内容正文:
湖城学校2025—2026学年第二学期
九年级英语期中试卷
一、听力理解(每小题1分,共20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What did the girl lose?
A. A dog. B. A key. C. A wallet.
2. Where did the girl find the coat?
A. In the library. B. In the classroom. C. In the dining hall.
3. What will the man buy in the supermarket?
A. Yogurt. B. Pears. C. Bananas.
4. How old is Dale?
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six.
5. What does Lisa mean?
A. She has wasted 4,000 yuan.
B. She doesn’t go to work anymore.
C. She won’t buy this type of bicycle.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. What club does Dale want to join this term?
A. The IT club. B. The art club. C. The music club.
7. What did Dale use to do with the nature club members?
A. Study ants. B. Plant trees. C. Watch birds.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
8. What is the inventor’s latest invention?
A. Shoes with lights. B. A clock with a fan. C. Sunglasses with a cap.
9. How old was the inventor when he made his first invention?
A. 10. B. 12. C. 14.
请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
10. What kind of restaurant is the woman looking for?
A. An Italian restaurant. B. An Indian restaurant. C. A Thailand restaurant.
11. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Look at the sign. B. Check the website. C. Make a phone call.
12. What can we know about the restaurant?
A. It’s on Green Street. B. It’s next to a toy shop. C. It’s called Forest World.
请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13. Where were Sandy’s family rules hung?
A. In the bedroom. B. In the living room. C. In the dining room.
14. What is Brian used to doing after finishing a meal quickly?
A. Reading novels. B. Watching sports on TV. C. Playing computer games.
15. What can we get from the conversation?
A. Sandy usually takes a shower in the evening.
B. Brain thinks his family rules are kind of strict.
C. Sandy’s dad created the family rules for her house.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。听独白前你将有时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16. Tim has been living in Tianjin for ________ and a half years.
17. Zhang Long’s family prepared ________, fish, chicken, mutton and other dishes for the New Year’s Eve dinner.
18. Tim’s favorite dish was Beijing duck which was cooked by Zhang Long’s ________.
19. Tim watched a (n) ________ at the cinema the next day.
20. Tim ________ on Binjiang Road the next evening.
二、单项填空(每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. Sign language is an important form of ________ for the deaf community.
A. education B. transportation C. protection D. communication
2. Considering its size, the ant’s ability to carry objects is as ________ as that of a much larger animal.
A. weak B. weaker C. strong D. stronger
3. —Don’t forget to visit the Tengwang Pavilion ________ you go to Nanchang.
—Of course I won’t. It’s a must-see, isn’t it?
A. if B. unless C. until D. although
4. — I didn’t see you at dinner last night. Where were you?
— In my room. At that time, I ________ my book report.
A. wrote B. was writing C. will write D. am writing
5. We need to learn how to ________ people properly before we go abroad. For example, in Mexico people shake hands when they meet.
A. admire B. praise C. greet D. educate
6. —I really don’t want to move, but I ________ can’t stand my neighbor.
—It’s really a problem. You’d better have a serious talk with him.
A. nearly B. mostly C. simply D. especially
7. —Do you know when the Eiffel Tower ________?
—In the 1880s. It remains a symbol of Paris to this day.
A. builds B. built C. is built D. was built
8. Jane reached into her pocket and found that the lost key ________ in her pocket. She then remembered putting it there in a rush this morning.
A. was B. has been C. will be D. would be
三、完形填空(每小题1分,共26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
Did you know that there are around 8 million restaurants in the world today? This might sound like a ____9____ to you, but the even more surprising thing is that the idea of a restaurant is very new in Western countries. Restaurants didn’t come into being ____10____ 1765. Before 1765, there were no places where you could sit down, ____11____ a menu, and have someone bring you food.
Everything changed in 1765 when Boulanger ____12____ a small shop in Paris. He sold soups and called his soups “restaurant”, which means “to restore (恢复) a person’s ____13____” in French. People believed his soups could make them feel ____14____ when they were sick. Soon, even those who weren’t ill wanted to enjoy his soups. Over time, the word “restaurant” began to mean a place for ____15____, and more restaurants started to appear across France.
By the 1780s, restaurants in Paris began to ____16____ more than just soups. Menus became popular as they allowed customers to choose ____17____ dishes. By the 1800s, many kinds of restaurants appeared. In the United States, coffee shops and oyster (牡蛎) houses became ____18____. Lots of people enjoyed visiting them. At the same time, Paris saw the rise of fancy (高档的) restaurants for ____19____ people. The British noticed this and started their restaurants too, spreading the idea across their lands.
From these simple beginnings, restaurants grew ____20____. Today, cities all over the world are full of places to ____21____. According to the European Union, there are about 1.6 million restaurants in Europe alone, ____22____ the United States has nearly half a million. They have ____23____ part of the culture, providing not only food but also a place for people to gather and enjoy time with friends and family.
9. A. song B. dream C. trouble D. surprise
10. A. until B. since C. after D. during
11. A. look for B. look at C. look like D. look after
12. A. found B. left C. opened D. visited
13. A. wealth B. future C. energy D. business
14. A. better B. happier C. smarter D. warmer
15. A. butter B. cakes C. rice D. soups
16. A. enjoy B. serve C. trade D. invite
17. A. free B. simple C. healthy D. different
18. A. creative B. expensive C. popular D. necessary
19. A. rich B. busy C. kind D. quiet
20. A. hard B. fast C. early D. wisely
21. A. eat B. play C. shop D. study
22. A. unless B. while C. because D. although
23. A. deleted B. invented C. become D. accepted
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,每个词限用一次。
well when lucky success excited try hope photo group include valuable
Song Lingdong was born in August 1990 in a small village in Shandong, China. In September 2020, he became one of China’s third ____24____ of astronauts. As the youngest member of the Shenzhou-19 crew (全体工作人员), he was ____25____ about his trip to space.
Song has many important tasks during his stay in space. The tasks ____26____ managing crew operations (行动), taking care of the tools, and working outside the spacecraft (航天器). He has brought sweet potatoes ____27____ growing them in the space garden. Song wants to see if he can grow them ____28____ there than on Earth. That is a challenge he is ready to take on.
Song grew up in the countryside, and his parents were farmers. He learned farming skills ____29____ he was young and now wants to use those skills in space. He ____30____ to make some fun science videos while he is up there. He believes that this trip is a (n) ____31____ experience he will remember forever.
Song feels ____32____ to be part of this exciting trip. He brings a painting of peonies (牡丹) along with some family ____33____. These flowers stand for good luck and ____34____ back home. He says, “When the peonies bloom (开花) again, that will be the day for me to return to my family!”
四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Fun Programs at the Toronto Public Library
Jeopardy Night
Are you a know-it-all? Come to Jeopardy Night! You can join a team of four and answer general knowledge questions. The winning team members will each take home a prize! Bring a team or yourself, and get here right at 4 p.m. because there are only a few places available. This program is for teenagers aged 13-17. No need to sign up!
DIY Assistive Tech Summer Camp
Join us for a special camp with Makers Making Change (MMC)! In this three-day event, you will learn how to make helpful devices (装置) for people with disabilities. In the end, you will give what you’ve made to people who need them. You can earn volunteer hours too! This camp is for teenagers aged 13-17. Call 416-394-5120 to sign up.
35. What should you do if you want to take part in Jeopardy Night?
A. Arrive at 4 p.m. B. Sign up before the event.
C. Bring at least three teammates. D. Prepare some knowledge questions.
36. How old is the teenager who can join DIY Assistive Tech Summer Camp?
A. 10岁 B. 15岁 C. 18岁 D. 20岁
37. What can we know about DIY Assistive Tech Summer Camp?
A. It lasts for a week. B. It offers paid training.
C. It helps disabled people. D. It needs lots of volunteers.
B
Aaron stood at the bottom of the mountain, feeling a cool breeze on his face. The moon was still in the sky, but the sun was starting to rise. Aaron looked up at the highest point of Cadillac Mountain, one of the first places to see the sunrise in the US. He could hardly imagine himself at the top. “Ready, everyone?” asked Jordan, who was a great climber and was leading their group up the mountain.
Aaron had never climbed such a big mountain before. He was more used to drawing and painting. He wasn’t good at sports. But this time, he was climbing for a purpose. He wanted to help his friend Jordan’s mom, Aunt Patty.
Aaron grew up with Jordan. Aunt Patty was like a second mom to him. She loved climbing mountains and had dreamed of climbing Cadillac Mountain since college. But a few years ago, Aunt Patty got sick with cancer (癌症). She thought she might never climb again. Her friends and family, including Aaron, started to climb different mountains to raise money for her treatment (治疗).
This time, when Aunt Patty was getting better, she wanted to climb again. Everyone was excited to help her reach the top. “Let’s go! We don’t want to miss the sunrise!” Jordan called out. The group followed him, keeping looking over at Aunt Patty to see if she was all right.
Finally, out of breath, the group reached the top. Jordan checked his watch. “5:53, just five minutes before the sunrise,” he said. Aunt Patty sat on the ground. “I can’t believe we’re really here,” she said. Everyone sat beside her and waited. The sky turned purple, pink, and orange, and the sun rose. It was amazing!
Aunt Patty broke the silence. “Thank you for coming, everyone,” she said, with tears (眼泪) in her eyes. Jordan, Aaron and the others hugged her, happy to share this special moment (时刻).
38. When did Aaron start to climb Cadillac Mountain?
A. At noon. B. At midnight. C. In the early morning. D. In the late afternoon.
39. Why did Aaron decide to climb the mountain?
A. To help Aunt Patty. B. To raise money for Jordan.
C. To become a great climber. D. To show that he could do it.
40. What do we know about Aunt Patty?
A. She was seriously ill. B. She was Aaron and Jordan’s aunt.
C. She did well in drawing and painting. D. She fell in love with climbing in college.
41. How did Aunt Patty feel when seeing the sunrise?
A. Sad and sick. B. Sick but excited. C. Thankful but sad. D. Excited and thankful.
42. What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Climbing for fun B. Aaron’s first climb C. Aunt Patty’s choice D. Reaching the top together
C
China-made autonomous sweepers (自动驾驶清扫车) are getting attention around the world. They use smart technologies to help make places clean and tidy. They are produced by Autowise.ai, a Shanghai business. “The need for our sweepers has surged in recent years. We also start to sell them in other countries,” said Tang Yanye, a manager at the business.
Autowise.ai has received the world’s first road testing license for autonomous sweepers. Also, it is the first Chinese business that sells autonomous sweepers in other countries. Months ago, the business showed its sweepers in Dubai. With smart technologies and special tools like radars (雷达) and cameras, the sweepers could avoid obstacles (障碍), and turn and change direction easily when needed. The sweepers could sweep, wash the road, and pick up rubbish, saving up to 70% on cleaning costs. People were also excited that they could do many different cleaning jobs at once.
Autowise.ai, it has introduced these sweepers in over 30 cities worldwide, including in Germany, the United States, and Saudi Arabia. And they have received many good reviews.
“Outdoor temperatures in countries like Saudi Arabia can reach 50 to 60°C in the summer. So, it is difficult for human workers to work. Also, Europe has an aging population of human workers. And it is hard and expensive to find younger workers,” Tang said. “But our sweepers can solve these problems perfectly.”
Autowise.ai, it believes the market for autonomous sweepers will continue to grow in the coming years. And it plans to keep developing new products to help with more tasks and make life easier for people.
43. What does the underlined word “surged” in Paragraph 1 mean?
A. Changed slowly. B. Improved quietly. C. Increased greatly. D. Appeared suddenly.
44. What important achievement has Autowise.ai made?
A. It opened a sweeper factory in Dubai.
B. It developed the first autonomous sweeper in China.
C. It is the only autonomous sweeper business in China.
D. It has got the world’s first road testing license for its products.
45. Which of the following can help the sweepers avoid obstacles?
①Radars ②Cameras
③Smart technologies ④Messages from human workers
A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ①②④ D. ②③④
46. What challenges do human workers face according to Tang?
A. The need for resting places. B. Difficult conditions and aging.
C. Long working hours and stress. D. The high cost of learning new technologies.
47. What is the writer’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. To explain how autonomous sweepers work.
B. To introduce the future of autonomous sweepers.
C. To encourage people to buy autonomous sweepers.
D. To share the success of Chinese autonomous sweepers.
D
Many kids, especially those under six, write letters backward (倒着). It is called mirror writing. Some adults also write backward after a brain injury (损伤). But for kids, it’s just a part of learning.
You might wonder why this happens. Some people think it’s because those children are left-handed, but that’s not true. A 2016 study showed that left-handed and right-handed kids write backward just as often. Another common thought is that mirror writing means a child has dyslexia (诵读困难). However, that’s not correct either. Dyslexia makes it hard for people to connect letters to sounds. So, while kids with dyslexia might have difficulty spelling or sounding words out, writing letters backward isn’t a sign of this condition.
So, what causes kids to write letters backward? One reason has to do with how our brains work. When we see something, like a letter, we remember its shape more than its direction. It is a natural, important skill that helps us recognize (认出) things no matter what angle (角度) we see them from. For example, a human can recognize a tiger by looking at it from any angle. When children learn to write, their brains remember the shape of a letter rather than its direction. At the same time, they are still learning the difference between left and right. That’s why they might write letters backward.
Another reason for mirror writing may have to do with the letters themselves. In English, most letters, like c, open to the right. Children may pick up on this pattern. Because of that, they might accidentally write letters that open to the left, like j, backward.
Have you ever noticed anyone writing letters backward? It’s a normal part of growing up and learning to write. With time and practice, most kids will stop writing backward!
48. What does the underlined word “this” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. A 2016 study. B. Mirror writing. C. A brain injury. D. Left-handed writing.
49. Which of the following is hard for kids with dyslexia?
A. Spelling. B. Hearing. C. Thinking. D. Communicating.
50. According to Paragraph 3, what helps us recognize things from any angle?
A. The ability to remember things’ sizes. B. The ability to remember things’ colors.
C. The ability to remember things’ shapes. D. The ability to remember things’ directions.
51. How many reasons does the writer give for mirror writing?
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
52. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?
(①=Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2…)
A. 1/23/45 B. 1/2/345 C. 1/23/4/5 D. 1/2/34/5
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
The United Nations (UN) has decided that 2025 is the year of glacier preservation (冰川保护). It has also set March 21, 2025, as the first annual (年度的) World Day for Glaciers. ____53____
What are glaciers?
You can imagine them as slowly moving ice and snow on land. Over time, the snow adds up and turns into glacier ice. Glaciers have shaped mountains and valleys (山谷) over Earth’s history. They are still moving and changing land in many places today.
____54____
Glaciers are not just important for the land. When glaciers melt (融化), the nutrients (养料) from the water are good for life in rivers and oceans. In some places, glaciers provide water for people and animals. The UN says there are about 200,000 glaciers in the world, covering 10 percent of the land. ____55____ In areas like the Himalayas, many people need glacier water to live. This water fills big rivers, such as the Indus, Ganges and Brahmaputra.
Why are glaciers disappearing?
Climate (气候) change is leading to serious problems for glaciers. ____56____ For example, Colombia has lost 90 percent of its glaciers since the mid-19th century. If temperatures rise by 1.5-4 degrees, glaciers could get much smaller by the year 2100.
What is the influence of disappearing glaciers?
If glaciers disappear, there will be less water for us to drink and farm, while floods (洪水) may happen more often because of melting ice. ____57____ Mountains with glaciers are home to special ecosystems and a large number of the world’s animals. As temperatures rise and glaciers melt, their homes are no longer fit to live in. They may need to move higher up the mountains.
A. Why are glaciers important?
B. Many glaciers have disappeared.
C. What can we do to protect glaciers?
D. It will also be bad for animals and plants.
E. So lots of animals lose homes because of floods.
F. They also hold 70 percent of Earth’s fresh water.
G. This way, it encourages everyone to help protect glaciers.
五、补全对话(每小题1分,共5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整。一空一句。
(Nick and Li Yao are talking during the break. Nick =N, Li Yao=L)
N: Hey, Li Yao. How are you?
L: Not good, Nick. ____58____
N: Why?
L: ____59____ I’m not very sure about it.
N: I understand how you feel, but don’t worry too much. You’re good at writing and you speak English well. I’m sure you’ll do well and even win a prize!
L: Thanks. ____60____ It’s a silly fear.
N: It’s not. Public speaking is a common fear for many people. But if you avoid it, you’ll always have that fear.
L: You’re right. ____61____
N: One way is to prepare your speech well in advance (提前) and practice it as much as possible.
L: I completed my speech yesterday. I have to practice it, though.
N: I’m happy to help you practice. Would you like to practice in front of me now?
L: ____62____ Thanks.
N: I’m all ears.
A. That would be great!
B. I feel really nervous.
C. We can’t avoid public speaking.
D. But how can I deal with this fear?
E. Can you help me write the speech?
F. But I’m afraid of giving speeches in public.
G. Because I have to give a speech in English tomorrow.
六、书面表达(15分)
63. 假如你所在的英语角下周分享的主题是“Creative Moments”,要求大家分享自己的一次创新体验,让同学们感受创意带来的乐趣和价值。请你根据下面的写作要点,用英语写一篇短文为分享活动做准备。
写作要点:
1. Where did the creative idea come from?
2. How did you put the idea into practice?
3. What can you learn from the experience?
要求:
1. 短文应包括所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
2. 词数80—120,开头已给出,但不计入总词数。
Hello, everyone. Have you ever stared at an everyday object and suddenly seen its new use? Well, that’s exactly what happened to me, and today I’m excited to share my creative moment with you.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
湖城学校2025—2026学年第二学期
九年级英语期中试卷
一、听力理解(每小题1分,共20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What did the girl lose?
A. A dog. B. A key. C. A wallet.
2. Where did the girl find the coat?
A. In the library. B. In the classroom. C. In the dining hall.
3. What will the man buy in the supermarket?
A. Yogurt. B. Pears. C. Bananas.
4. How old is Dale?
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six.
5. What does Lisa mean?
A. She has wasted 4,000 yuan.
B. She doesn’t go to work anymore.
C. She won’t buy this type of bicycle.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. What club does Dale want to join this term?
A. The IT club. B. The art club. C. The music club.
7. What did Dale use to do with the nature club members?
A. Study ants. B. Plant trees. C. Watch birds.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
8. What is the inventor’s latest invention?
A. Shoes with lights. B. A clock with a fan. C. Sunglasses with a cap.
9. How old was the inventor when he made his first invention?
A. 10. B. 12. C. 14.
请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
10. What kind of restaurant is the woman looking for?
A. An Italian restaurant. B. An Indian restaurant. C. A Thailand restaurant.
11. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Look at the sign. B. Check the website. C. Make a phone call.
12. What can we know about the restaurant?
A. It’s on Green Street. B. It’s next to a toy shop. C. It’s called Forest World.
请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13. Where were Sandy’s family rules hung?
A. In the bedroom. B. In the living room. C. In the dining room.
14. What is Brian used to doing after finishing a meal quickly?
A. Reading novels. B. Watching sports on TV. C. Playing computer games.
15. What can we get from the conversation?
A. Sandy usually takes a shower in the evening.
B. Brain thinks his family rules are kind of strict.
C. Sandy’s dad created the family rules for her house.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。听独白前你将有时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16. Tim has been living in Tianjin for ________ and a half years.
17. Zhang Long’s family prepared ________, fish, chicken, mutton and other dishes for the New Year’s Eve dinner.
18. Tim’s favorite dish was Beijing duck which was cooked by Zhang Long’s ________.
19. Tim watched a (n) ________ at the cinema the next day.
20. Tim ________ on Binjiang Road the next evening.
二、单项填空(每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】D
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】D
【8题答案】
【答案】A
三、完形填空(每小题1分,共26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
【9~23题答案】
【答案】9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. C
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,每个词限用一次。
【24~34题答案】
【答案】24. group
25. excited
26. include
27. to try 28. better
29. when 30. hopes
31. valuable
32. lucky 33. photos
34. success
四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【35~37题答案】
【答案】35. A 36. B 37. C
B
【38~42题答案】
【答案】38. C 39. A 40. A 41. D 42. D
C
【43~47题答案】
【答案】43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. D
D
【48~52题答案】
【答案】48. B 49. A 50. C 51. B 52. D
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
【53~57题答案】
【答案】53. G 54. A 55. F 56. B 57. D
五、补全对话(每小题1分,共5分)
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58. B 59. G 60. F 61. D 62. A
六、书面表达(15分)
【63题答案】
【答案】
例文
Hello, everyone. Have you ever stared at an everyday object and suddenly seen its new use? Well, that’s exactly what happened to me, and today I’m excited to share my creative moment with you.
Last month, I noticed many old plastic bottles at home. An idea hit me: why not turn them into a pencil holder? First, I cleaned a large bottle and cut off its top. Then, I decorated it with colorful paper and stickers. Finally, I put all my pens and pencils inside. It looked cool and unique.
This creative moment taught me that we can give old things new life. It also made me realize that creativity brings not only fun but also environmental protection. I felt proud and happy. Now, I always look for ways to reuse waste. Creativity makes our world better.
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