tomato noodles.
C. A large bowl of beef and tomato noodles.
( ) 10. How much should the man pay (付款) for the noodles?
A. 12 yuan. B. 50 yuan. C. 27 yuan.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前,你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。
( ) 11. Eric is in Class Six, Grade Seven.
( ) 12. The City Zoo is across from a bus station.
( ) 13. The zoo’s animal show starts at 8:30 a.m. every weekend.
( ) 14. Eric likes the elephants best because they are clever.
( ) 15. The little monkey in the show can ride a bike well with his friend.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题,根据所听内容在空白处填入适当的单词,每空词数不限。听对话前,你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。
16. How does Alice feel about her family rules?
She feels __________.
17. When does Alice have to make her bed?
She has to make her bed __________ breakfast.
18. What does Alice need to do after school?
She needs to practise playing __________.
19. Why can’t Alice use her mobile phone on weekdays?
Because this rule can make her __________ her studies.
20. What does Dr. Know think of Alice’s family rules?
He thinks they can help her become a __________.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Eat Well, Live Well
We eat food so that (以便) we have energy to run, jump and play. We should have lots of different things.
Dairy products (乳制品)
We should eat lots of dairy products such as milk, cheese, and so on. Along with fish, beans and meat, dairy products make us strong. Do it! Look for low-fat milk and cheese. They are healthier.
Grain products (谷类食品)
We should also eat enough grain products so that we have energy to work and play. Grain products include bread, rice and noodles. Do it! Eat a certain amount (数量) of grain products to keep fit.
Fruit and vegetables
Fruit and vegetables keep us healthy. We should eat lots of them at every meal. Do it! Try to eat fruit and vegetables in different colors every day.
Water
Don’t forget to drink water. We should drink 6-8 glasses of water every day so that our bodies work properly.
( ) 21. Which of the following is a kind of dairy products?
A. Fish. B. Milk. C. Beans.
( ) 22. What’s the writer’s opinion (观点) about eating well?
A. Grain products are the best of all.
B. Vegetables make our bodies work properly.
C. Have different kinds of food and enough water.
( ) 23. In which part of a magazine can we read the passage?
A. Art B. Sports C. Health
B
“Ben, brush your teeth before breakfast!”
“Ben, don’t run in the classroom!”
All day long, parents and teachers keep telling Ben what to do and what not to do. At night, Ben lies (躺) in is bed and thinks, “Don’t do this, and don’t do that! I don’t want any rules. They are terrible!”
Suddenly, Ben is in his classroom. The classroom is noisy. Some students are eating. Some are running. But the teachers don’t say anything. “Haha, I have my wish,” Ben says. “There are no rules! Now I can go out to play!”
Ben goes to the cinema, and his favourite movie is on. But people talk a lot and walk here and there. Ben can’t see or hear the movie well. He asks them to stop but no one listens because there are no rules.
Ben goes to the zoo to watch animals. Many people feed them there. Ben feels bad. Suddenly a bear runs at him. There are no rules in the zoo and someone lets it out! Ben is afraid and he runs away...
Then he wakes up. “Oh, it was just a dream.”
( ) 24. The underlined word “They” refers to (指代) “________”.
A. Parents B. Rules C. Teachers
( ) 25. What can we know from Paragraph 5?
A. Ben doesn’t have a good time at the cinema.
B. Ben doesn’t like the movie.
C. Ben watches the movie happily.
( ) 26. Why does Ben feel bad in the zoo?
A. Because Ben doesn’t see his favourite animal.
B. Because the animals in the zoo are lazy.
C. Because there are no rules in the zoo.
( ) 27. What does the passage mainly (主要地) tell us?
A. Rules are important to us.
B. It’s good to have no rules.
C. It is important to make new rules.
C
①Do you love to keep a pet at home? It is becoming popular to keep pets. Many people even hope to talk with their pets in everyday life. This was difficult before, but scientists are now using AI to help make this dream come true.
②Karen Bakker, a teacher in Canada, thinks that AI will make people closer to the world of animals and plants in the future. “AI helps people talk with bats (蝙蝠) and bees,” Bakker says. How does it work?
③When bats talk with one another, people first use AI to write down their sounds. Then they input (输入) the sounds into a computer. At last, they use AI to find out what the bats say. People cannot hear these sounds with their ears. But AI knows these sounds. It can also help people speak back to bats.
④People also find an interesting thing: when baby bats learn to “speak”, mother bats often lower (降低) their voices. However, as mothers, women often raise their voices during this time.
⑤As for bees, people use a computer to watch them and study their language. Scientists now know how bees send some information to talk. They even make a robot bee and it can talk with other bees.
( ) 28. How does the writer start the text?
A. By telling a story.
B. By asking a question.
C. By giving an example.
( ) 29. What’s the right order when people use AI to help talk with bats?
a. write down bats sounds b. find out what the bats say
c. input the sounds into a computer d. help people speak back to the bats
A. a-b-c-d B. c-a-b-d C. a-c-b-d
( ) 30. Which of the following is true?
A. We can know more about animals with the help of AI.
B. People could talk with plants and animals easily before.
C. Scientists still don’t know how bees talk with one another.
( ) 31. Which of the following is the right structure (结构) of the text?
A. B. C.
D
Baduanjin (八段锦), also known as Eight pieces of Brocaide, is an old Chinese exercise with a long history.
A long time ago, there were big floods (洪水). Because of the wet weather and dirty water, many people got sick. Then, a smart person made some special moves (动作) to help people. These moves were like a dance. Later, they became Baduanjin. The name “Baduanjin” first appeared in a book about 800 years ago, during the Song Dynasty. Since then, lots of people have loved it.
Baduanjin has eight easy moves. Each move is easy to learn and good for different parts of our body. For example, the first move, “Hands Holding Up to the Sky to Regulate the Triple Burner”, helps stretch (伸展) our bodies and is good for our necks, shoulders and backs. The second one, “Drawing the Bow Left and Right Like Shooting an Eagle”, is good for our lungs (肺) and make us breath better.
Doing Baduanjin is really good for us. It can make us feel relaxed. It helps us sleep well at night and keeps us away from becoming sick. Also, we don’t need any special things or a big place to do it. We can do it in the park, at home, or even in a small room.
Now, more and more people, both young and old, are learning Baduanjin. It’s a great and popular way to keep our bodies and minds healthy. Why not give it a try?
( ) 32. The underlined word “sick” means ________.
A. 疲倦的 B. 生病的 C. 厌烦的
( ) 33. Which part of the body does the first move help?
A. Legs and feet. B. Necks and backs. C. Lungs and hearts.
( ) 34. Why is Baduanjin a good choice for people to exercise?
A. Because Baduanjin is a popular exercise.
B. Because Baduanjin needs a big place to do.
C. Because people can do it anywhere easily.
( ) 35. Why does the writer end the text with a question?
A. To get readers interested in watching Baduanjin.
B. To encourage readers to learn Baduanjin themselves.
C. To ask readers important information about Baduanjin.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Do you cook at home? Maybe many parents don’t let their young children cook. 36 But scientists say that it’s good for children to do some easy cooking work. 37
Cooking makes children smart.
In some cooking activities, young children can choose and decide what things to put in a dish or how much salt (盐) to put in a dish. 38 They can also learn to eat healthily.
Cooking makes children confident (自信的).
When children learn to cook, they usually feel that they are growing up and doing something meaningful for their family members. 39 So, cooking is well worth (值得的) learning.
Cooking teaches children other cultures.
40 When cooking different kinds of food, children can learn about some different cultures.
A. They can cook a great meal to show their love for their family.
B. What do you think of cooking?
C. That’s a great way to make them think actively.
D. They think it’s dangerous for children to make a fire (火).
E. Cooking can help children be better in many ways.
F. Cooking is quite different from one culture to another.
第三部分 名著阅读(共三节,满分20分)
第一节 请以《Starman》为依据,判断下列句子正误。(每小题1.5分,共6分)
41. The story happens in a cold place.
42. John Phillips doesn’t say anything when Bill first meets him.
43. Bill leaves John Phillips alone (单独) and drives away.
44. Emily gets John’s phone number and calls his family.
第二节 请以《Robin Hood》为依据,根据描述选择所对应的人物。(每小题1.5分,共6分)
A. Richard
B. Little John
C. Robin
D. Sherriff
45. He is good at archery (箭术) and is the leader of a group of outlaws.
46. He is a tall man and he is Robin’s friend.
47. He is a good king and the people love him.
48. He tries to catch Robin but never succeeds.
第三节 名著简答题(每小题4分,共8分)
49. 请根据《Robin Hood》回答:
What do you think of Robin Hood? What can you learn from him in your daily life (日常生活)?
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
50. 请根据《Starman》回答:
Some people are different from us, just like John Phillips. So what does the story teach us about how to treat (对待) these people?
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 语言运用(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Red pandas become famous for their lovely looks. But like other animals, red pandas are in 51 now. This is because people want to 52 them to get their fur. To catch them, people even 53 trees.
Red pandas live in forests. They can grow to about the size of a house cat. They can climb and swing in trees. They spend the most time of their lives in trees. They sleep and do some sunbathing there.
Red pandas 54 the order Carnivora (食肉目), but in fact they 55 eat meat. Their main food is bamboo. They also eat fruit, roots, eggs and birds. They look for food at night and in the early morning. They are 56 to one another. They often play games with each other.
( ) 51. A. result B. danger C. progress
( ) 52. A. kill B. keep C. save
( ) 53. A. pick up B. work out C. cut down
( ) 54. A. belong to B. care for C. stay with
( ) 55. A. always B. often C. seldom
( ) 56. A. playful B. friendly C. scary
第二节(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
阅读下面短文,从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. special B. taste C. think about D. symbol E. respect F. bring G. take
The Qingming Festival is a time for families to show 57 to their loved ones who have passed away (去世). It’s also a time to enjoy a 58 kind of food called “Qingtuan”. The green color is a 59 of new life and start.
We Chinese people believe that Qingtuan going with green tea during this time can 60 good luck. Qingtuan is not just a snack. With its special green color and good 61 , many people share their family stories and feel home’s love and warmth. It makes us 62 the importance of family and tradition (传统).
第三节(共8小题;每小题1分,满分8分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Hi, I am Steve. I like doing sports every day. This year my goal is to be 63. ________ (real) fit. My favorite way of keeping fit is to play baseball. I am in my school’s club. We practise 64. ________ (play) it three times a week after school. We also exercise a lot 65. ________ it keeps us fit and helps us play better. We play many 66. ________ (match). When we lose in the match, we encourage one another 67. ________ (come) on. But once we succeed, we feel great! So I think baseball is the best way 68. ________ (build) team spirit. We work as 69. ________ team. We have fun when we keep fit together. Maybe the other team are great, but I think 70. ________ (our) is the best. Join us to play baseball!
答案:63. ________ 64. ________ 65. ________ 66. ________
67. ________ 68. ________ 69. ________ 70. ________
第五部分 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
Everyone knows that exercise is important. We all need to exercise. Doctors say it is good for us. Children who often exercise are clever and strong. This means they do better in tests and schoolwork than those who don’t exercise. There are many ways to exercise.
You can walk, run, swim, skate or play ball games. Make sure you exercise in the following ways. You have to like what you’re doing. Exercise enough but not too much. It’s best to exercise twice each week. Thirty minutes each time is enough. Try all kinds of things until (直到) you find one, two or even three sports that are right for you.
You can exercise at fitness centres (健身中心). They have a lot of equipment (设备) there. The equipment will help exercise your arms, legs and other parts of your body to make you fit. Some people buy equipment for their homes. But it is very expensive.
Exercise can be fun. Friends can exercise together at a fitness centre, or they can play sports together outside. How do you exercise?
71. What are children like if they often exercise?
_________________________________________________________________________________
72. How often should we take exercise?
_________________________________________________________________________________
73. Why can we exercise at fitness centres?
_________________________________________________________________________________
74. In the writer’s opinion, is it expensive to buy equipment for homes?
_________________________________________________________________________________
75. How often do you exercise? Why?
_________________________________________________________________________________
第六部分 补全对话(共4小题;第78小题2分,其余每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话完整,合乎情境。
A: Hi, Nancy! 76. ____________________________?
B: I like running best. I run every day. It makes me healthy.
A: 77. ____________________________?
B: About an hour.
A: One hour? Don’t you feel tired?
B: No, I don’t. Doing exercise makes me feel good. 78. ____________________________?
A: I think running is boring.
B: But running is good for our health. And you can listen to music while running.
A: 79. ____________________________. Can I run with you tomorrow?
B: Sure! Let’s meet at 8:00 a.m. in the park tomorrow.
第七部分 书面表达(满分15分)
假如你是Li Hua,你的朋友Tony给你发了一封邮件,请你仔细阅读这封邮件并回复。
Dear Li Hua,
I’m very happy to write to you. There are many rules in my life. How about you? What rules do you have at home and at school? How can rules help us? I also want to know your eating habits. Do you have good eating habits or bad eating habits? What do you like to eat?
I’m looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Tony
要求:1.包含邮件中所有要点,可以适当发挥,使行文连贯。
2.词数不少于60词,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
3.文中不要出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息,否则不予评分。
Dear Tony,
I’m very happy to receive your e-mail. Now let me tell you something about me.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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2025—2026学年度下学期阶段性素养作业
七年级英语参考答案
第一部分 听力测试(共四节,每小题1分,满分20分)
答案: 1—5 CABFD 6—10 BCACC 11—15 ABBAB
评分说明:凡与答案不符者不得分。
答案:16. unhappy 17. before 18. volleyball 19. focus on 20. better person
评分说明:
每小题只能写一个答案,如果写了两个或两个以上答案,即使其中一个是对的,也不得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,该小题不得分;有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,也可得分。
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
21—25 BCCBA 26—30 CABCA 31—35 ABBCB 36—40 DECAF
评分说明:凡与答案不符者不得分。
第三部分 名著阅读(满分20分)
答案:41—44 BABA 45—48 CBAD (凡与答案不符者不得分。)
49. I think he is brave/kind / helpful /…
I can help people in need and be brave to do good things…(合理无语法错误即可)
50. We should be kind to them and learn to understand/respect/help them. We shouldn’t judge people by their appearance. / We shouldn’t judge a book by its cover.(合理无语法错误即可)
第四部分 语言运用(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
答案:51—56 BACACB
评分说明:凡与答案不符者不得分。
第二节(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
答案:57—62 EADFBC
评分说明:凡与答案不符者不得分。
第三节(共8小题;每小题1分,满分8分)
63. really 64. playing 65. because 66. matches
67. to come 68. to build 69. a 70. ours
评分说明:
每小题只能写一个答案,如果写了两个或两个以上答案,即使其中一个是对的,也不得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,该小题不得分。
第五部分 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
答案:
71. They are clever and strong. /Clever and strong.
72. Twice each week./ Twice a week.
73. Because they have a lot of equipment (which can make people fit).
74. Yes, it is. /Yes.
75. I do exercise nearly every day. Because I think it can keep me strong /fit / healthy.(言之有理且无语法错误即可)
评分说明:
有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,即可得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,可酌情扣分;所写的句子虽无语法错误,意思通顺,但与题意不符者,不得分。
第六部分 补全对话(共4小题;第78小题2分,其余每小题1分,满分5分)
答案:
76. What sport do you like best /What’s your favorite sport?
77. How long do you run every day/time?
78. What do you think of running?/How do you like running?/How do you feel about running?
79. That’s a good idea./Sounds like a good idea./That sounds good/great…
评分说明:
有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,即可得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,可酌情扣分;所写的句子虽无语法错误,意思通顺,但与题意不符者,不得分。
第七部分 书面表达(满分15分)
(一)One possible version
Dear Tony,
I’m very happy to receive your e-mail. Now let me tell you something about me.
There are many rules in my life, too. Every morning, I have to make my bed before breakfast. I have to hurry to school because I can’t be late for school. At school, I mustn’t use my phone in class. And I have to wear the uniform. Parents and schools are sometimes strict, but rules can help us to become a better person. Remember: No rules, no order!
I have very good eating habits. I try to eat healthy food every day. I like to eat fruit and vegetables with every meal. I drink milk every day. I don’t eat sweets or junk food.
Yours,
Li Hua
(二)评分说明:本大题共15分,请按以下四档标准进行评分。
第一档:(15分) 符合题意要求,表达完整,条理清晰,语句通顺,语言正确无误。
第二档:(11—14分) 符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清晰,语句较通顺,语言
基本无误。
第三档:(6—10分) 基本符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清晰,语句较通顺,
语言有部分错误。
第四档:(0—5分) 不符合题意要求,表达不够清楚,逻辑关系混乱,语言错误很多。
2025—2026学年度下学期阶段性素养作业
七年级英语录音材料
七年级英语听力测试现在开始。
第一节
听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Let’s see giraffes first, OK?
W: Good idea. They look beautiful. Let’s go right now.
2. W: Don’t be noisy in the library, Mike.
M: Oh, I’m really sorry. I won’t do it.
3. W: Bob, what do you usually do in the club?
M: I practise playing tennis with some players.
4. W: Hello! May I take your order?
M: Yeah, I’d like some beef noodles, please.
5. M: Ms Brown, can I take some photos in the museum?
W: No, you can’t. It’s bad for painting.
第二节
听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题,第二段对话后有3个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第6和7小题。
W: Are you on the school baseball team, Jack?
M: No, I’m on the school badminton team.
W: How often do you practise playing badminton?
M: We practise every Friday afternoon and we have a match once a month.
W: That sounds great. I hope you can have a lot of fun and win many matches.
M: Thanks.
听第二段对话,回答第8至10小题。
W: Hello, can I help you?
M: Yes, I’d like a large bowl of noodles for myself and a small one for my daughter.
W: What would you like in the noodles?
M: I like beef and tomatoes and my daughter likes chicken and carrots. How much are they?
W: The big one is 15 yuan and the small one is 12 yuan.
第三节
听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前,你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。
Hi, everyone! My name is Eric. I am a student from Class Six, Grade Seven. Let me tell you about the City Zoo. It’s next to the Green Bus Station, so it’s easy to get there. Every weekend, the zoo has an animal show from 9:30 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. That’s a long time of fun! You can see ten kinds of animals in the show, such us penguins, lions, and so on. My favourite animals are the elephants. I like them because they are so clever that they can remember things well. Don’t miss the monkey part. The little monkey can ride a bike really well! The show is interesting, so come and enjoy it with your friends.
第四节
听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题,根据所听内容在空白处填入适当的单词,每空词数不限。听对话前,你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。
M: Hello, Alice. You look unhappy, why?
W: Help, Dr. Know. There are too many rules in my family.
M: Oh, what are they?
W: The first rule is that I have to make my bed before breakfast.
M: What else?
W: After school, I need to practise playing volleyball.
M: Are there any other rules?
W: Of course. I can’t use my mobile phone on weekdays.
M: That can make you focus on your studies.
W: What’s more, I can’t hang out with my friends at night.
M: I know it’s hard to follow these rules, but they can help you to become a better person.
听力测试到此结束,请监考教师关闭录音。
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