学易金卷：七年级英语下学期5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版）

2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版） 英语·全解全析 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5．测试范围：七年级下册Units 5~6（新教材冀教版）。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A．I think so. B．Yes, they are. C．That’s all right. 【答案】A 【原文】Your neighbourhood is so nice and clean. 2．A．Yes, please. B．I don’t mind. C．Sounds good. 【答案】C 【原文】What about going to the tailor’s shop this weekend? 3． A．No, I don’t. B．They are strong. C．I’m drawing a tiger. 【答案】A 【原文】Do you like tigers? 4．A．Art. B．Very interesting. C．I like football best. 【答案】A 【原文】What subject do you like best? 5．A．I am fine. B．By bus. C．It’s near. 【答案】B 【原文】How do you come over to visit your grandparents? 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6．What are the flowers made of? A． B． C． 【答案】A 【原文】M: Hi, Linda! What beautiful flowers! Did you pick them in the garden? W: Oh, no. They are made of silk. They are similar to real flowers. Question: What are the flowers made of? 7．What’s in the man’s neighbourhood? A． B． C． 【答案】A 【原文】W: Do you like your neighbourhood? M: Yes. It is beautiful. And there is a bakery in it. It’s my favourite. Q: What’s in the man’s neighbourhood? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8．Why did Anna move to the neighbourhood? A．To spend her holiday. B．To work in a bank. C．To start school. 9．What does John invite Anna to do on Sunday? A．Visit other neighbours. B．Join in his birthday party. C．Join in a party for the neighbours. 【答案】8．B 9．C 【原文】A: Nice to meet you. My name is Anna. I moved here because I found a job in a bank. B: Nice to meet you. I’m John. Welcome to our neighborhood. A: It’s a nice neighborhood. B: Yes, we get on well with each other. I’m going to have a party this Sunday for all the neighbors. Would you like to come? A: I’d love to. That will be fun. B: Great. It will start at 2. See you then. A: See you then. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10．Where do Mike and Lisa want to go this afternoon? A．To the bookstore. B．To the library. C．To the post office. 11．How will Lisa and Mike go there? A．By bike. B．By subway. C．By bus. 【答案】10．A 11．B 【原文】M: Hello, Lisa. W: Hello, Mike. M: This afternoon, I will go to the bookstore and buy some books. Would you like to go with me? W: Yes, I’d love to. But I don’t know how far it is from my home to the bookstore. M: It’s about three kilometers. Let’s take the subway there. W: All right. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 12．How was Linda’s weekend? A．Exciting. B．Busy. C．Boring. 13．What did Ben do on the weekend? A．He played basketball. B．He had a party. C．He went to the shop. 14．What can we know about Paul and Cathy? A．Cathy helped the farmers pick pears. B．Paul watched TV about robots. C．Cathy was busy on the weekend. 【答案】12．C 13．B 14．C 【原文】A: Hi, Linda. How was your weekend? B: It was boring. I went to the museum. It was so hot. There were too many people there. What about you, Ben? A: Oh, we had a party for Henry. It was his thirteenth birthday. B: Was it great? A: Yeah. We had a great time. What did your brother Paul do? B: He learned about the robots and it was exciting. A: How about your sisters? B: Hem and Kathy’s weekend was busy. She went shopping with my parents. And Emma helped the farmers pick pears. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 15．When did Lucy go to China? A．Last Wednesday. B．Last Saturday. C．Last Sunday. 16．How long did Lucy sleep after the trip? A．For two days. B．For two hours. C．For three days. 17．Who is Lucy’s report about? A．Marco Polo. B．Yao Ming. C．Zhang Gui mei. 18．Where will they go? A．To the school. B．To the library. C．To the classroom. 【答案】15．B 16．A 17．A 18．B 【原文】M: Did you go to China last Saturday? W: Yes, I did. M: Did you have a good rest after the trip, Lucy? W: Yes, I slept for two days. Danny. M: You must feel good now. W: Yes, you’re right. M: By the way, are you ready for your report? W: Yes, I will talk about Marco Polo. M: It’s a good idea. W: I will go to the library to find some books. M: Let’s go together. 第3节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19．Where is Tom probably now? A．In the classroom. B．In the library. C．At the school radio station. 20．How often does Tom have P.E. lessons now? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Every day. 21．Why does Tom like basketball best? A．It helps make friends and relax. B．It is easy for him to learn. C．It builds his body and mind. 22．Why does Tom think his team is the best? A．They always win. B．They are friends. C．They work together. 【答案】19．C 20．C 21．A 22．C 【原文】 Hi, everyone. This is Tom speaking. It’s my turn to give you today’s school radio report. There is a saying, “no sports, no life”. Sports are very important to us. Sports help us to keep fit and get good grades. Everyone in my class loves sports. We used to have P.E. lessons twice a week, but now we have P.E. lessons every day. During the class, we jog, do sit-ups and play badminton. But my favorite sport is basketball. It helps me make a lot of friends and it’s also a good way to relax. Whenever I feel stressed out, I will ask my friends to play basketball with me. We have a basketball team. Our team often has friendly games with others from different schools. They are excellent, but I think we are the best. We work as a team to win and lose. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 23．When does Suzy get up on Sundays? A．At 6:40 a.m. B．At 7:20 a.m. C．At 7:40 a.m. 24．What club does Suzy go to on Saturdays? A．The drama club. B．The chess club. C．The music club. 25．Which place does Suzy say is great? A．The park. B．The farm. C．The cinema. 【答案】23．C 24．A 25．A 【原文】Good morning. I’m Suzy. Do you have to follow any rules in your lives? Well, I do. I have to get up at 6:40 a.m. on weekdays and 7:40 a.m. at weekends. I must make my bed every day and help make my brother’s bed, because my brother is only six years old. I like watching TV, but I can watch it for only five hours every week. On Saturdays, I have to go to the drama club. I don’t like it. I want to join the chess club. I will talk about this with my parents. On Sundays, I help clean the house. It usually takes me around two hours to do it. Then I can play in the park near my home. It’s a great place. 第四节 听短文填空 (共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分) Sugar Painting History It has a history of around five 26 years. Shapes It is 27 made into different shapes, like animals and flowers. Past Sugar painting was so 28 that it was popular in many places. Now There are not many sugar painting 29 because the skills are difficult to learn. Hope Our country will 30 it 【答案】26．hundred 27．usually 28．interesting 29．artists 30．protect 【原文】Sugar painting has a history of around 500 years. It is a kind of food and also a kind of art. It is usually made into different shapes, like animals and flowers. Sugar painting was so interesting that it was popular in many places in the past. But there are not many sugar painting artists now because the skills are difficult to learn. I hope our country will protect it. 第二部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 It’s important for everyone to have a good neighbour. In China, there is a saying that a near neighbour is better than a distant relative. I agree with it 31 , from my experience (经历), I think it’s 32 for each one to have a good neighbour. First, a good neighbour is a good friend. One winter day when our family moved to a new house, our neighbours helped us to 33 some furniture (家具) and told us something 34 this neighbourhood. They invited all members of 35 family to their home to have a hot drink. They 36 us feel comfortable here. Next, a good neighbour is a good relative. When we travel, our neighbours 37 take care of our house and keep the letters for us. When they 38 , we also help them as they do. In the new neighbourhood, we always 39 each other. We are just like good relatives. Finally, I get an important 40 from our neighbours that having a good neighbour is being a good neighbour yourself. 31．A．so B．and C．but D．because 32．A．easy B．hard C．important D．expensive 33．A．bring B．take C．carry D．cut 34．A．about B．on C．at D．in 35．A．my B．your C．his D．their 36．A．helped B．made C．needed D．asked 37．A．seldom B．never C．always D．sometimes 38．A．travel B．study C．sleep D．shop 39．A．see B．help C．chat D．call 40．A．video B．card C．present D．lesson 【答案】 31．D 32．C 33．C 34．A 35．A 36．B 37．C 38．A 39．B 40．D 【导语】本文作者结合自身经历，阐述了拥有好邻居的重要性，并总结出“拥有好邻居的前提是让自己成为好邻居”的道理。 31．句意：我同意这一点，因为根据我的经验，我认为对每个人来说拥有一个好邻居是重要的。 前文提到同意“远亲不如近邻”的说法，后文解释同意的原因，前后为因果关系。because“因为”符合语境。 32．句意：我同意这一点，因为根据我的经验，我认为对每个人来说拥有一个好邻居是重要的。 全文都在论述好邻居的重要性，且首句提到“对每个人来说拥有一个好邻居很重要”。important“重要的”符合语境。 33．句意：我们搬新家的一个冬日，邻居们帮我们搬了一些家具，并告诉了我们一些关于这个社区的事情。 搬家时需要搬运家具。carry“搬、搬运”符合语境；bring带来、take拿走、cut切割，均不符合。 34．句意：邻居们帮我们搬了一些家具，并告诉了我们一些关于这个社区的事情。 表示“关于某事的信息”，介词用about。about“关于”符合语境；on在……上（也可表示“关于”，但偏学术性）、at在……点、in在……里面，均不符合。 35．句意：他们邀请我们全家人去他们家喝热饮。 前文提到邻居们帮助了“我们”，因此邀请的是“我的”家人。my“我的”符合语境。 36．句意：他们让我们在这里感到很舒适。 固定搭配make sb. feel...意为“让某人感到……”。made“使、让”符合语境。 37．句意：当我们旅行时，我们的邻居总是帮我们照看房子并替我们保管信件。 好邻居应是可靠、值得信赖的，因此总是愿意帮忙。always“总是”符合语境；seldom很少、never从不、sometimes有时，均不符合。 38．句意：当他们旅行时，我们也像他们帮助我们那样帮助他们。 前文提到邻居在我们旅行时帮忙照看房子，此处应是邻居旅行时我们也帮忙，前后动作一致。travel“旅行”符合语境。 39．句意：在新的社区里，我们总是互相帮助。 前文提到邻居帮我们搬家具、照看房子，我们也帮他们，说明彼此帮助。help“帮助”符合语境。 40．句意：最后，我从邻居们那里得到了一个重要的启示：拥有一个好邻居就是让自己成为一个好邻居。 作者通过邻居的行为悟出了一个道理。lesson“教训、启示”符合语境。 第二节 短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Hey there! When you hear the word “wheelchairs (轮椅)”, what do you think of? They are always for those people 41 need? Maybe. But guess what! In our P.E. class at Big Rapids Middle School, students get to use wheelchairs for some 42 (activity). It’s not because all of 43 （we）can’t walk. Instead, we do this 44 it’s a good way to play sports and try to understand others. My classmate Chase Fuller 45 (have) to use a wheelchair every day. But he doesn’t let it 46 (slow) him down and he loves to play wheelchair basketball. Because of this, 47 (we) P.E. teacher Ms. Douglass got the idea of 48 (bring) wheelchair sports into classes. Her goal is 49 (make) sure every student can join in sports activities in class. She encourages us to try new sports in 50 wheelchair. We have activities like wheelchair basketball 51 wheelchair volleyball. And my favourite one 52 (be) wheelchair football. 53 (play) it well, I have to do a lot of practice in the wheelchair. This 54 (help) me understand what life is like for those in a wheelchair. Wheelchair sports 55 (real) make our P.E. class special and fun for everyone! 【答案】41. who/that 42. activities 43. us 44. because 45. has 46. slow 47. our 48. bringing 49. to make 50. a 51. and 52. is 53. To play 54. helps 55. really 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，围绕美国Big Rapids中学体育课上的轮椅运动展开，讲述学生通过使用轮椅进行体育活动，理解轮椅使用者的生活，传递包容与互助的理念。 【解析】41. 解析：考查定语从句引导词。先行词是“those people”（那些人），指人，且引导词在从句中作主语，符合定语从句中who/that（指人，作主语/宾语）的用法，因此填who或that。解题关键：判断先行词属性（人/物）及引导词在从句中的成分，锁定对应引导词。 42. 解析：考查名词单复数。空前有不定代词“some”（一些），后接可数名词复数形式；“activity”（活动）是可数名词，其复数形式为“activities”，符合语法规则。解题关键：牢记“some+可数名词复数/不可数名词”的搭配，掌握可数名词的复数变形规则。 43. 解析：考查人称代词宾格。空前有介词“of”，介词后接人称代词的宾格形式；“we”（我们）是主格，其宾格为“us”，此处表示“我们所有人”，符合语境和语法要求。解题关键：明确介词后需接宾格，区分人称代词主格与宾格的用法。 44. 解析：考查连词（因果逻辑）。前文说明“我们不是因为不能走路才使用轮椅”，后文解释“这么做是因为这是做运动和理解他人的好方法”，前后句为因果关系（后接原因），因此填because（因为）。解题关键：分析前后句逻辑关系，锁定因果连词，注意because（表原因）与so（表结果）的区别。 45. 解析：考查动词时态（一般现在时）。主语“My classmate Chase Fuller”是第三人称单数，且句子描述的是日常发生的事情，需用一般现在时，动词“have”的第三人称单数形式为“has”，符合语境和时态要求。解题关键：判断主语单复数及句子时态，牢记一般现在时第三人称单数动词变形规则。 46. 解析：考查固定搭配。let sb./sth. do sth. 是固定搭配，意为“让某人/某物做某事”，此处“let it”后需接动词原形，因此填“slow”。解题关键：熟记“let+宾语+动词原形”的固定用法，避免误填动词第三人称单数或-ing形式。 47. 解析：考查物主代词。空后有名词“P.E. teacher”（体育老师），需用形容词性物主代词修饰名词；“we”（我们）的形容词性物主代词为“our”，此处表示“我们的体育老师”，符合语境。解题关键：区分人称代词主格、宾格与物主代词的用法，形容词性物主代词后必须接名词。 48. 解析：考查非谓语动词（动名词）。空前有介词“of”，介词后接动词的-ing形式，即动名词；“bring”（带来）的动名词形式为“bringing”，符合语法规则。解题关键：牢记“介词+动名词”的固定搭配，掌握常见动词的动名词变形。 49. 解析：考查非谓语动词（不定式）。此处“is”后需接不定式作表语，说明主语“Her goal”（她的目标）的具体内容，“to make sure”意为“确保”，符合语境和语法要求。解题关键：判断不定式作表语的用法，牢记“be+to do sth.”表示“目的/目标是做某事”。 50. 解析：考查不定冠词。此处“wheelchair”（轮椅）是可数名词单数，且首次泛指“一辆轮椅”，需用不定冠词“a”修饰；“wheelchair”以辅音音素开头，因此填“a”。解题关键：掌握不定冠词“a/an”的用法，区分泛指与特指，注意辅音音素和元音音素开头的单词搭配差异。 51. 解析：考查连词（并列关系）。前文“wheelchair basketball”（轮椅篮球）和后文“wheelchair volleyball”（轮椅排球）是并列的体育活动，需用连词“and”连接，表并列关系。解题关键：分析前后内容的逻辑关系，锁定并列连词and。 52. 解析：考查动词时态（一般现在时）及主谓一致。主语“And my favourite one”（我最喜欢的一项活动）是单数，句子描述的是客观事实，需用一般现在时，因此填“is”。解题关键：判断主语单复数，确保主谓一致，牢记一般现在时的基本用法。 53. 解析：考查非谓语动词（不定式作目的状语）。此处“做大量练习”的目的是“打好这项运动”，不定式“To play”可作目的状语，位于句首，符合语境和语法要求。解题关键：区分不定式作目的状语与动名词作主语的用法，牢记“to do sth.”表“为了做某事”。 54. 解析：考查动词时态（一般现在时）及主谓一致。主语“This”（这）是单数，句子描述的是客观情况，需用一般现在时，动词“help”的第三人称单数形式为“helps”，符合要求。解题关键：判断主语单复数，掌握一般现在时第三人称单数动词变形。 55. 解析：考查副词。此处需用副词修饰动词“make”（使、让），“real”（真实的）是形容词，其副词形式为“really”，意为“确实、真正地”，符合语境，能突出轮椅运动的特殊性。解题关键：区分形容词与副词的用法，副词可修饰动词、形容词或整个句子。 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A A This book tells you about different kinds of homes around China. You can read stories about students’ dream flats and houses. It may give you nice ideas to design your own bedroom. B This book is full of warm stories between neighbours. It talks about what people can do in the community centre, how volunteers help neighbours with their problems, and how to make friends with people living around you. C This book shows the great changes of the writer’s hometown. You can read about how it turned into a beautiful modern town and the happy life of people living there. D This book introduces interesting Chinese folk art in an easy way. You can learn about the history of paper-cuts, colourful kites and Chinese knots. It also teaches you to make simple folk art works step by step. 56．Which of the following pictures is the most suitable for the book B? A． B． C． D． Please recommend the books (A-D) to the following people according to their interests. 57．      My name is Lina. I’m wondering how to make my bedroom comfortable. 58．      I am Jerry. I really love traditional Chinese culture. I plan to make simple paper-cuts by myself. 【答案】 56. C 57. A 58. D 【导语】本文为阅读理解（书籍推荐类），重点考查学生的细节理解与信息匹配能力（根据人物兴趣推荐书籍）、推理判断能力（判断文章出处）。文章介绍了四本不同主题的书籍，题目围绕书籍内容与人物需求、图片场景、文章出处展开，贴合初中英语高频考向，注重语篇理解与信息提取能力的考查，难度适中，旨在帮助学生掌握“找关键词、匹配信息”的阅读解题方法。 【解析】 56. 解析：书籍B核心是邻里温暖、社区服务和志愿者帮扶。 57. 解析：考查细节匹配。Lina想让卧室更舒适，书籍A能提供卧室设计的好想法，与她的需求对应，答案为A。 58. 解析：考查细节匹配。Jerry喜欢中国传统文化、想做剪纸，书籍D介绍民间艺术（含剪纸）并教制作方法，答案为D。 B Dear all, We will have a “helping hands” meeting at the community centre from June 6th to June 10th. Do you have any problems in your life? It may help you! City Garden Community Centre (6216-1267) Health Centre Repair-it Group Art Group How is it going these days? Do you want to stay healthy? Do not worry. There are good doctors and nurses here. They can help you.Time at the meeting: June 6th～8th Number: 6216-3256 Are you having problems with your TV or computer? Is your washing machine not working well? Our workers are here to help you with the problems!Time at the meeting: June 7th～9th Number: 6216-7778 Don’t know what to wear to a party or how to make your home beautiful? We have some people to help. All of them know a lot about clothes and colours. They will be happy to give you ideas!Time at the meeting: June 6th, 8th, 10th Number: 6216-5334 59．When can you get health advice at the meeting? A．On June 6th. B．On August 7th. C．On April 6th. D．On July 10th. 60．If your computer doesn’t work, which number can you call? A．6216-1276 B．6216-7778 C．6216-3256 D．6216-5334 61．Tom wants to make his house beautiful. Which group can he ask for help? A．Health Centre. B．Repair-it Group. C．Sports Centre. D．Art Group. 【答案】 59．A 60．B 61．D 【导语】本文主要介绍了城市花园社区中心将在6月6日至10日举办“援助之手”会议，提供健康咨询、家电维修和艺术设计三类服务。 【解析】59．根据表格中“Health Centre”部分“June 6th～8th”可知，6月6日至8日能在会议上得到健康建议。 60．根据表格中“Repair-it Group”部分“Number: 6216-7778”可知，电脑坏了可以拨打6216-7778。 61．根据表格中“Art Group”部分“how to make your home beautiful”可知，美化房屋需联系艺术组。 C Huazhou shadow puppetry (皮影) is a folk art in Weinan, Shaanxi. It has been around for over 2,000 years. The artists there are working hard to make it even better and more popular. At the age of 14, Xue Hongquan began to learn shadow puppetry. Now he makes the puppets bigger and move more like people. He also uses modern art styles together with the traditional ones. In 2015, Xue mad up a group, and the people in this group were young. Together, they made more than 10 new shadow puppetry plays. Most of them were popular with the people. In 2023, they made a play about Ne Zha. It brought shadow puppets, cartoons, and films together. It was a big success (成功). Xue thinks it’s important to keep the old art alive. He did a lot of things to make it come true. At last, Huazhou was given the name of “the hometown of Chinese folk culture and art” in 2021. People there are also working hard to protect Huazhou shadow puppetry. Shaanxi Province teaches people how to do shadow puppetry and Huazhou often puts on shows in the forest park. Many people come to watch the shows. More than 3,000 people get jobs in the shadow puppetry industry (行业) in Huazhou, and they make 30 million yuan every year. “I’m glad that more and more people show great interest in Huazhou shadow puppetry through our plays. I think we have a bright future,” Xue says proudly (自豪地). 62．What did Xue Hongquan do for the puppets? ① Made them bigger. ② Painted them with bright colours. ③ Made them move more like people. ④ Mixed modern art styles with traditional ones. A．①②③ B．①②④ C．②③④ D．①③④ 63．When did the group make a play about Ne Zha? A．In 2015. B．In 2014. C．In 2021. D．In 2023. 64．What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A．It will be hard to see shadow puppetry in the future. B．Xue Hongquan is proud of his work on shadow puppetry. C．No young people are interested in Huazhou shadow puppetry now. D．The play about Ne Zha was not popular with people. 65．What’s the best title of the passage? A．The Hometown of Chinese Folk Art B．Xue Hongquan and His Story C．A Folk Artist D．Huazhou Shadow Puppetry 【答案】62．D 63．D 64．B 65. D 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要介绍了陕西渭南华县皮影这一民间艺术，重点讲述薛宏权对皮影艺术的创新改造，以及当地为传承和推广皮影艺术所做的努力。 【解析】62．文章第二段中“Now he makes the puppets bigger and move more like people. He also uses modern art styles together with the traditional ones.”明确提及薛宏权对皮影的改造，让皮影更大、让皮影动作更像人以及融合现代与传统艺术风格。 63．文章第三段中“In 2023, they made a play about Ne Zha.”清晰记载，直接说明关于哪吒的剧目创作于 2023 年。 64．最后一段薛宏权直言“I’m glad that more and more people show great interest... I think we have a bright future”，直接体现他对皮影创作工作的自豪之情。 65．全文围绕华县皮影这一核心民间艺术展开，从其历史、传承人创新、传承推广举措到发展现状，均围绕该艺术形式展开。D项“华县皮影”能涵盖全文所有内容，是最贴合的标题。 D The new TV drama Meet Yourselves is winning over viewers’ hearts. It not only improves the local tourism (旅游) in Yunnan Province, but also shows some culture in Dali. Let’s take a look at the culture in Dali. Jianchuan wood carving (木雕), from Jianchuan of Dali, has a history of more than 1,000 years. The carvings usually include pictures like flowers, plants and so on. The show also points that the traditional craft of wood carving faces challenges (挑战). The show discusses how machines are replacing (代替) handwork. The machines can save more time and cost less, so the work becomes more efficient and less costly. There are not only crafts (工艺品) shown in the TV drama, but also some local food. Dairy Fan, or rushan, is a kind of food made of milk, yogurt, shaped like a fan. As local delicious food, it’s a must-try food for visitors to Yunnan. The way to make Dairy Fan has been listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage item (省级非物质文化遗产) in 2022. The three tea courses are a tea serving tradition of the Bai ethnic (少数民族的) group. It has been an important tradition during special events such as weddings and festivals. First, boil (煮沸) water and warm the teapot on a gentle fire. After the pot gets hot, put the tea leaves inside. The first course of tea usually smells delicious but tastes bitter. The second course will have sugar in it, which makes it sweet. Finally, the third course will include honey, creating a richer smell. With the development of our country, Chinese culture has spread widely. I believe more and more people will get interested in Chinese culture. 66．What does the underlined word “efficient” in Paragraph 2 mean? A．简单的 B．高效的 C．放松的 D．繁重的 67．Why do people put some honey into three tea course? A．To make it sweet. B．To get rid of the bitterness. C．To add color to the tea. D．To create a richer smell. 68．What can we infer from the passage? A．Visitors to Yunnan seldom leave without eating rushan. B．The machine can’t replace the traditional wood carving. C．The TV drama has brought many bad effects on Yunnan Province. D．Dairy Fan was listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage 3 years ago. 69．Which of the following is the structure of the passage? A．①/②③④/⑤ B．①/②/③④/⑤ C．①②/③④/⑤ D．①/②/③/④⑤ 70. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A popular new TV drama in recent years B. Special local food in Dali, Yunnan C. Traditional culture shown by a popular TV drama D. The history of traditional Chinese handicrafts 【答案】66．B 67．D 68．A 69．A 70. C 【导语】本文主要介绍了电视剧《遇见你》所展现的云南大理地区的传统文化和特色，并强调了该剧对当地旅游和文化传播的积极影响。 【解析】66．文中第二段提到“The machines can save more time and cost less”，说明机器具有节省时间和降低成本的特点，这体现了机器工作的高效性，所以efficient意思是“高效的”。 67．根据第四段“Finally, the third course will include honey, creating a richer smell.”可知，人们往三道茶里加蜂蜜是为了创造更浓郁的香气。 68．根据第三段“As local delicious food, it’s a must-try food for visitors to Yunnan.”可知，去云南的游客很少不吃乳扇就离开。 69．文章第一段引出大理文化的话题；第二段介绍剑川木雕；第三段介绍乳扇；第四段介绍三道茶；第五段总结全文，表达对中国文化传播的信心。因此，文章结构为总-分-总，即第一段为总起，第二、三、四段为分述，第五段为总结。 70. 文章借热播电视剧，介绍大理木雕、乳扇、三道茶等特色传统文化。A 只讲电视剧、B 只讲美食、D 只讲手工艺品，都很片面。只有 C 能概括全文内容。 第二节 阅读表达 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） When we buy a house, we all want to have nice neighbours. But what kind of neighbours are good? First, it is important that our neighbours respect (尊重) our life. If we have a neighbour who tries to know more about our life, how will we feel? He or she may also talk with others about our life. Do you want to live with him or her? The answer is “no”. We will feel sad to have this kind of neighbour and we may want to move as quickly as we can. Next, a good neighbour is always ready to give us a hand when we need him or her. For example, if we are not at home and someone tries to open our door, our neighbours will see it and call the police. It will help us a lot. Finally, a good neighbour should protect the environment. He or she never throws rubbish everywhere and should keep the place clean. A good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. I think we should learn to be a good neighbour, and I also hope everyone will have good neighbours and live a happy life. 71．If your neighbour doesn’t respect you, how will you feel? 72．What will a good neighbour do when someone tries to open our door when we are not at home? 73．What is a good neighbour always ready to do? 74．Why should good neighbours protect the environment? 75．Do you think being a good neighbour is important? If you want to be a good neighbour, what should you do? 【答案】 71．Sad./I will feel sad. 72. Call the police. 73. To give others a hand when they need help./A good neighbour is always ready to give others a hand when they need him or her. 74. Because a good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. 75. Yes, I do. To be a good neighbour, we should be friendly and helpful to others. 【导语】本文主要围绕“什么是好邻居”展开论述，从尊重隐私、乐于助人、保护环境三个方面阐述了好邻居应具备的品质，并呼吁大家努力成为好邻居。 【解析】71．根据“We will feel sad to have this kind of neighbour…”可知，如果邻居不尊重你，你会感到难过。故填Sad./I will feel sad. 72．根据“…if we are not at home and someone tries to open our door, our neighbours will see it and call the police.”可知，好邻居发现异常情况时会帮忙报警。故填Call the police. 73．根据“Next, a good neighbour is always ready to give us a hand when we need him or her.”可知，好邻居总是乐于在我们需要时提供帮助。故填To give others a hand when they need help./A good neighbour is always ready to give others a hand when they need him or her. 74．根据“A good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time.”可知，好环境让人舒适快乐，因此好邻居应保护环境。故填Because a good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. 75．谈谈你认为做一个好邻居重要吗，再结合文中提到的品质简要说明做法。故填Yes, I do. To be a good neighbour, we should be friendly and helpful to others. 第四部分 情景交际 (满分10分) 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hello!This is Eric. 76 B: Yes, this is Lucy speaking. A: I am thinking about the birthday gift for Mike. 77 B: I bought a model plane as a gift for him.You know that he is good at making models. A: Wow, I believe Mike will love it.But I have no idea about the gift. 78 B: Sure.Maybe you can make a card to wish Mike happy birthday. A: 79 But I am not good at drawing. B: Don’t worry.I can help you with drawing, but you need to prepare paper and coloured pencils.Then we can do it together tomorrow. A: Thank you very much! B: 80 【答案】76．Is that Lucy? 77．What did you buy? 78．Can you give me some suggestions? 79．That’s a good idea. 80．You’re welcome. 【导语】本文是Eric和Lucy之间的对话，Eric在考虑给Mike的生日礼物，Lucy给出了自己的建议并主动提出帮忙。 【解析】76．根据答语“Yes, this is Lucy speaking.”可知，此处是Eric在确认对方是否是Lucy。故填Is that Lucy? 77．根据答语“I bought a model plane as a gift for him.”可知，此处是Eric在询问Lucy给Mike买了什么礼物。故填What did you buy? 78．根据答语“Sure. Maybe you can make a card to wish Mike happy birthday.”可知，此处是Eric在向Lucy寻求关于礼物的建议。故填Can you give me some suggestions? 79．根据前文“Maybe you can make a card to wish Mike happy birthday.”和后文“But I am not good at drawing.”可知，Eric觉得Lucy提出的建议很好，但是自己不擅长画画。故填That’s a good idea. 80．根据前文“Thank you very much!”可知，此处是Lucy对Eric的感谢作出回应。故填You’re welcome. 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81. 假如你是李华，你的交换生朋友Kevin很喜欢你亲手做的小礼物，他来信询问制作过程，请你给他回一封信。 内容包括：1. 你送的礼物是什么；2. 你送此礼物的原因；3. 制作的方法或过程。 注意：1. 词数60左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数； 2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息。 Dear Kevin, I’m glad that you like the small gift I made by myself. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 【例文】Dear Kevin, I’m glad that you like the small gift I made by myself. As the Dragon Boat Festival was coming, I decided to make a xiangbao for you. It’s said that it can bring good luck and keep people healthy. We believe it will bring us good luck. I prepared some strings and a small bag that looks like a rice dumpling. I also collected some aicao. Then, I put the aicao into the bag and tied it with the strings. Next time you come to China, I’ll show you how to make it. It’s very easy and enjoyable. Yours, Li Hua [总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇应用文，为书信作文； ②时态：时态主要为“一般现在时”和“一般过去时”； ③提示：需说明礼物名称、赠送原因及制作步骤。 [写作步骤] 第一步，表达得知对方喜欢自己亲手做的小礼物时的开心心情； 第二步，介绍端午节香囊的习俗与寓意，并说明为对方制作香囊的缘由； 第三步，描述制作香囊的具体材料和步骤； 第四步，发出邀请，承诺下次来中国时教对方制作香囊。 [亮点词汇] ①look like看起来像 ②next time下一次 ③string细绳 [高分句型] ①We believe it can bring us good luck. (宾语从句) ②As the Dragon Boat Festival was coming, I decided to make a xiangbao for you. (as引导的时间状语从句) 试卷第6页，共7页 1 / 15 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版） 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 准考证号： 贴条形码区 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名，准考证号填写清楚，并认真核准 考生禁填： 缺考标记 ▣ 条形码上的姓名、准考证号，在规定位置贴好条形码。 违纪标记 口 2. 选择题必须用2B铅笔填涂：非选择题必须用0.5m黑色签字笔 以上标志由监考人员用2B铅笔填涂 答题，不得用铅笔或圆珠笔答题；字体工整、笔迹清晰。 3.请按题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出区域书写的答案 选择题填涂样例： 无效：在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 正确填涂■ 4. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破。 错误填涂[]【√1【/1 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 1[A][B]IC] 6.[A][B]IC] 11[A][B]IC] 16.[A][B][C] 2.A][B1[C] 7A]IBJIC] 12.A]IB][C1 17.A1[BJ[C] 3.[A][B][C] 8[A][B][C] 13.[A][B][C] 18[A][B][C] 4[A][B][C] 9[A][B][C] 14.[A][B][C] 19.[A][B][C] 5.[A][B]IC] 10.[A][B][C] 15.[A][B][C] 20.[A][B][C] 21[A][B][C] 31[A][B][C][D] 36.[A][B][C][D] 56.[A][B][C][D] 22.[AJ[B][C] 32[AI[B][CI[D] 37[A][B]ICJ[D] 57[A]IB]ICIID] 23.A1IB1[C1 33.[A][B][C][D] 38.[A][BIICI[DI 58[A]IB][C]ID] 24A1[B1IC1 34[A][B]IC][D] 39.[A][B]ICI[D] 59.[A][B][CIID] 25.[A][BIICI 35.[AJ[B][CI[D] 40.[A][B]ICIID] 60.[A][B][C][D] 61.[A][B][C][D] 66.[A][B]IC][D] 62.[A][B]IC]ID] 67[A][B][C][D] 63.[A][B][C][D] 68.[A][B][C][D] 64[A][B][C][D] 69.A1[B1[C1ID] 65.[A][B][C][D] 70.[A][B]IC][D] 非选择题（请用各试题区内的区域作答） 第一部分听力第四节听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 27. 28 29 30 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 1/2 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请用各试题区内的区域作答） 第二部分语言运用第二节短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 41 42. 43 44. 45. 46. 47. 48 49 50. 51. 52. 54. 55 第三部分阅读第二节阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 71. 72. 73 74. 75 第四部分情景交际补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76 77. 78 79. 80. 第五部分写作（满分15分） Dear Kevin, I'm glad that you like the small gift I made by myself. Yours, T: 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 2/2………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版） 英语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5．测试范围：七年级下册Units 5~6（新教材冀教版）。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A．I think so. B．Yes, they are. C．That’s all right. 2．A．Yes, please. B．I don’t mind. C．Sounds good. 3．A．No, I don’t. B．They are strong. C．I’m drawing a tiger. 4．A．Art. B．Very interesting. C．I like football best. 5．A．I am fine. B．By bus. C．It’s near. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6．What are the flowers made of? A． B． C． 7．What’s in the man’s neighbourhood? A． B． C． ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8．Why did Anna move to the neighbourhood? A．To spend her holiday. B．To work in a bank. C．To start school. 9．What does John invite Anna to do on Sunday? A．Visit other neighbours. B．Join in his birthday party. C．Join in a party for the neighbours. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10．Where do Mike and Lisa want to go this afternoon? A．To the bookstore. B．To the library. C．To the post office. 11．How will Lisa and Mike go there? A．By bike. B．By subway. C．By bus. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 12．How was Linda’s weekend? A．Exciting. B．Busy. C．Boring. 13．What did Ben do on the weekend? A．He played basketball. B．He had a party. C．He went to the shop. 14．What can we know about Paul and Cathy? A．Cathy helped the farmers pick pears. B．Paul watched TV about robots. C．Cathy was busy on the weekend. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 15．When did Lucy go to China? A．Last Wednesday. B．Last Saturday. C．Last Sunday. 16．How long did Lucy sleep after the trip? A．For two days. B．For two hours. C．For three days. 17．Who is Lucy’s report about? A．Marco Polo. B．Yao Ming. C．Zhang Gui mei. 18．Where will they go? A．To the school. B．To the library. C．To the classroom. 第3节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19．Where is Tom probably now? A．In the classroom. B．In the library. C．At the school radio station. 20．How often does Tom have P.E. lessons now? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Every day. 21．Why does Tom like basketball best? A．It helps make friends and relax. B．It is easy for him to learn. C．It builds his body and mind. 22．Why does Tom think his team is the best? A．They always win. B．They are friends. C．They work together. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 23．When does Suzy get up on Sundays? A．At 6:40 a.m. B．At 7:20 a.m. C．At 7:40 a.m. 24．What club does Suzy go to on Saturdays? A．The drama club. B．The chess club. C．The music club. 25．Which place does Suzy say is great? A．The park. B．The farm. C．The cinema. 第四节 听短文填空 (共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分) Sugar Painting History It has a history of around five 26 years. Shapes It is 27 made into different shapes, like animals and flowers. Past Sugar painting was so 28 that it was popular in many places. Now There are not many sugar painting 29 because the skills are difficult to learn. Hope Our country will 30 it 第二部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 It’s important for everyone to have a good neighbour. In China, there is a saying that a near neighbour is better than a distant relative. I agree with it 31 , from my experience (经历), I think it’s 32 for each one to have a good neighbour. First, a good neighbour is a good friend. One winter day when our family moved to a new house, our neighbours helped us to 33 some furniture (家具) and told us something 34 this neighbourhood. They invited all members of 35 family to their home to have a hot drink. They 36 us feel comfortable here. Next, a good neighbour is a good relative. When we travel, our neighbours 37 take care of our house and keep the letters for us. When they 38 , we also help them as they do. In the new neighbourhood, we always 39 each other. We are just like good relatives. Finally, I get an important 40 from our neighbours that having a good neighbour is being a good neighbour yourself. 31．A．so B．and C．but D．because 32．A．easy B．hard C．important D．expensive 33．A．bring B．take C．carry D．cut 34．A．about B．on C．at D．in 35．A．my B．your C．his D．their 36．A．helped B．made C．needed D．asked 37．A．seldom B．never C．always D．sometimes 38．A．travel B．study C．sleep D．shop 39．A．see B．help C．chat D．call 40．A．video B．card C．present D．lesson 第二节 短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Hey there! When you hear the word “wheelchairs (轮椅)”, what do you think of? They are always for those people 41 need? Maybe. But guess what! In our P.E. class at Big Rapids Middle School, students get to use wheelchairs for some 42 (activity). It’s not because all of 43 （we）can’t walk. Instead, we do this 44 it’s a good way to play sports and try to understand others. My classmate Chase Fuller 45 (have) to use a wheelchair every day. But he doesn’t let it 46 (slow) him down and he loves to play wheelchair basketball. Because of this, 47 (we) P.E. teacher Ms. Douglass got the idea of 48 (bring) wheelchair sports into classes. Her goal is 49 (make) sure every student can join in sports activities in class. She encourages us to try new sports in 50 wheelchair. We have activities like wheelchair basketball 51 wheelchair volleyball. And my favourite one 52 (be) wheelchair football. 53 (play) it well, I have to do a lot of practice in the wheelchair. This 54 (help) me understand what life is like for those in a wheelchair. Wheelchair sports 55 (real) make our P.E. class special and fun for everyone! 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A A This book tells you about different kinds of homes around China. You can read stories about students’ dream flats and houses. It may give you nice ideas to design your own bedroom. B This book is full of warm stories between neighbours. It talks about what people can do in the community centre, how volunteers help neighbours with their problems, and how to make friends with people living around you. C This book shows the great changes of the writer’s hometown. You can read about how it turned into a beautiful modern town and the happy life of people living there. D This book introduces interesting Chinese folk art in an easy way. You can learn about the history of paper-cuts, colourful kites and Chinese knots. It also teaches you to make simple folk art works step by step. 56．Which of the following pictures is the most suitable for the book B? A． B． C． D． Please recommend the books (A-D) to the following people according to their interests. 57．    My name is Lina. I’m wondering how to make my bedroom comfortable. 58．     I am Jerry. I really love traditional Chinese culture. I plan to make simple paper-cuts by myself. B Dear all, We will have a “helping hands” meeting at the community centre from June 6th to June 10th. Do you have any problems in your life? It may help you! City Garden Community Centre (6216-1267) Health Centre Repair-it Group Art Group How is it going these days? Do you want to stay healthy? Do not worry. There are good doctors and nurses here. They can help you.Time at the meeting: June 6th～8th Number: 6216-3256 Are you having problems with your TV or computer? Is your washing machine not working well? Our workers are here to help you with the problems!Time at the meeting: June 7th～9th Number: 6216-7778 Don’t know what to wear to a party or how to make your home beautiful? We have some people to help. All of them know a lot about clothes and colours. They will be happy to give you ideas!Time at the meeting: June 6th, 8th, 10th Number: 6216-5334 59．When can you get health advice at the meeting? A．On June 6th. B．On August 7th. C．On April 6th. D．On July 10th. 60．If your computer doesn’t work, which number can you call? A．6216-1276 B．6216-7778 C．6216-3256 D．6216-5334 61．Tom wants to make his house beautiful. Which group can he ask for help? A．Health Centre. B．Repair-it Group. C．Sports Centre. D．Art Group. C Huazhou shadow puppetry (皮影) is a folk art in Weinan, Shaanxi. It has been around for over 2,000 years. The artists there are working hard to make it even better and more popular. At the age of 14, Xue Hongquan began to learn shadow puppetry. Now he makes the puppets bigger and move more like people. He also uses modern art styles together with the traditional ones. In 2015, Xue mad up a group, and the people in this group were young. Together, they made more than 10 new shadow puppetry plays. Most of them were popular with the people. In 2023, they made a play about Ne Zha. It brought shadow puppets, cartoons, and films together. It was a big success (成功). Xue thinks it’s important to keep the old art alive. He did a lot of things to make it come true. At last, Huazhou was given the name of “the hometown of Chinese folk culture and art” in 2021. People there are also working hard to protect Huazhou shadow puppetry. Shaanxi Province teaches people how to do shadow puppetry and Huazhou often puts on shows in the forest park. Many people come to watch the shows. More than 3,000 people get jobs in the shadow puppetry industry (行业) in Huazhou, and they make 30 million yuan every year. “I’m glad that more and more people show great interest in Huazhou shadow puppetry through our plays. I think we have a bright future,” Xue says proudly (自豪地). 62．What did Xue Hongquan do for the puppets? ① Made them bigger. ② Painted them with bright colours. ③ Made them move more like people. ④ Mixed modern art styles with traditional ones. A．①②③ B．①②④ C．②③④ D．①③④ 63．When did the group make a play about Ne Zha? A．In 2015. B．In 2014. C．In 2021. D．In 2023. 64．What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A．It will be hard to see shadow puppetry in the future. B．Xue Hongquan is proud of his work on shadow puppetry. C．No young people are interested in Huazhou shadow puppetry now. D．The play about Ne Zha was not popular with people. 65．What’s the best title of the passage? A．The Hometown of Chinese Folk Art B．Xue Hongquan and His Story C．A Folk Artist D．Huazhou Shadow Puppetry D The new TV drama Meet Yourselves is winning over viewers’ hearts. It not only improves the local tourism (旅游) in Yunnan Province, but also shows some culture in Dali. Let’s take a look at the culture in Dali. Jianchuan wood carving (木雕), from Jianchuan of Dali, has a history of more than 1,000 years. The carvings usually include pictures like flowers, plants and so on. The show also points that the traditional craft of wood carving faces challenges (挑战). The show discusses how machines are replacing (代替) handwork. The machines can save more time and cost less, so the work becomes more efficient and less costly. There are not only crafts (工艺品) shown in the TV drama, but also some local food. Dairy Fan, or rushan, is a kind of food made of milk, yogurt, shaped like a fan. As local delicious food, it’s a must-try food for visitors to Yunnan. The way to make Dairy Fan has been listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage item (省级非物质文化遗产) in 2022. The three tea courses are a tea serving tradition of the Bai ethnic (少数民族的) group. It has been an important tradition during special events such as weddings and festivals. First, boil (煮沸) water and warm the teapot on a gentle fire. After the pot gets hot, put the tea leaves inside. The first course of tea usually smells delicious but tastes bitter. The second course will have sugar in it, which makes it sweet. Finally, the third course will include honey, creating a richer smell. With the development of our country, Chinese culture has spread widely. I believe more and more people will get interested in Chinese culture. 66．What does the underlined word “efficient” in Paragraph 2 mean? A．简单的 B．高效的 C．放松的 D．繁重的 67．Why do people put some honey into three tea course? A．To make it sweet. B．To get rid of the bitterness. C．To add color to the tea. D．To create a richer smell. 68．What can we infer from the passage? A．Visitors to Yunnan seldom leave without eating rushan. B．The machine can’t replace the traditional wood carving. C．The TV drama has brought many bad effects on Yunnan Province. D．Dairy Fan was listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage 3 years ago. 69．Which of the following is the structure of the passage? A．①/②③④/⑤ B．①/②/③④/⑤ C．①②/③④/⑤ D．①/②/③/④⑤ 70. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A popular new TV drama in recent years B. Special local food in Dali, Yunnan C. Traditional culture shown by a popular TV drama D. The history of traditional Chinese handicrafts 第二节 阅读表达 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） When we buy a house, we all want to have nice neighbours. But what kind of neighbours are good? First, it is important that our neighbours respect (尊重) our life. If we have a neighbour who tries to know more about our life, how will we feel? He or she may also talk with others about our life. Do you want to live with him or her? The answer is “no”. We will feel sad to have this kind of neighbour and we may want to move as quickly as we can. Next, a good neighbour is always ready to give us a hand when we need him or her. For example, if we are not at home and someone tries to open our door, our neighbours will see it and call the police. It will help us a lot. Finally, a good neighbour should protect the environment. He or she never throws rubbish everywhere and should keep the place clean. A good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. I think we should learn to be a good neighbour, and I also hope everyone will have good neighbours and live a happy life. 71．If your neighbour doesn’t respect you, how will you feel? 72．What will a good neighbour do when someone tries to open our door when we are not at home? 73．What is a good neighbour always ready to do? 74．Why should good neighbours protect the environment? 75．Do you think being a good neighbour is important? If you want to be a good neighbour, what should you do? 第四部分 情景交际 (满分10分) 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hello!This is Eric. 76 B: Yes, this is Lucy speaking. A: I am thinking about the birthday gift for Mike. 77 B: I bought a model plane as a gift for him.You know that he is good at making models. A: Wow, I believe Mike will love it.But I have no idea about the gift. 78 B: Sure.Maybe you can make a card to wish Mike happy birthday. A: 79 But I am not good at drawing. B: Don’t worry.I can help you with drawing, but you need to prepare paper and coloured pencils.Then we can do it together tomorrow. A: Thank you very much! B: 80 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81. 假如你是李华，你的交换生朋友Kevin很喜欢你亲手做的小礼物，他来信询问制作过程，请你给他回一封信。内容包括：1. 你送的礼物是什么；2. 你送此礼物的原因；3. 制作的方法或过程。 注意：1. 词数60左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名校名等信息。 Dear Kevin, I’m glad that you like the small gift I made by myself.____________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 试题 第7页（共8页） 试题 第8页（共8页） 试题 第5页（共8页） 试题 第6页（共8页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版） 英语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5．测试范围：七年级下册Units 5~6（新教材冀教版）。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A．I think so. B．Yes, they are. C．That’s all right. 2．A．Yes, please. B．I don’t mind. C．Sounds good. 3．A．No, I don’t. B．They are strong. C．I’m drawing a tiger. 4．A．Art. B．Very interesting. C．I like football best. 5．A．I am fine. B．By bus. C．It’s near. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6．What are the flowers made of? A． B． C． 7．What’s in the man’s neighbourhood? A． B． C． ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8．Why did Anna move to the neighbourhood? A．To spend her holiday. B．To work in a bank. C．To start school. 9．What does John invite Anna to do on Sunday? A．Visit other neighbours. B．Join in his birthday party. C．Join in a party for the neighbours. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10．Where do Mike and Lisa want to go this afternoon? A．To the bookstore. B．To the library. C．To the post office. 11．How will Lisa and Mike go there? A．By bike. B．By subway. C．By bus. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 12．How was Linda’s weekend? A．Exciting. B．Busy. C．Boring. 13．What did Ben do on the weekend? A．He played basketball. B．He had a party. C．He went to the shop. 14．What can we know about Paul and Cathy? A．Cathy helped the farmers pick pears. B．Paul watched TV about robots. C．Cathy was busy on the weekend. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 15．When did Lucy go to China? A．Last Wednesday. B．Last Saturday. C．Last Sunday. 16．How long did Lucy sleep after the trip? A．For two days. B．For two hours. C．For three days. 17．Who is Lucy’s report about? A．Marco Polo. B．Yao Ming. C．Zhang Gui mei. 18．Where will they go? A．To the school. B．To the library. C．To the classroom. 第3节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19．Where is Tom probably now? A．In the classroom. B．In the library. C．At the school radio station. 20．How often does Tom have P.E. lessons now? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Every day. 21．Why does Tom like basketball best? A．It helps make friends and relax. B．It is easy for him to learn. C．It builds his body and mind. 22．Why does Tom think his team is the best? A．They always win. B．They are friends. C．They work together. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 23．When does Suzy get up on Sundays? A．At 6:40 a.m. B．At 7:20 a.m. C．At 7:40 a.m. 24．What club does Suzy go to on Saturdays? A．The drama club. B．The chess club. C．The music club. 25．Which place does Suzy say is great? A．The park. B．The farm. C．The cinema. 第四节 听短文填空 (共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分) Sugar Painting History It has a history of around five 26 years. Shapes It is 27 made into different shapes, like animals and flowers. Past Sugar painting was so 28 that it was popular in many places. Now There are not many sugar painting 29 because the skills are difficult to learn. Hope Our country will 30 it 第二部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 It’s important for everyone to have a good neighbour. In China, there is a saying that a near neighbour is better than a distant relative. I agree with it 31 , from my experience (经历), I think it’s 32 for each one to have a good neighbour. First, a good neighbour is a good friend. One winter day when our family moved to a new house, our neighbours helped us to 33 some furniture (家具) and told us something 34 this neighbourhood. They invited all members of 35 family to their home to have a hot drink. They 36 us feel comfortable here. Next, a good neighbour is a good relative. When we travel, our neighbours 37 take care of our house and keep the letters for us. When they 38 , we also help them as they do. In the new neighbourhood, we always 39 each other. We are just like good relatives. Finally, I get an important 40 from our neighbours that having a good neighbour is being a good neighbour yourself. 31．A．so B．and C．but D．because 32．A．easy B．hard C．important D．expensive 33．A．bring B．take C．carry D．cut 34．A．about B．on C．at D．in 35．A．my B．your C．his D．their 36．A．helped B．made C．needed D．asked 37．A．seldom B．never C．always D．sometimes 38．A．travel B．study C．sleep D．shop 39．A．see B．help C．chat D．call 40．A．video B．card C．present D．lesson 第二节 短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15 分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Hey there! When you hear the word “wheelchairs (轮椅)”, what do you think of? They are always for those people 41 need? Maybe. But guess what! In our P.E. class at Big Rapids Middle School, students get to use wheelchairs for some 42 (activity). It’s not because all of 43 （we）can’t walk. Instead, we do this 44 it’s a good way to play sports and try to understand others. My classmate Chase Fuller 45 (have) to use a wheelchair every day. But he doesn’t let it 46 (slow) him down and he loves to play wheelchair basketball. Because of this, 47 (we) P.E. teacher Ms. Douglass got the idea of 48 (bring) wheelchair sports into classes. Her goal is 49 (make) sure every student can join in sports activities in class. She encourages us to try new sports in 50 wheelchair. We have activities like wheelchair basketball 51 wheelchair volleyball. And my favourite one 52 (be) wheelchair football. 53 (play) it well, I have to do a lot of practice in the wheelchair. This 54 (help) me understand what life is like for those in a wheelchair. Wheelchair sports 55 (real) make our P.E. class special and fun for everyone! 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A A This book tells you about different kinds of homes around China. You can read stories about students’ dream flats and houses. It may give you nice ideas to design your own bedroom. B This book is full of warm stories between neighbours. It talks about what people can do in the community centre, how volunteers help neighbours with their problems, and how to make friends with people living around you. C This book shows the great changes of the writer’s hometown. You can read about how it turned into a beautiful modern town and the happy life of people living there. D This book introduces interesting Chinese folk art in an easy way. You can learn about the history of paper-cuts, colourful kites and Chinese knots. It also teaches you to make simple folk art works step by step. 56．Which of the following pictures is the most suitable for the book B? A． B． C． D． Please recommend the books (A-D) to the following people according to their interests. 57．    My name is Lina. I’m wondering how to make my bedroom comfortable. 58．     I am Jerry. I really love traditional Chinese culture. I plan to make simple paper-cuts by myself. B Dear all, We will have a “helping hands” meeting at the community centre from June 6th to June 10th. Do you have any problems in your life? It may help you! City Garden Community Centre (6216-1267) Health Centre Repair-it Group Art Group How is it going these days? Do you want to stay healthy? Do not worry. There are good doctors and nurses here. They can help you.Time at the meeting: June 6th～8th Number: 6216-3256 Are you having problems with your TV or computer? Is your washing machine not working well? Our workers are here to help you with the problems!Time at the meeting: June 7th～9th Number: 6216-7778 Don’t know what to wear to a party or how to make your home beautiful? We have some people to help. All of them know a lot about clothes and colours. They will be happy to give you ideas!Time at the meeting: June 6th, 8th, 10th Number: 6216-5334 59．When can you get health advice at the meeting? A．On June 6th. B．On August 7th. C．On April 6th. D．On July 10th. 60．If your computer doesn’t work, which number can you call? A．6216-1276 B．6216-7778 C．6216-3256 D．6216-5334 61．Tom wants to make his house beautiful. Which group can he ask for help? A．Health Centre. B．Repair-it Group. C．Sports Centre. D．Art Group. C Huazhou shadow puppetry (皮影) is a folk art in Weinan, Shaanxi. It has been around for over 2,000 years. The artists there are working hard to make it even better and more popular. At the age of 14, Xue Hongquan began to learn shadow puppetry. Now he makes the puppets bigger and move more like people. He also uses modern art styles together with the traditional ones. In 2015, Xue mad up a group, and the people in this group were young. Together, they made more than 10 new shadow puppetry plays. Most of them were popular with the people. In 2023, they made a play about Ne Zha. It brought shadow puppets, cartoons, and films together. It was a big success (成功). Xue thinks it’s important to keep the old art alive. He did a lot of things to make it come true. At last, Huazhou was given the name of “the hometown of Chinese folk culture and art” in 2021. People there are also working hard to protect Huazhou shadow puppetry. Shaanxi Province teaches people how to do shadow puppetry and Huazhou often puts on shows in the forest park. Many people come to watch the shows. More than 3,000 people get jobs in the shadow puppetry industry (行业) in Huazhou, and they make 30 million yuan every year. “I’m glad that more and more people show great interest in Huazhou shadow puppetry through our plays. I think we have a bright future,” Xue says proudly (自豪地). 62．What did Xue Hongquan do for the puppets? ① Made them bigger. ② Painted them with bright colours. ③ Made them move more like people. ④ Mixed modern art styles with traditional ones. A．①②③ B．①②④ C．②③④ D．①③④ 63．When did the group make a play about Ne Zha? A．In 2015. B．In 2014. C．In 2021. D．In 2023. 64．What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A．It will be hard to see shadow puppetry in the future. B．Xue Hongquan is proud of his work on shadow puppetry. C．No young people are interested in Huazhou shadow puppetry now. D．The play about Ne Zha was not popular with people. 65．What’s the best title of the passage? A．The Hometown of Chinese Folk Art B．Xue Hongquan and His Story C．A Folk Artist D．Huazhou Shadow Puppetry D The new TV drama Meet Yourselves is winning over viewers’ hearts. It not only improves the local tourism (旅游) in Yunnan Province, but also shows some culture in Dali. Let’s take a look at the culture in Dali. Jianchuan wood carving (木雕), from Jianchuan of Dali, has a history of more than 1,000 years. The carvings usually include pictures like flowers, plants and so on. The show also points that the traditional craft of wood carving faces challenges (挑战). The show discusses how machines are replacing (代替) handwork. The machines can save more time and cost less, so the work becomes more efficient and less costly. There are not only crafts (工艺品) shown in the TV drama, but also some local food. Dairy Fan, or rushan, is a kind of food made of milk, yogurt, shaped like a fan. As local delicious food, it’s a must-try food for visitors to Yunnan. The way to make Dairy Fan has been listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage item (省级非物质文化遗产) in 2022. The three tea courses are a tea serving tradition of the Bai ethnic (少数民族的) group. It has been an important tradition during special events such as weddings and festivals. First, boil (煮沸) water and warm the teapot on a gentle fire. After the pot gets hot, put the tea leaves inside. The first course of tea usually smells delicious but tastes bitter. The second course will have sugar in it, which makes it sweet. Finally, the third course will include honey, creating a richer smell. With the development of our country, Chinese culture has spread widely. I believe more and more people will get interested in Chinese culture. 66．What does the underlined word “efficient” in Paragraph 2 mean? A．简单的 B．高效的 C．放松的 D．繁重的 67．Why do people put some honey into three tea course? A．To make it sweet. B．To get rid of the bitterness. C．To add color to the tea. D．To create a richer smell. 68．What can we infer from the passage? A．Visitors to Yunnan seldom leave without eating rushan. B．The machine can’t replace the traditional wood carving. C．The TV drama has brought many bad effects on Yunnan Province. D．Dairy Fan was listed as a provincial intangible cultural heritage 3 years ago. 69．Which of the following is the structure of the passage? A．①/②③④/⑤ B．①/②/③④/⑤ C．①②/③④/⑤ D．①/②/③/④⑤ 70. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A popular new TV drama in recent years B. Special local food in Dali, Yunnan C. Traditional culture shown by a popular TV drama D. The history of traditional Chinese handicrafts 第二节 阅读表达 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） When we buy a house, we all want to have nice neighbours. But what kind of neighbours are good? First, it is important that our neighbours respect (尊重) our life. If we have a neighbour who tries to know more about our life, how will we feel? He or she may also talk with others about our life. Do you want to live with him or her? The answer is “no”. We will feel sad to have this kind of neighbour and we may want to move as quickly as we can. Next, a good neighbour is always ready to give us a hand when we need him or her. For example, if we are not at home and someone tries to open our door, our neighbours will see it and call the police. It will help us a lot. Finally, a good neighbour should protect the environment. He or she never throws rubbish everywhere and should keep the place clean. A good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. I think we should learn to be a good neighbour, and I also hope everyone will have good neighbours and live a happy life. 71．If your neighbour doesn’t respect you, how will you feel? 72．What will a good neighbour do when someone tries to open our door when we are not at home? 73．What is a good neighbour always ready to do? 74．Why should good neighbours protect the environment? 75．Do you think being a good neighbour is important? If you want to be a good neighbour, what should you do? 第四部分 情景交际 (满分10分) 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hello!This is Eric. 76 B: Yes, this is Lucy speaking. A: I am thinking about the birthday gift for Mike. 77 B: I bought a model plane as a gift for him.You know that he is good at making models. A: Wow, I believe Mike will love it.But I have no idea about the gift. 78 B: Sure.Maybe you can make a card to wish Mike happy birthday. A: 79 But I am not good at drawing. B: Don’t worry.I can help you with drawing, but you need to prepare paper and coloured pencils.Then we can do it together tomorrow. A: Thank you very much! B: 80 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81. 假如你是李华，你的交换生朋友Kevin很喜欢你亲手做的小礼物，他来信询问制作过程，请你给他回一封信。内容包括：1. 你送的礼物是什么；2. 你送此礼物的原因；3. 制作的方法或过程。 注意：1. 词数60左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名校名等信息。 Dear Kevin, I’m glad that you like the small gift I made by myself.____________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 试卷第6页，共7页 1 / 15 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版） 英语·参考答案 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 A C A A B A A B C A B C B 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 C B A A B C C A C C A A 26． hundred 27．usually 28．interesting 29．artists 30．protect 第二部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D C C A A B C A B D 第二节 短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15 分） 41. who/that 42. activities 43. us 44. because 45. has 46. slow 47. our 48. bringing 49. to make 50. a 51. and 52. is 53. To play 54. helps 55. really 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30 分） 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 C A D A B D D D B D 66 67 68 69 70 B D A A C 第二节 阅读表达 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 71．Sad./I will feel sad. 72.Call the police. 73.To give others a hand when they need help./A good neighbour is always ready to give others a hand when they need him or her. 74.Because a good environment can make people comfortable and feel happy all the time. 75.Yes, I do. To be a good neighbour, we should be friendly and helpful to others.答案合理即可。 第四部分 情景交际 (满分10分) 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76．Is that Lucy? 77．What did you buy? 78．Can you give me some suggestions? 79．That’s a good idea. 80．You’re welcome.答案合理即可。 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81. One possible version Dear Kevin, I’m glad that you like the small gift I made by myself. As the Dragon Boat Festival was coming, I decided to make a xiangbao for you. It’s said that it can bring good luck and keep people healthy. We believe it will bring us good luck. I prepared some strings and a small bag that looks like a rice dumpling. I also collected some aicao. Then, I put the aicao into the bag and tied it with the strings. Next time you come to China, I’ll show you how to make it. It’s very easy and enjoyable. Yours, Li Hua 答案第2页，共2页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司1 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。Your neighborhood is so nice . and clean. Your neighborhood is so nice and clean. Listen to the next question. What about going to the Taylor shop this weekend? What about going to the Taylor shop this weekend? Listen to the next question. Do you like tigers? Do you like . tigers? Listen to the next question. what subject do you like best? What subject do you like best? Listen to the next question. How do you come over to visit your grandparents? How do you come over to visit your grandparents? Listen to the next . question. Hi Linda, what beautiful flowers did you pick . them in the garden? Oh no. They're made of silk. They're similar to . real flowers. Question, what are the flowers made of? Hi Linda, what beautiful flowers did you pick . them in the garden? Oh, no, they're made of silk. They're similar to real flowers. Question, what are the flowers made of? Listen to the next question. Do you like your neighborhood? Yes, IT is beautiful, and there is a Bakery in IT. It's my favorite question. What's in the man's neighborhood? Do you like your . neighborhood? Yes, IT is beautiful, and there is a Bakery in IT. It's my . favorite question. What's in the man's neighborhood? Listen to the next question. Nice to meet you. My name is anna. I moved here because I found a job in a bank. Nice to meet you. I'm john. Welcome to our neighborhood. It's a nice neighborhood. Yes, we get on well with each other. I'm going to have a party this sunday for all the neighbors. Would you like to come? I'd love to. That will be fun. great. IT will start IT to see you then. Nice to meet you. My name is hanna. I moved here because I found a job in a bank. Nice to meet you. I'm john. Welcome to our neighborhood. It's a nice neighborhood. Yes, we get on well with each other. I'm going to have a party this sunday for other neighbors. Would you like to come? I'd love to. That will be fun. great. IT will start IT to see you then. Listen to the next . question. Hello, lisa. Hello, mike. This afternoon i'll go to the bookstore and buy some books. Would you like to go with me? Yes, i'd love to. But I don't know how far IT is from my home to the bookstore. Um it's about three kilometers. Let's take the subway there. All right. Hello, lisa. Hello. mike. This . afternoon i'll go to the bookstore and buy some books. Would you like to go with me? Yes, i'd love to. But I don't know how far IT is from my to the bookstore. It's about three kilometers. Let's take the subway there. all right? Listen to the next . question. Hi Linda. How was your weekend? IT was boring. I went to the museum. IT was so hot, there were too many people there. What about you then? Oh, we had a party for Henry IT wants his thirteen th birthday . was IT great. Yeah, we had a great time. What did your brother paul do? He learned about the robots. and IT was exciting. How about your sisters? H. M. M. Cathy, weekend was busy. SHE went shopping with my parents, and I might help the farmers pick pairs. Hi Linda, how was your weekend? IT was boring. I went to the museum. IT was so hot, there were too many people there. What about you then? Oh, we had a party for Henry IT was his thirteenth birthday. Was IT great? Yeah, we had a great time. What did your brother pon do? He learned about the robots. and IT was exciting. How about your sisters? H. M. And Kathy? Weekend was busy. SHE went shopping with my parents, and you might help the farmers pick pairs. Listen to the next question. Did you go to china last saturday? Yes, I did. Did you . have . a good rest after the trip? Lucy. yes, I slept for two days. Danny. you must feel good now. Yes, you're right. By the way. are you ready for your report? Yes, I will talk about marco . polo is a good idea. I will go to the library to . find some books. Lets go together. Did you go to china last . saturday? Yes, I did. Did you have a good rest after . the trip? Lucy, yes. I slept for two days. Danny. you must feel good now. Yes, you're right. By the way, are you ready for your report? Yes, I will talk about marco polo. It's a good idea. I will go to the library to find some books. Let's go together. Listen to the next question. Hi everyone. This is tom speaking is my term to give you today's school radio report. There is the same. No sports, no life. Sports are very important to us. Sports help us to keep fit and get good grades. Everyone in my class loves sports. We used to have p lessons twice a week, but now we have PE lessons every day. During the class, we jog, do sit ups and play bad, maintain. But my favorite sport is basketball. IT helps me make a lot of friends, and it's also a good way to relax. Whenever I feel stressed out, I will ask my friends to play basketball with me. We have a basketball team. Our team often has friendly games with others from different schools. They are excEllent, but I think we are the best. We work as a team to win and lose. Hi everyone, this is tom speaking. It's my turn to give you today's school radio report. There is a saying, no sports, no life. Sports are very important to us. Sports help us to keep fit and get good grades. Everyone in my class loves sports. We used to have PE lessons twice a week, but now we have PE lessons every day. During the class, we jog, do setups and play badminton ton. But my favorite sport is basketball. IT helps me make a lot of friends, and it's also a good way to relax. Whenever I feel stressed out, I will ask my friends to play basketball with me. We have a basketball team. Our team often has friendly games with others from different schools. They are excEllent, but I think we are the best. We work as a team to win and lose. Listen to the next . question. Good morning. I'm suzy. Do you have to follow any rules in your lives? Well, I do. I have to get up at six forty AM on weekdays and seven forty AM at weekend. I must make my bad every day and help make my brother's bad, because my brother is only six years old. I like watching TV, but I can watch IT for only five hours every week. On saturdays, I have to go to the drama club. I don't like IT. I want to join the chess club. I will talk about this with my parents. On sundays, I help clean the house IT usually takes me around two hours to do IT then I can play in the park. Near my home is a great place. Good morning. I'm sue. Do you have to follow any rules in your lives? Well, I do. I have to get up at six fourteen TAM on weekdays and seven forty AM at weekends. I must make my bed everyday and help make my brother's bed, because my brother is only six years old. I like watching T. V, but I can watch IT for only five hours every week. On saturdays, I have to go to the drama club. I don't like IT. I want to join the chess club. I will talk about this with my parents. On sundays, I help clean the house IT usually takes me around two hours to do IT then I can play in the park near my home is a great place. Listen to the next question. Sugar painting has a history of around five hundred years. IT is a kind of food and also a kind of art. IT is usually made into different shapes like animals and flowers. Sugar painting was so interesting that I was popular in many places in the past, but there are not many sugar painting artists now because the skills are difficult to learn. I hope our country will protect IT. Sugar painting has a history of around five hundred years. IT is a kind of food and also a kind of art. IT is usually made into different shapes like animals and flowers. Sugar painting was so interesting that I was popular in many places in the past, but there are not many sugar painting artists now because the skills are difficult to learn. I hope our country will protect IT. Sugar painting has a history of around five hundred years. IT is the kind of food and also a kind of art. IT is usually made into different shapes like animals and flowers. Sugar painting was so interesting that I was popular in many places in the past, but there are not many sugar painting artists now because the skills are difficult to learn. I hope our country will protect IT. 听力部分到此结束。 2025-2026学年七年级5月学情自测卷（新教材冀教版) 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 准考证号： 贴条形码区 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名，准考证号填写清楚，并认真核准 考生禁填： 缺考标记 条形码上的姓名、准考证号，在规定位置贴好条形码。 违纪标记 2.选择题必须用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色签字笔 以上标志由监考人员用2B铅笔填涂 答题，不得用铅笔或圆珠笔答题；字体工整、笔迹清晰。 3. 请按题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出区域书写的答案 选择题填涂样例： 无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 正确填涂■ 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破。 错误填涂[×1[1[/1 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 1.IA][B][C1 6.A][B1[C] 11.AJ[B1[C] 16.A1[B][C] 2.[A1[B][CJ 7.A[B][C1 12.A[B][C] 17.A1[B1[C 3.[A][B][C] 8.[A][B][C] 13.[A][B][CI 18.AJ[B][C1 4.[A[B1[C1 9.A1[B1[C1 14.[A][B][C] 19.[A1[B][C1 5.[AJ[B1[C1 10.[A][B][C] 15.[A][B][C】 20.[A1[B][CJ 21[A][B][C] 31[A][B][C][D] 36.[AJ[B][CJ[D1 56.A1[B]IC][D] 22[A][B][C] 32[A][B][C][D] 37.[AJ[B][CI[D1 57.A][B][C][D] 23.[A][B][CJ 33.A1[B1[C][D1 38.A][B][C][D] 58.A1[B][C][D] 24.AJ[B][C] 34.A1[B][C][D] 39.[A][B][C][D] 59.A1[B][C][DJ 25[A][B][C] 35.[A][B][C][D] 40.[A][B][C][D] 60.AI[B][CJ[D】 61[A][B][C][D] 66.[A][B1[C][D] 62[A][B][C][D] 67.A][BJ[C][D] 63.[A][B][C][D] 68.A][B1[CJ[D1 64.AJ[B][C][D] 69.[A][B][C][D] 65.[AJ[BI[C1[D] 70.A1[B][C1[DJ 非选择题（请用各试题区内的区域作答） 第一部分听力第四节听短文填空（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 26 27. 28 29 30. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 1/2 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请用各试题区内的区域作答） 第二部分语言运用 第二节短文填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48 49. 50 51. 52. 53 54. 55. 第三部分阅读第二节阅读表达（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 71. 72. 73. 74. 75 第四部分情景交际补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76. 77. 78. 79. 80 第五部分写作（满分15分） Dear Kevin, I'm glad that you like the small gift I made by myself. Yours, Li Hua 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 2/2