天津市河西区2025-2026学年七年级第二学期期中英语试卷

2025至2026学年七年级英语听力。第一节，在下列每小题中，你将听到一个或两个句子，并看到供选择的AB、C3幅图画，选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画读两遍。Number one, iron is an office worker. Iron is an office worker. Number two, dumplings are traditional chinese food. Dumplings are traditional chinese food. Number three, j won a gold medal at the city swim meet. We are proud of him. J won a gold medal at the city swim meat. We are proud of him. 第二节，听下面5段对话，每段对话后都有一个问题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，读两遍。Number four, can you tell me something about the customer? sure. He always wears a bright red wire and has a very loud voice. Can you tell me something about . the customer? sure. He always wears a bright red wig and has a very loud voice. Number five, would you like a slice of beef? No, thanks. But could I have some scrambled eggs, please? Would you like a slice of beef? No, thanks. But could I have some scrambled eggs, please? Number six, death is a good server. Yes, amy and kt serve well too, but neither of them can compare with bath. Death is a good server. Yes, amy and kt serve well too, but neither of them can compare with best. Number seven, anna, you look happy today. Well, my . parents are coming to see me this weekend. Anna, you look happy today. Well. my parents are coming to see me this weekend. Number eight, wow, I like this photo. IT shows an exciting sports moment. What do you think is good? But I like the one about the happy family best. Oh, that one is great too. Wow, I like this photo. IT shows an exciting sports moment. What do you think it's good? But I like the one about the happy . family best. Oh, that one is great too. 第三节，听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后，有几个问题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。读两遍。听下面一段材料回答第九至第十题。Mother's day is coming. I'm going to give a surprise . to my mom. Sounds great. What's your plan? Last year, I bought a gift for my mom to show my love. This year, i'm going to cook a meal for her. really? What will you cook? Green salad. SHE likes IT a lot. Mother's day is coming. I'm going to give a surprise . to my mom. Sounds great. What's your plan? Last year, I bought a gift for my mom to show my love. This year, i'm going to cook a meal for her. really? What will you cook? Green salad SHE likes IT a lot. 听下面一段材料，回答第十一至第十三题。Molly, your class won the cooking competition. right? Yes, our teacher told us about IT. We joined. And one. what did you make? We made cakes after the competition. We gave them to a children's home near our school. That's nice. What will you do tomorrow? We are going to make sandwiches and sell them. We want to collect money for kids with cancer. Molly, your class won the cooking competition. right? Yes, our teacher told us about IT. We joined. And one. what did you make? We made cakes after the competition. We gave them to a children's home near our school. That's nice. What will you do tomorrow? We are going to make sandwiches and sell them. We want to collect money for kids with cancer. 听下面一段材料，回答第十四至第十六题。Lisa loves dancing and wants to be a dancer, but no one supports her dream. One day, SHE visited a dance club and watched people dancing together. SHE liked IT so much that he even joined in their practice. After that, SHE talked with Daisy, a dancer in the club, about the joy of dancing daily, shared that her favorite part of being a dancer, his dancing on stage on the way home, lisa felt confident. He decided that he should give IT a try. SHE believed that with hard work, SHE could become a great dancer. Lisa loves dancing and wants to be a dancer, but no one supports her dream. One day, SHE visited a dance club and watched people dancing together. SHE liked IT so much that he even joined in their practice. After that, SHE talked with Daisy, a dancer in the club, about the joy of dancing daily shared that her favorite part of being a dancer is dancing on stage. On the way home, lisa feel confident he decided that he should give IT a try. SHE believed that with hard work, SHE could become a great dancer. 七年级英语（一） 第Ⅰ卷 注意事项： 1．每题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把“答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号的信息点涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号的信息点。 2．本卷共五大题，共65分。 一、听力理解（本大题共16小题，满分20分） 第一节（共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分） A) 在下列每小题内，你将听到一个或两个句子，并看到供选择的ABC三幅图画。选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） B) 听下面5段对话，每组对话后有一个问题。从题中所给的ABC三个选项中选出最佳选项。 4. What does the customer always wear? A. A cap. B. A wig. C. Glasses. 5. What would the man like? A. Beef. B. Scrambled eggs. C. Tofu soup. 6. Which surfer is the best? A. Beth. B. Amy. C. Katy. 7. Why is Anna happy? A. She will get a new pet. B. She will take a trip. C. She will see her parents. 8. What are the boy and the girl talking about? A. Photos. B. Sports. C. Families. 第三节（共8小题；每小题1.5分，满分12分） C) 听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听下面一段材料，回答第9至第10题。 9. What did the girl do for her mum last Mother’s Day? A. She made a card. B. She bought a gift. C. She cooked a meal. 10. What does the girl’s mum like? A. Mutton soup. B. Apple pie. C. Green salad. 听下面一段材料，回答第11至第13题。 11. How did Molly’s class know about the competition? A. From the teacher. B. From the TV news. C. From the Internet. 12. What did Molly’s class do with the cakes? A. They ate them. B. They gave them away. C. They brought them home. 13. What will Molly’s class do tomorrow? A. Cheer for a team. B. Make some sandwiches. C. Visit a Children’s Home. 听下面一段材料，回答第14至第16题。 14. What did Lisa do one day? A. She took a lesson. B. She visited a club. C. She saw a competition. 15. What is Daisy’s favourite part of being a dancer? A. Dancing on stage. B. Making new friends. C. Creating new dance steps. 16. How did Lisa feel on her way home that day? A. Proud. B. Nervous C. Confident 二、单项填空（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 17. What ________ amazing story! It tells us ________ key to happiness is giving help and love. A. an; a B. a; the C. an; the D. the; an 18. The Steel Roses is a great team. People love ________ for ________ shining spirit. A. they; them B. them; their C. their; them D. them; theirs 19. —Which would you like to have for lunch, a sandwich or a hamburger? — ________. I am not hungry at all. A. Both B. None C. Either D. Neither 20. Most Chinese people see noodles ________ a traditional birthday food. A. as B. to C. for D. with 21. He ________ made the decision that he would join in the 2022 Beijing Marathon. A. finally B. nearly C. hardly D. mainly 22. We work very hard to overcome the difficulties in life and take every ________ to get the result we want. A. reason B. chance C. choice D. decision 23. Jim is best at maths in his class. When he lost the maths competition last week, his classmates were ________. A. serious B. nervous C. surprised D. confident 24. The beef ________ better if you add some pepper to it. A. tastes B. looks C. feels D. remains 25. You have to face up to the fact that you ________ others in English and maths. So try your best to catch up. A. bring back B. think of C. laugh at D. fall behind 26. They collect used paper and bottles every day. ________, they make less waste and help the environment. A. What’s more B. For real C. As a result D. In fact 27. We ________ the results of the survey and found that Group A was much better. A. compare B. compared C. will compare D. are comparing 28. Ms. Chen encouraged me not ________ when I had trouble learning English. A. give up B. gave up C. giving up D. to give up 29. Getting enough sleep helps the brain ________ information and memories. A. store B. lose C. forget D. produce 30. If the strong wind keeps ________, we can’t fly kites in the park. A. to blow B. blowing C. to wave D. waving 31. — The China’s team won the gold medal in the international match. — ________ . All the players trained so hard and we are all proud of them. A. Great idea B. Good luck C. That’s great to hear D. That’s all right 三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 An 80-year-old woman made history last year! 32 name is Natalie Grabow. She became the oldest woman ever to finish the Ironman World Championship Triathlon (铁人三项世锦赛) in 2025. This kind of race has three parts: swimming, biking and running. Each part is 33 because it tests an athlete’s ability (考验运动员的能力) to keep going for hours. In 2025, over 1,600 athletes 34 the race and 60 of them didn’t finish it. But Natalie Grabow did! It took her about 17 hours. Her 35 was truly amazing. Natalie Grabow loves 36 . She often runs with her friends. When she learnt that some of her running friends tried triathlons, she wanted to try, too. There was just one 37 : she didn’t know how to swim. So, at the age of 59, she 38 to learn. She practised hard. In her early sixties, she was 39 enough to take part in the Ironman World Championship Triathlon. For Natalie, the Ironman is more than just a race. It is a way of life. She said, “I am so happy and thankful to 40 race in this sport at my age. I won’t 41 doing it and I’m planning to run at least two half-Ironman races next year.” Natalie Grabow hopes people will remember her for her positive attitude (态度) and her hard work. 32. A. His B. Your C. Her D. My 33. A. difficult B. interesting C. touching D. Traditional 34. A. took part in B. helped with C. paid attention to D. talked about 35. A. thought B. success C. memory D. goal 36. A. jumping B. playing C. swimming D. running 37. A. rule B. moment C. choice D. problem 38. A. continued B. decided C. refused D. preferred 39. A. good B. smart C. kind D. healthy 40. A. also B. only C. still D. almost 41. A. remember B. stop C. enjoy D. keep 四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 阅读下面的材料，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Eatwell Guide Salt & oil Salt and oil are good for cooking food. They make food delicious. But remember: too much of them will be bad for our body. Milk, yogurt, butter, cheese & beans These kinds of food make our body and teeth strong, so we can eat them every day. It’s not good to eat too much, however, because they have got lots of fat. Beans are very good because they haven’t got a lot of fat. Fish, meat & eggs These kinds of food give us what we need to help us grow big and strong. Fruit & vegetables We can eat lots of fruit and vegetables. They are very good for us because they help our body stay fit and healthy. Bread, rice, noodles & potatoes It is very important to eat these kinds of food because they give us the energy we need to get through the day. 42. What does the passage tell us about salt and oil? A. They are bad for cooking. B. They help us grow strong. C. We should never eat them. D. Too much of them is bad for us. 43. Why are beans good for us? A. Because they give us energy. B. Because they have a lot of fat. C. Because they don’t have much fat. D. Because they make food delicious. 44. The word fit in the Fruit &vegetables part means ________. A. fat and heavy B. healthy and strong C. sweet and delicious D. very tired and not well 45. According to the passage, which foods give us energy? A. Fish, meat and eggs. B. Fruit and vegetables. C. Milk, yogurt and cheese. D. Bread, rice, noodles and potatoes. 46. What is the main purpose of the Eatwell Guide? A. To help us eat well and stay healthy. B. To tell us what foods are bad for us. C. To show how to cook delicious food. D. To teach us about some eating habits. B Rebecca Young, a 14-year-old student, won first prize among 70,000 students in the UK Primary Engineer competition in 2024. She designed (设计) a solar-powered blanket (毯子) to help homeless people. She got the idea during freezing winter when she always saw homeless people on the streets with very little to keep warm. This made her sad, so she wanted to create something that could help them. Her invention (发明) works by taking in sunlight during the day and storing it in a battery (电池). At night, the stored energy heats (加热) the blanket. It stops heating once it reaches the right temperature to stop overheating. To bring her idea to life, Rebecca did research on sleeping bags and backpacks. After winning the competition, her idea became a real model (模型). The model uses copper wiring (铜线) for heating and solar panels (太阳能电池板) for power. It was shown at her school meeting. Rebecca loves science because it sparks curiosity (激发好奇心) and teaches us to question, experiment, and solve problems. She wants kids to know that if they think of something, it can become real. “There are no borders!” she says. 47. What was Rebecca Young’s prize-winning invention? A. A new type of sleeping bag. B. A solar-powered blanket. C. A backpack with copper wiring. D. A battery that stores sunlight. 48. What made Rebecca want to create her invention? A. Her interest in doing research. B. Her love for science and physics. C. Her sadness for the homeless in cold. D. Her desire to win a competition prize. 49. How does the solar-powered blanket work at night? A. It uses stored battery energy. B. It stops working to save energy. C. It uses sunlight directly for heat. D. It takes in the heat from sunlight. 50. What did Rebecca do after winning the competition? A. She researched other sleeping bags. B. She made her idea a real model. C. She sold her invention to a company. D. She created a drawing of her design. 51. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this passage? A. To let kids help homeless people. B. To introduce a UK competition. C. To explain how solar blankets work. D. To share a young inventor’s story. C ________________________ World Book Day is on 6 March. Its aims to (旨在) get people reading for pleasure. In children’s books, endings are usually happy. Characters may face dangers or challenges, but everything turns out well in the end. The hero might achieve their goal or find true love. But some people think happy endings are too simple. Real life is more complicated (复杂的). Sometimes sad endings make more sense (更加合理). What do you think? Yes — reading should make you feel good No — sad endings help children grow Happy endings make us feel good. Reading helps us run away from the real world, which can be sad. If a book makes you unhappy at the end, you might not want to read more. Happy endings can help you keep reading. Besides, a story with a happy ending can still be exciting. Happy endings do not always show real life, which has both good and bad times. Sad endings let children feel sadness in a safe way. This helps them deal with sad feelings later. Experiencing some negative emotions (情感) also improves empathy (同理心), so children can understand and help others better. 52. What is the main purpose of World Book Day? A. To help people enjoy reading. B. To sell more books to children. C. To help people write happy endings. D. To teach children how to write stories. 53. According to the passage, what usually happens in children’s books? A. The stories have no clear endings. B. They seldom talk about goals or love. C. Everything works out well in the end. D. The main character is dead at the end. 54. Why do some people support happy endings? A. Because all children like joyful stories. B. Because happy endings are easier to write. C. Because happy endings make stories meaningful. D. Because happy endings could make people feel excited. 55. What does the underlined word mean in the last paragraph? A. simple and easy B. sad and unpleasant C. happy and exciting D. strange and unusual 56. What is the best title for the passage? A. How to Celebrate World Book Day? C. Different Kinds of Children’s Books C. Ways to Write Great Children’s Books D. Happy Endings or Sad Endings for Children’s Books? 五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整。（选项中有两项是多余的） A: Mum, I learnt something interesting at school today! B: Really, Sam? 57. ________ A: We talked about three kinds of important crops (农作物). Do you know what the first one is? B: 58. ________ I know it’s one of the most produced crops in the world. A: You’re right! And you know what? People don’t eat all of the corn. Most of it goes to farm animals. B: Oh, that’s a fun fact. I didn’t know that before. 59. ________ A: Rice! It may be more important than corn for us humans. B: Right! 60. ________ A: Yes. And the third one is beans! They are good for our bodies, and people grow and eat them all over the world. B: I see. 61. ________I can cook it for you. A: Yes, please! A. Is it corn? B. Tell me all about it. C. What’s the second crop? D. I don’t think that’s right. E. What’s your favourite food? F. We eat rice almost every day. G. So do you want to have bean soup tonight? Ⅱ卷 注意事项：1. 用黑色字迹的签字笔将答案写在“答题卡”上。2. 本卷共五大题，共35分。 六、单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）根据所给音标或中文完成句子。 62. The ________ /’pɒrɪdʒ/ my mum makes for me is really ________ /dɪ’lɪʃəs/? 63. ________ /’vɪktəri/ belongs to those who have ________ /’kʌrɪdʒ/. 64. Listen carefully when you ________ /rɪ’siːv/ ________ /ɪn’strʌkʃns/ from your teachers. 65. Many old people ________ ________ (遭受)loneliness when they live alone. 66. It is very impolite to ________ ________ (嘲笑)those who are different from us. 七、完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）根据所给中文意思完成句子。 67. 每周一次，我去邮局取走所有的明信片和信件。 Once a week, I go to the ________ ________ and pick up all the cards and letters. 68. 从今往后，成败全靠我们自己。 From now on, we will only ________ or ________ on our own effort. 69. 人生从不完美。你只需屏息静气，全力以赴。 Life is never perfect. You just have to ________ your ________ and go for it. 70. 我们需要关注市场变化。 We need to ________ ________ to the changes in the market. 71. 多亏了老师的帮助，我通过了考试。 ________ ________ the help of my teacher, I passed the exam. 八、任务型阅读（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 根据短文内容，完成表格，每空1词 Kindness — key to world’s happiness On 20 March, the yearly World Happiness Report came out to mark International Day of Happiness — a day that celebrates the things that make people feel happy. The event was founded in 2012 by the United Nations (UN), a group made up of most of the world’s countries that works to promote (促进) peace. The report gathers information about people’s wellbeing from more than 140 countries and explores the things that make people feel good, such as generosity (慷慨) and support from family and friends. The information is then studied and sorted by experts before the report is published (出版) by the University of Oxford’s Wellbeing Research Centre in England. This year’s report showed the importance of kindness. As part of the study, people deliberately (故意地) “lost” their wallets (钱包) to see how many were given back. About twice as many wallets were returned than people had expected, making both the finder and wallet-owner happier. Every year, the study ranks the world’s happiest countries. Finland topped the list for the eighth year in a row. Finland has a strong welfare system (社会保障体系) and good chance to get close to nature. Costa Rica and Mexico appeared in the top 10 for the first time but the UK and the US both came lower than usual — the UK was 23rd and the US was 24th. Kindness — key to world’s happiness 72 ________ was the International Day of Happiness founded? It was founded in 2012. What does the UN work to promote? It works to promote 73 ________. 74 ________ is the University of Oxford’s Wellbeing Research Centre? It is in England. What did this year’s report show this year? It showed the importance of 75 ________. Which country was the happiest for the eighth time? 76 ________. 九、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） Dear Mum, I love you with all my heart. Every early morning, you start your busy day. There are so many t 77 in your mind — cooking for us, cleaning the house and going to work. All these make you so t 78 . When your colleagues (同事) ask “How are you?”, you a 79 say “Fine”. But I know you feel bad inside. You sit at your desk and type (打字) all day long. You say, “A job is a job, and a job must be done! There’s no t 80 to have fun!” But Mum, you are you, and you must also have fun. Plan some time for y 81 . It’s good for your mental (心理的) health, and it just can’t wait. Mum, I know our family need your c 82 . But you need care, too. You don’t have to do everything alone! Dad and I can help you with h 83 . We want to see your happy smile every day. What’s more, I hope you can t 84 some time out to relax. Remember, you liked to read books like magazines and do sports l 85 running before? Those happy things are still for you. Taking care of yourself is the first job of all. So Mum, please s 86 from this week. I want you to be the happiest mum in the world. Love, Philip 十、书面表达（本题共10分） 87. 你是晨光中学学生李华，学校英语广播站正在开展“Happiness in Helping Others”主题征文活动，面向学生征集原创小故事。请你根据要求，为学校广播站英语栏目写一篇投稿，内容包括：1. 你什么时间、在哪里、帮助了谁？他/她遇到了什么困难？2. 你是如何帮助他/她解决困难的？3. 你帮助他/她之后的感受如何？你从中学到了什么？ 注意：1. 文章字数不少于80词。2. 可结合自己的实际适当增补内容。 Happiness in Helping Others __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 七年级英语（一）参考答案 一、听力理解（本大题共16小题，1-8题每小题1分，9-16题每小题1.5分，共20分） 1-3 ACA 4-8 BBACA 9-16 BC-ABB-BAC 二、单项填空（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 17-21CBDAA 22-26BCADC 27-31BDABC 三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 32-36CAABD 37-41DBACB 四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 42-46DCBDA 47-51BCABD 52-56ACDBD 五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 57-61BACFG 六、词汇（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 62. porridge, delicious 63. victory, courage 64. receive, instructions 65. suffer from 66. laugh at 七、完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 67. post office 68. sink swim 69. hold breath 70. pay attention 71. Thanks to 八、任务型阅读（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 72. When 73. peace 74. Where 75. kindness 76. Finland 九、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 77. things 78. tired 79. always 80. time 81. yourself 82. care 83. housework 84. take 85. like 86. start 十、书面表达（本大题共10分） 87. One possible version: Happiness in Helping Others I am Li Hua. Last Sunday morning, I met a little boy on my way to the library. He cried sadly because he lost his way home and couldn’t find his mom. I walked to him with kindness and tried to calm him down. Then I called the police for help and stayed with him until his mom arrived. His mom thanked me a lot and gave me a big smile. Although I was a little late for the library, I felt very happy and warm inside. I learned that helping others is the best way to get true happiness. We should always be kind to people in need. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $