山东聊城市临清市2026年中考模拟检测（一）九年级英语试题

2026年中考模拟检测（一） 九年级英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1-5 BCACB 6-10 ACBCB 11-15 ABABC 16. February 17. bus 18. built 19. tourist 20. five/5 第二部分 阅读（每小题2分，满分40分） 21-25 BCABA 26-30 CCBBA 31-35 CACBC 36-40 DCEFA 第三部分 语言运用（每小题1分，满分20分） 41-45 ABCBC 46-50 CABAB 51. receiving 52. became 53. but 54. shopping 55. usually 56. seasons 57. has sent 58. care 59. their 60. to help 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 61. 3. / Three. / 3 roses. / Three roses. 62. Betty’s / Her friends. 63. Betty’s / Her / A / The (PE) teacher. 64. A (beautiful) violin and a note (from her/Betty’s father). 65. my Chinese is much better (now) / my Chinese is improved (now) / I improve my Chinese /I can say many things in Chinese (now) / I am not afraid to speak (now) / I love learning Chinese / school becomes a happy place 第二节（满分20分） 参考范文一 My favourite invention My favourite invention is the mobile phone. Mobile phone is a small device/connection that we can carry everywhere. We use it to call our friends and family. It can also send messages and take photos. I think the mobile phone is great for two reasons. First, it helps us stay connected with people far away. When I miss my grandma, I can have a video call with her. Second, it is very useful for learning. I can use it to look up new words and watch English videos. Mobile phone makes our life easier and more fun. 参考范文二 My favourite invention Of all the inventions, I like the computer best. It is an amazing machine that helps us do many things. People use computers to study, work and play games. We can also search for information on the Internet. I think the computer is a great invention. Firstly, it helps us learn better. When I have problems with my homework, I can find answers online. Secondly, it brings us lots of fun. I can watch cartoons and listen to music on the computer. Sometimes I draw pictures on it too. The computer really makes our world colourful and convenient. 一、评分原则： 1．本题满分为20分，分5个档次酌情给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．评分时应注意：内容要点的完整性；词汇和语法结构的多样性和准确性；上下文的连贯及语言的得体。 4．评分时，应考虑拼写和标点符号的使用。 5．如书写较差，影响对写作内容的理解，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档（很好）：（17-20分） ——覆盖所有要点，内容充实 ——语法结构多样，词汇丰富 ——语法结构和词汇应用准确，虽有个别错误，但为使用较复杂结构或词汇所致 ——显示出较强的语言运用能力 ——有效运用了连接成分，全文结构紧凑 ——达到了预期的写作目的 第四档（好）：（13-16分） ——覆盖所有要点，内容较充实 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足写作的要求 ——语法结构和词汇应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因尝试运用较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；运用了一些语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑 ——基本达到了预期的写作目的 第三档（一般）：（9-12分） ——基本覆盖所有要点，内容基本充实 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足写作的要求 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解 ——运用了简单的连接成分，全文内容基本连贯 ——尚能达到预期的写作目的 第二档（较差）：（5-8分） ——未覆盖所有要点，内容不够充实 ——语法结构单调，词汇较贫乏 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性 ——未能将信息清楚地传达给读者 第一档（差）：（0-4分） ——要点不清晰，内容不充实，或严重离题 ——语法结构单调，词汇贫乏，词不达意 ——通篇语法或词汇错误，句子支离破碎 ——有效信息很少或几乎没有有效信息 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考模拟检测（一） 九年级英语试题 本试卷共8页。满分120分。考试时长120分钟。考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。答案写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子。听完每个句子后，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。 1. A. Good luck. B. Good morning. C. I have a headache. 2. A. It’s sweet. B. At 7 o’clock. C. Beef noodles. 3. A. At 7:30 am. B. At the bus stop. C. Have a nice trip. 4. A. Well done. B. I hope so. C. Sorry, I won’t. 5. A. Be careful! B. Sounds great! C. Don’t mention it. 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第1段材料，回答以下小题。 6. Where is Sally from? A. Canada. B. America. C. England. 听第2段材料，回答以下小题。 7. What does Lily think is the most useful invention? A. The TV. B. The computer. C. The mobile phone. 听第3段材料，回答以下小题。 8. What does the sign on the wall mean? A. NO PHOTOS. B. NO SMOKING. C. NO PARKING. 听第4段材料，回答以下小题。 9. What club will the school start? A. An AI club. B. A poem club. C. A chess club. 10. Where will the club members meet? A. In the reading room. B. In the meeting room. C. In the computer room. 听第5段材料，回答以下小题。 11. What are the students doing now? A. Having safety practice. B. Going to a school report. C. Doing basketball training. 12. How often do they do it? A. Once a month. B. Twice a month. C. Three times a month. 听第6段材料，回答以下小题。 13. What will Kathy do during her summer vacation? A. Go travelling. B. Study at home. C. Do a part - time job. 14. How does Kathy feel these days? A. Bored. B. Tired. C. Relaxed. 15. Where will John go on vacation? A. To Italy. B. To Hawaii. C. To England. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。 Visiting the Great Wall When to visit In 16. ________ this year. How to go By 17. ________. What we know The Great Wall is about 8,800 kilometers. It was 18._________ about 2,500 years ago. It was made of stones and bricks. It is a very famous 19. _________ attraction. It is not only a historical site but also a symbol of China’s history and culture. How long to stay For 20. _________ hour(s). 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Hello from nature’s foodies As a proud grizzly bear (灰熊), I say hello from Alaska. We eat anything we can get our paws on. One of my favourite meals is catching fresh salmon. There’s nothing quite like the pleasure of a stomach full of fresh fish! I’m a blue whale. I may eat up to 3.6 million krill (磷虾) per day! You may wonder why such huge animals live on such tiny food? It’s because we don’t have any teeth. Our mouths only have rows of baleen (鲸须). It lets water flow out while holding in tiny things. I’m a hummingbird. We eat flower nectar (蜜). We fly around a few thousand flowers each day to get as much food as possible. As we move our wings really fast, we burn through energy fast. So we need to keep feeding. Hello from a sloth (树懒) in the South America! Our favorite food? Low - energy leaves! Do we eat a lot? No. We slow - movers don’t need a lot of energy. Even our stomachs work so slowly that after a meal. We’re too tired to do anything but… sleep! 21. Why does a blue whale live on tiny living things? A. It is too slow to catch large fish. B. It only has baleen instead of teeth. C. It likes a stomach full of tiny food. 22. What decide how much hummingbirds and sloths eat? A. Body sizes. B. Living places. C. Daily activities. 23. Which part of a magazine is the text probably from? A. Wildlife. B. Travelling. C. Photography. B My name is Jack. I still remember the first day at middle school. As I sat down on my wooden bed, it broke in half. My face turned red as my roommate was completely shocked. Clearly it was not because of the poor quality (质量) of the bed, but because I was too heavy. Now more and more people are overweight. Many say they are too busy to exercise. They also have no time to cook at home and often eat out or have takeaway food. Actually, you don’t need free time to stay fit. After breaking that poor bed, my father advised me to lose weight and stay active in my daily life. And this habit has stayed with me. On some days, I ride ten kilometers home on my bike. On other days, I take the bus, but I often get off one stop early and walk home. On weekends, I usually help my mother with a good clean - up. This, along with a healthier diet, has worked for me. I’m now 21 kilograms lighter than I was. Some of my health problems have improved, too. You certainly don’t have to break a bed to start your health journey. To keep fit, it’s better to act sooner than later. 24. What caused the bed to break in half according to Jack? A. Bad luck. B. His weight. C. The bed’s poor quality. 25. Who gave Jack the advice to lose weight? A. His father. B. His mother. C. A bus driver. 26. What does the underlined word “This” refer to in paragraph 3? A. Eating out less. B. Going to the gym. C. Being active in daily life. 27. What can we know from the last paragraph? A. It’s good to take a walk. B. It’s important to have free time. C. It’s better to start an early health journey. C The Tan family, from Hunan, was new to the block (街区) and Mrs. Tan loved to cook. Her family enjoyed her stinky tofu (臭豆腐), so she cooked it twice a week. One afternoon, they heard a knock on the door. It was from the community workers. They had received a complaint (投诉) from the Tans’ neighbors, the Lees, about the smell of the stinky tofu. Mrs. Tan said sorry and decided that she would close the kitchen window the next time. That was what she did the following week. However, the community worker came to them again for the same problem. “I have closed the kitchen WINDOWS!” she said in anger. “Actually I can’t stand the habit of eating durians (榴莲). The smell of the durians is too strong for me.” The community worker then decided to call for a meeting with the durians at the beginning. Both Mrs. Tan and Mrs Lee had a scowl on the faces. They even didn’t look at each other. The community worker explained the disagreement. He suggested that the Tans can eat stinky tofu twice a month. Similarity, the Lees should try to eat durians weeks. Mrs Tan agreed and even invited Mrs Lee to taste her sticky tofu. After a month, the community worker met up with both families to see if they got any progress. Mrs Lee was full of praise, “Your tofu tastes so good! You are a good cook. Shall I bring some durians for you next time. You might love them.” “Perhaps.” said Mrs Tan politely. From then on they learned to accept their likes and dislikes. 28. How often did Mrs. Tan cook stinky tofu before the complaint? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month. 29. What do the underlined words “a scowl” in paragraph 5 mean? A. A shy look. B. An angry look. C. A satisfied look. 30. Why did the community worker meet the two families after a month? A. To learn about the progress. B. To give some suggestions. C. To explain the disagreement. 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text? A. To introduce the community workers. B. To introduce how to make stinky tofu. C. To show the importance of understanding. D Have you ever imagined being in a car which is driven by a computer, not a human? In recent years, China has made great progress in self - driving technology. Since August, 2022, self - driving taxis can run on the roads in Wuhan, Chongqing and Shenzhen. Why do we develop self - driving cars? Self - driving cars can bring us many advantages. First, they use computers to feel the things around them and make better use of space. This means fewer traffic jams and better parking space for cars. Second, self - driving cars can help the disabled (残疾的) or blind people to get around more easily. Third, self - driving cars hardly make wrong decisions or lose attention, so there will be fewer accidents and deaths on the road. However, self - driving cars are not perfect. They also have some problems. If something unexpected (预料之外) on the road happens, self - driving cars cannot react (反应) as fast as human drivers. Also, when the weather is bad, like heavy snow, self - driving cars cannot see the lines on the road easily. This may cause an accident. Besides, if the computer system of the car is broken by someone, the car will crash (撞毁). It is clear that there is still a long way to go to make self - driving cars more common and safer. And China is taking steps to make this happen. 32. Since August, 2022, self - driving taxis can run on the roads in these cities EXCEPT ________. A. Chengdu B. Shenzhen C. Chongqing 33. What does the underlined word “they” refer to (指代)? A. Blind people. B. Disabled people. C. Self - driving cars. 34. What problems about self - driving cars are mentioned (提及) in Paragraph 3? ① They are harmful to the environment. ② They will crash when their computer systems are broken. ③ They can’t see the lines on the road easily during the bad weather. ④ They can’t react as fast as human drivers in unexpected situations. A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①②④ 35. The passage mainly talks about ________. A. the past of self - driving cars B. the future of self - driving cars C. the advantages and disadvantages of self - driving cars 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Do you also feel anxiety (焦虑) during a big test? In fact, a little anxiety can be helpful. It will help you perform (表现) at your best. However, if your anxiety becomes so great, it will influence your performance in the test. 36. ________ Answer the easy questions first. Just start by putting your name on the paper. You have to start somewhere. 37. ________ Then answer the questions you think you know. Delete (删除) the wrong answers first. 38. ________ You might not know the correct answer right away, but you can look at the answer choices and find one or two that you know to be wrong. Skip and mark questions that you don’t know. 39. ________ Taking this step is actually progress. Knowing you’re making progress on a question reduces anxiety about it. 40. ________ Breathe in through your nose for 4 seconds, hold your breath for 7 seconds, and breathe out through the mouth for 8 seconds. Repeat this 3 to 4 times until your heart rate (心率) slows down. It is helpful. A. Use 4 - 7 - 8 breathing. B. Stop your test when you’re tired. C. First, take a quick look at the paper. D. Then you need to learn how to solve test anxiety. E. Start by deleting answers you don’t think are correct. F. Circle or mark these questions so you know how to come back to them. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 The 2026 Spring Festival Gala was so much fun! It had many cool shows for everyone to enjoy. First, there was a kung fu show 41 Wu BOT. Young students from the Tagou School did kung fu on stage. Smart robots 42 them! The robots were made in China. They did backflips and moved together. It looked really 43 ! Next, there was a beautiful 44 called Eternal Silk Road. Dancers moved on the stage. Behind them, AR technology showed old 45 from Dunhuang caves. The pictures came to life 46 danced too! It helped kids learn about the old Silk Road. The gala also showed something 47 . AI helped save old Chinese words. Some words are going away now.AI listened to old people talking. Then it helped tell a story with those old words. That was 48 great! The show had many fun parts. People at home watched and smiled. They learned about Chinese culture. They saw new technology 49 . The 2026 Spring Festival Gala was a happy night for everyone. We can’t 50 for next year’s show! 41. A. called B. stored C. borrowed 42. A. dug B. joined C. escaped 43. A. silent B. empty C. amazing 44. A. band B. dance C. diary 45. A. ropes B. habits C. pictures 46. A. or B. but C. and 47. A. smart B. honest C. hopeless 48. A. loudly B. really C. recently 49. A. too B. also C. either 50. A. pay B. wait C. look 第二节（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文并填空，然后将答案写到答题卡的相应位置（如有提示词，则填入提示词的正确形式；如无提示词，则填入1个适当的单词）。 Wan Haibo, a 43 - year - old deliveryman (快递员) in Tianjin, was honored as a National Model Worker (全国劳动模范) in 2025. After 51. ________ (receive) the honor, Wan said, “I feel very excited and proud.” Born in the countryside in Handan, Hebei, Wan went to Tianjin in 2018 and 52. ________ (become) a deliveryman. “There’s no easy way to success. Every package (包裹) means responsibility and trust, so it’s necessary to send it in time,” he said. “I thought about stopping, 53. ________finally got through all the difficulties.” Wan is responsible for a large community. He sends about 500 packages a day, but it can increase to even 1,000 daily during online 54. ________ (shop) festivals. He 55. ________ (usual) starts work around 6 am and finishes work around 8 pm — that can last to midnight during busy 56. ________ (season). In the past seven years, he 57.____ ____ (send) over 720,000 packages without any mistake. When facing terrible weather and possible delays (延迟), he will call customers right away to explain. Wan is a warm - hearted person who shows special 58. ________ (careful) for older or disabled people. He always helps them buy medicine and take away 59. ________ (they) rubbish during deliveries. Since April 2022, he has volunteered to check and report safety risks in his community. “I’m satisfied that we deliverymen get more social respect now,” Wan said. “I’ll keep working hard and encourage more people around me 60. ________ (help) others.” 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题，并将答案写到答题卡的相应位置。 Dear head teacher, teachers, parents and fellow students, I’m Betty. I’m very proud that you have chosen me to speak to you today. I have three roses here: a red one, a yellow one and a white one. These roses are to thank three groups of people for the three most important things that I have learnt. These three things are friendship, effort and trust. I give the red rose to my friends. When I started school here, my Chinese was not good, and some of my mistakes were very funny. But they were not laughing at me. They taught me to say many things in Chinese and kindly invited me to join them. Thanks to their kindness, ________. I give the white rose to my teachers who have taught me that there is no success without effort. When I started running in the 800 metres, I just wanted to give up. But the PE teacher, Ms Huang, helped me. She ran along with me, and she said, “You only really lose when you give up!” I still can’t run fast enough, but I’ve learnt to try my best, not only with running but with whatever else I do. I give the yellow rose to my parents for teaching me that love is about trust. When I wanted to learn the violin, my father told me that I should work harder at maths. I was disappointed. Then, on the morning of my birthday, I woke up to find a beautiful violin at my bedside. There was also a note from my father, “I’m sure you will be very good at music. I know you will be better at maths.” I’m sure that you all have your own memories about the happiness of the last three years, and the people whom you want to thank, so let’s all stand up and say, “Thank you, friends, teachers and parents! We love you!” 61. How many roses does Betty have according to the passage? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 62. Who is the red rose given to? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 63. What is Ms Huang? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 64. What did Betty find at her bedside? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 65. Complete the sentence in paragraph 3 with proper words. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分20分） 66．请以“我最喜欢的发明”为题，写一篇英文短文，内容包括： 1．你最喜欢的发明是什么； 2．它有什么主要用途； 3．它为什么是伟大的？至少从两个方面说明它给人们生活带来的积极影响。 要求： 1．词数80 - 100，题目已给出，不计入总词数； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．文中不得出现真实人名，校名等信息。 My favourite invention ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $