内容正文:
浙北2026年初中九年级学业质量监测英语卷听力部分,该部分分为三节。注意听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上请看听力部分第一节,第一节听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。Number one, what a lovely day. Let's go boating in the park . sounds great. I love the . sunshine. Number two, that was wonderful, Nancy. You play the piano really well. thanks. I love music and I practice every day. Number three, Jenny, do you often help with house work at home? Yes, I usually sweep the floor with my brother. Number four, excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest supermarket is? Sure, go along this street. It's between the bookstore and the bank. Number five, good morning. What's wrong with you? I have a bad . cough and feel really tired these days. Don't worry, let me check you over first. 第二节听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、BC三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍,听下面一段较长对话,回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hi, Maggie. reading again. Yes, bill, I love this books so much. I've read . many times, really, what's IT about . a story about an old Fishermen? I can learn a lot from IT. I think it's very meaningful. cool. Who wrote IT earnest . hemingway, a great american writer. Do you know about him? Yes, but only a little. May I take a look? sure. Here you are. Hi Maggie. Reading again? Yes, bill. I love this book so much. I've read many times. really. What's IT about . a story about an old Fishermen? I can learn a lot from IT. I think it's very meaningful. cool. Who earnest . hemingway, a great american writer, do you know about him? Yes, but only a little. May I take a look? sure. Here you are. 听下面一段较长对话,回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hello, can I speak to anna Jones. please? Hello, this is anna speaking. Hi anna. This is bob from cozy sweater shop. We've got the Green sweater you wanted. That's great. It's on sale now. Only sixty nine dollars. Would you be free to have a look tomorrow? Thank you, but I have a meeting tomorrow. I'll come this weekend. No problem. I'll hold IT . for you. Thank you very much. Hello, can I speak to ana Jones. please? Hello, this is anna speaking. Hi anna. This is bob from cozy sweater shop. We've got the Green sweater you wanted. That's great. It's on sale now. Only sixty nine dollars. Would you be free to have a look tomorrow? Thank you. But I have a meeting tomorrow. I'll come this weekend. No problem. I'll hold IT . for you. Thank you very much. 第三节听下面一段独白,独白后有五个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听读白前你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,读白读两遍。现在你有25秒钟的时间阅读第11至第15 5个小题。Hi everyone. As you all know, our school trip is this friday. I'm going to tell you what you need to pack for the trip. Please listen carefully and don't forget anything important. Our trip will last two days. On the first day, we are going to water world, please make sure to bring your swimsuits in the evening, we've prepared a special activity for you, a dancing party, boys and suits, girls and dresses, please. On the second day will be outside most of the time. Some comfortable clothes would be a good idea. Also, a pair sport shoes is a must for walking. You can wear sunglasses or heads if you like, but don't bring too much. All right, that's all. If you have any questions, feel free to come to my office this afternoon. Hi everyone. As you all know, our school trip is this friday. I'm going to tell you what you need to pack for the trip. Please listen carefully and don't forget anything important. Our trip will last two days. On the first day, we are going to water world, please make sure to bring your swimsuits in the evening, we've prepared a special activity for you, a dancing party, a boys and suits, girls and dresses, please. On the second day will be outside most of the time, some comfortable clothes would be a good idea. Also, a pair sport shoes is a master walking. You can wear sunglasses or had to you like, but don't bring too much. All right, that's all. If you have any questions, feel free to come to my office this afternoon. 现在你有一分钟的时间,将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卷上。听力部分到此结束。
浙北2026年初中九年级学业质量监测
英语试题卷
考生注意:
1.全卷包括四部分,共10页,满分为120分。考试时间为100分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
第一部分 听力理解(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
How is the weather now?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
How often does Nancy play the piano?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What do Jenny and her brother usually do at home?
A. Wash the dishes. B. Sweep the floor. C. Take out the rubbish.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where does the man want to go?
A. The bank. B. The bookstore. C. The supermarket.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What’s the possible relationship between the speakers?
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Dad and daughter.
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. How does Maggie like the book?
A. Interesting. B. Meaningful. C. Exciting.
7. Who is the writer of the book?
A. Mark Twain. B. Charles Dickens. C. Ernest Hemingway.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What color sweater does Anna want?
A. Black. B. Green. C. Yellow.
9. How much is the sweater now?
A. $69. B. $99. C. $129.
10. What will Anna do tomorrow?
A. Have a meeting. B. Get a sweater. C. Call a friend.
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. When is the school trip?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
12. How long is the trip?
A. For two days. B. For one week. C. For two weeks.
13. What special activity is prepared in the evening?
A. A dinner party. B. A welcome party. C. A dancing party.
14. What should the students wear on the second day?
A. Swimsuits. B. Suits and dresses. C. Sports shoes.
15. What does the speaker mainly talk about?
A. What to bring for the trip.
B. When to start the school trip.
C. Where to stay during the trip.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面四篇短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Useful English Idioms!
1 Hit the Books
Books are for reading, not hitting! But “Hit the books” doesn’t mean to throw books. It means to study hard, especially before an exam.
I have to hit the books tonight — I have an exam tomorrow!”
Common Situations:
School exams, homework
2 Hit the Sack
“Sack” here isn’t a heavy bag — it means bed! We use “hit the sack” when we’re really tired and ready to go to sleep.
It’s 11 p.m.! I’m so tired and need to hit the sack.
Common Situations:
Late night, tiredness
3 Hit a Wall
Sometimes we can’t go on doing something because something stops us from making progress — that’s “hit a wall”.
I’ve hit a wall with my homework — I can’t finish it at all!
Common Situations:
Difficulties, study problems
4 Be a Hit
If something or someone is very popular and loved by people, it’s “a hit”.
He was a hit at the party last night — everyone liked him!
Common Situations:
Popular people/things, daily life
16. Which picture best shows the idiom “Hit the Sack”?
A. B. C. D.
17. What will Tom probably do if he says, “I’ll hit the books tonight for my writing.”?
A. He is going to give up his writing.
B. He wants to ask his classmates for help.
C. He will get ready for the party tomorrow.
D. He plans to work hard to improve his writing.
18. In which part of the magazine can we read the text?
A. Travel. B. Health. C. Language. D. Business.
B
Linda, a 13-year-old girl, is very curious (好奇) about nature. Instead of playing computer games at home or going shopping, she loves watching ants walking in lines or listening to birds singing outside.
Last summer, she found a big eagle with wide wings when she explored a nearby forest. Its sharp eyes and strong flight surprised her a lot, and she wanted to know more about this strange bird.
From that day on, she went to the forest after school every day, hiding behind trees to observe the eagle quietly. She found that the eagle flew back to the same treetop every evening. She also discovered the eagle could feel danger from shaking leaves and faraway deer barks. She wrote these things down in her notebook.
At school, Mr. Wu, her biology teacher, noticed Linda’s love for nature. He gave her a magnifying glass (放大镜) and said, “Curiosity is your superpower. Ask questions, test ideas, and record results.” With his encouragement, Linda began to research after school every day. She put some bread near the eagle’s path to see if it would change its habit. The bird only moved its landing place a little and still came back. She thought it was amazing. Finally her project on eagles won the first prize at the science fair.
She later joined an environmental club, planting flowers for butterflies and building some mini hotels for birds. Many classmates around her became interested in nature and decided to give it a go, too. Linda understood curiosity not only brought fun but also connected her deeply to the world. She would explore nature’s endless secrets.
19. Where does Linda most probably spend her free time?
A. In a gym. B. In a forest. C. In a shop. D. In a computer room.
20. What does the underlined word “observe” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Watch. B. Keep. C. Count. D. Imagine.
21. Why did Mr. Wu say “Curiosity is your superpower.” to Linda?
A. He wished her to be more active in class.
B. He wanted to praise her physical appearance.
C. He expected her to keep exploring the unknown.
D. He hoped she could pay attention to biology grades.
22. What is the writer’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. To explain the secrets of many wild animals.
B. To encourage us to be curious and love nature.
C. To show us how to win prizes at a science fair.
D. To teach us how to do projects on the environment.
C
Am I Real or AI?
Imagine you are shown 10 photos of faces and told that half are real, and the other half are made by AI. Can you recognize (识别) the real ones just by looking?
You might think this is an easy task, but a new study shows it is far more challenging than we believe. Today’s AI-generated (生成) faces look surprisingly real, making it difficult for most people to tell the difference.
Researchers tested 125 people to see if they could discover which faces were AI-made. One-third of them were “super recognizers” — people who are especially skilled at remembering and recognizing faces in daily life. However, in this study, these experts got only 57% correct on average, while the other people got 51% correct, almost no different from blind guessing.
Early AI-generated faces often had clear mistakes and were easy to notice. As AI technology improves rapidly, it has learned from millions of real faces and become much smarter. Besides, there are better ways to make the pictures clear and beautiful. Now AI-generated faces look so perfect that people can hardly tell them from real ones. This has become a growing challenge in our world.
Telling real faces from AI ones is becoming harder every day. “For years, we believed photos showed real people and real situations,” said researcher James Dunn. But now when we look at pictures online, we may no longer trust “ ▲ ”. We should be more careful with fake (假的) AI images on social media and other websites.
The team plans to study the top performers in the tests and find out the secrets behind their ability to identify AI-generated faces. In the future, they hope to create simple and useful tools to help people tell real faces from AI-generated ones more easily.
23. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Sharing photos online. B. Looking at the photos.
C. Making AI-generated faces. D. Telling real faces from AI ones.
24. What can we learn about “super recognizers” from the passage?
A. They could perform perfectly in the test.
B. They got 51% correct on average in the test.
C. They like creating different kinds of AI faces.
D. They are especially good at recognizing faces.
25. Which of the following is mentioned in Paragraph 4?
A. When the early AI-generated faces appeared.
B. Why today’s AI faces are hard to recognize.
C. Who will create a new tool for telling AI faces.
D. How many people can easily discover AI faces.
26. Which of the following can be put in “ ▲ ”?
A. Seeing is believing. B. No pains, no gains.
C. Practice makes perfect. D. Well begun is half done.
D
A study in the AHA (美国心脏协会) Journal Circulation shows that eating five servings (份) of fruit and vegetables a day may lower the risk of death by 13%.
Researchers studied data from over 100,000 men and women. The study started in the mid-1980s and ended in 2014. The testers were asked about their diet at the beginning of the study, and again every two to four years. By the end of the study, 33,898 testers had died.
The study found that people who ate two servings of fruit and three servings of vegetables daily had the lowest chance of death. However, eating more than five total servings a day did not make the risk lower.
Compared with those who ate only two servings a day, people who ate five servings were:
➤10% less likely to die from cancer
➤12% less likely to die from heart disease
➤35% less likely to die from lung disease
➤13% less likely to die from all causes
To make the result more believable, the researchers combined their data with 24 other studies. In total, they looked at 1.9 million people from 29 countries across Asia, Africa, Europe, Oceania, North America and South America. They got the same result: five servings a day led to a 13% lower risk of death from any cause.
But lead author Dr. Dong Wang said not all fruits and vegetables are the same. Some may cause health problems. For example, starchy (淀粉类) vegetables like corn and potatoes didn’t help lower the death risk. Fruit juices were also not helpful.
Stick to five servings a day, and keep your plate colorful. Small changes in your food choices can lead to big health benefits over time.
27. How does the writer introduce the study?
A. By telling stories. B. By listing numbers. C. By asking questions. D. By describing feelings.
28. According to the study, who possibly has the lowest risk of death?
A. People who drink fruit juice or eat fruit very often.
B. People who focus on diet to lose weight every day.
C. People who eat two fruits and three vegetables a day.
D. People who change their diets every two to four years.
29. Why does the writer mention corn and potatoes in Paragraph 6?
A. To explain they are unhealthy foods. B. To tell us they are starchy vegetables.
C. To suggest we should eat more of them. D. To show vegetables have different effects.
30. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Fruit Juice: A Healthy Daily Drink B. Sports & Diet: Good for Our Health
C. Daily Choice: Keep Your Plate Colorful D. Fruit & Vegetables: The More, the Better
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项),将其序号填入第31-34小题,并回答第35小题。注意:请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Have you ever seen a revolving lantern? It is called Zou Ma Deng in Chinese. It’s a kind of traditional Chinese folk art form, which has a long history. ____31____ It became very popular during the Tang and Song Dynasties. In the Ming and Qing Dynasties, its forms became more creative.
____32____ When the candle inside is lit, the heat makes the air warm and light. The hot air rises and makes the small fan wheel at the top move around slowly. Pictures on the lantern look like they are moving, just like a short play. Zou Ma Deng shows that Chinese wisdom is ahead of its time.
In the past, people made the lanterns to light up dark streets at night. ____33____ They are also becoming a way to spread traditional culture. During the Spring Festival or Mid-Autumn Festival, hanging Zou Ma Deng is a popular tradition across China. They are seen as symbols of happiness and good wishes.
More and more young people are interested in making Zou Ma Deng. ____34____ Some Chinese artists teach people how to make them in museums and communities. By making the lanterns, people can learn more about Chinese culture and history.
Zou Ma Deng connects our past with modern science, making it a wonderful treasure of both culture and knowledge. We should keep this traditional art alive and pass it on.
A. Making it is not easy, but it is very fun.
B. It first appeared in the Qin and Han Dynasties.
C. How does a traditional Zou Ma Deng work?
D. Pictures of horses and people on them are colourful.
E. Today, the lanterns are not just beautiful decorations.
31. __________
32. __________
33. __________
34. __________
35. What other traditional arts are you most interested in? Why? (不超过15词)
_________________________________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Elsa had looked forward to her 9th birthday for weeks. Her mother Shirley ____36____ to make it a really special day for her. The big day finally arrived. After weeks of ____37____, Elsa could hardly control her excitement.
At a local restaurant, two waiters were busy helping Shirley ____38____ colorful lights. Elsa circled her and asked, “Will you finish before the guests come?” Her mother smiled, feeling happy to give her daughter the ____39____ she had looked forward to for so long.
It was time for the party. Elsa sat at the table and fixed ____40____ eyes on the door. Thirty minutes passed, ____41____ still no friends had arrived.
The room stayed quiet and ____42____, and the smile on Elsa’s face disappeared. Suddenly, Shirley realized her ____43____ — she had written the wrong date, so the kids wouldn’t come until the next day.
“I let her down.” Shirley thought. Instead of giving up, she decided to do something ____44____. She took out her phone and ____45____ a message in a local community group, asking people to join Elsa’s birthday if they were free.
What happened next was more than she ever expected. Many people ____46____ replied to her invitation. In a short time, ____47____ began to show up, carrying small gifts for the birthday girl. Elsa felt ____48____ and her eyes lit up with joy when people came to say “happy birthday” to her.
At the end of the party, Shirley tried to express her thanks, but tears ran down her cheeks before she could ____49____. She would never forget the kindness ____50____ these warm neighbors.
Sometimes, the best gifts come from people who remind us no one would feel alone.
36. A. forgot B. refused C. promised D. learned
37. A. waiting B. studying C. traveling D. training
38. A. move away B. look at C. put up D. pay for
39. A. trip B. lesson C. party D. speech
40. A. my B. your C. his D. her
41. A. but B. or C. so D. and
42. A. dirty B. wet C. empty D. warm
43. A. mistake B. choice C. hope D. plan
44. A. relaxing B. different C. simple D. dangerous
45. A. sent B. found C. read D. copied
46. A. quickly B. safely C. secretly D. loudly
47. A. relatives B. neighbors C. teachers D. classmates
48. A. comfortable B. proud C. patient D. surprised
49. A. stand B. speak C. leave D. work
50. A. for B. by C. with D. from
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
A. 用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次。
hug polite actually chopstick if around the world
Welcome to World Cultural Exchange Channel. I’m your host, Li Yue. We are going to explore fascinating dining cultures ____51____—how people behave at the dinner table in different countries.
In China, children are taught how to use ____52____ properly from an early age. For example, never stick them into the food. Also, it’s ____53____ to hit an empty bowl with them.
In India, many people eat with their right hand. ____54____ you are not familiar with this custom, you might think it’s not clean. ____55____, it is an important part of Indian culture. Interestingly, in many South American countries, people ____56____ each other as a greeting before meals.
Different countries have different table manners, and that’s what makes our world so colorful.
B. 阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Sleeping in space is quite different from sleeping in our daily life. Because of zero gravity (失重), astronauts cannot ____57____ (躺) down on a bed. If they do, they will float around and be in danger. To ____58____ (解决) this problem, they sleep in special sleeping bags that are tied to the wall or a hook (钩子). This keeps them safe and stops them from floating away.
____59____ (另一个) big problem is the light. On the International Space Station (ISS), the sun rises and sets every 45 minutes because the station travels around the ____60____ (地球) much more quickly. As a result, astronauts need to wear special eye masks to ____61____ (保护) their eyes from the strong light.
Their sleeping place is also very small. On the ISS, each astronaut has his/her own private space — only the ____62____ (尺寸) of a telephone booth (电话亭). In some smaller spacecraft, they may have to sleep close ____63____ (一起) in an open area.
NASA expects astronauts to sleep 8.5 hours a day but studies show they often sleep only about 6 hours. Not getting ____64____ (足够) sleep is a serious problem for everyone. ____65____ (幸运), new technologies and better sleep plans are being developed to help them rest well in space.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
James Sun is a 39-year-old Chinese. He used to be ____66____ engineer. A few years ago, he was going through a dark period in his life. One day, some online videos of sand art suddenly calmed ____67____ (he) down. In the videos, the artists put colored sand into common bottles. They would then use a special tool ____68____ (make) the sand into any shape they needed.
James searched online for information on many famous sand art ____69____ (master). To learn from them, he traveled to different parts of China and other East Asian countries. ____70____ his journey to study was full of difficulties, he still kept going.
Later, as a big sports fan, he started to make sand art portraits (肖像) of well-known sportsmen. ____71____ 2023, James began posting his artworks online. These artworks soon became very popular. James now spends about ten hours a day making sand portraits. So far, he ____72____ (create) sand artworks for many famous companies.
James finds his new job very ____73____ (enjoy) and interesting. “When I gave up my engineering job, everyone thought I was crazy. But it is ____74____ (good) decision I’ve ever made in my life!” the artist said.
____75____ a wonderful life he has!
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76. 近期你校英语社团将开展以Manage Time, Manage Myself为主题的“时间管理达人”经验分享活动。请你根据以下要点,结合自身经历写一篇英语短文进行分享。
注意:1. 提供的信息仅供参考,可适当发挥;
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3. 词数80左右。首句已给出,不计入总词数。
Manage Time, Manage Myself
Hello, everyone! I’m glad to share my ideas about time management. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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浙北2026年初中九年级学业质量监测
英语试题卷
考生注意:
1.全卷包括四部分,共10页,满分为120分。考试时间为100分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
第一部分 听力理解(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
How is the weather now?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: What a lovely day! Let’s go boating in the park.
W: Sounds great. I love the sunshine.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
How often does Nancy play the piano?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: That was wonderful, Nancy. You play the piano really well.
W: Thanks. I love music and I practice everyday.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What do Jenny and her brother usually do at home?
A. Wash the dishes. B. Sweep the floor. C. Take out the rubbish.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: Jenny, do you often help with house work at home?
W: Yes, I usually sweep the floor with my brother.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where does the man want to go?
A. The bank. B. The bookstore. C. The supermarket.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】M: Excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest supermarket is?
W: Sure, go along this street, it’s between the bookstore and the bank.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What’s the possible relationship between the speakers?
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Dad and daughter.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: Good morning, what’s wrong with you?
W: I have a bad cough and feel really tired these days.
M: Don’t worry, let me check you over first.
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. How does Maggie like the book?
A. Interesting. B. Meaningful. C. Exciting.
7. Who is the writer of the book?
A. Mark Twain. B. Charles Dickens. C. Ernest Hemingway.
【答案】6. B 7. C
【解析】
【原文】M: Hi, Maggie, reading again?
W: Yes, Bill. I love this book so much. I’ve read many times.
M: Really? What’s it about?
W: A story about an old fisher. I can learn a lot from it. I think it’s very meaningful.
M: Cool, who wrote it?
W: Ernest Hemingway, a great American writer. Do you know about him?
M: Yes, but only a little. May I take a look?
W: Sure, here you are.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What color sweater does Anna want?
A. Black. B. Green. C. Yellow.
9. How much is the sweater now?
A. $69. B. $99. C. $129.
10. What will Anna do tomorrow?
A. Have a meeting. B. Get a sweater. C. Call a friend.
【答案】8. B 9. A 10. A
【解析】
【原文】M: Hello, can I speak to Anna Jones, please?
W: Hello, this is Anna speaking.
M: Hi, Anna. This is Bob from Cozy Sweater Shop. We’ve got the green sweater you wanted.
W: That’s great.
M: It’s on sale now only sixty-nine dollars. Would you be free to have a look tomorrow?
W: Thank you. But I have a meeting to morrow. I’ll come this weekend.
M: No problem. I’ll hold it for you.
W: Thank you very much.
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. When is the school trip?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
12. How long is the trip?
A. For two days. B. For one week. C. For two weeks.
13. What special activity is prepared in the evening?
A. A dinner party. B. A welcome party. C. A dancing party.
14. What should the students wear on the second day?
A. Swimsuits. B. Suits and dresses. C. Sports shoes.
15. What does the speaker mainly talk about?
A. What to bring for the trip.
B. When to start the school trip.
C. Where to stay during the trip.
【答案】11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. A
【解析】
【原文】 Hi, everyone. As you all know our school trip is this Friday. I’m going to tell you what you need to pack for the trip. Please listen carefully and don’t forget anything important. Our trip will last two days. On the first day, we’re going to Water World. Please make sure to bring your swimsuits. In the evening we’ve prepared a special activity for you—a dancing party. Boys and suits, girls and dresses, please. On the second day we'll be outside most of the time. Some comfortable clothes would be a good idea. Also a pair of sports shoes is a must for walking. You can wear sunglasses or hats if you like, but don't bring too much. All right that’s all. If you have any questions, feel free to come to my office this afternoon.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面四篇短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Useful English Idioms!
1 Hit the Books
Books are for reading, not hitting! But “Hit the books” doesn’t mean to throw books. It means to study hard, especially before an exam.
I have to hit the books tonight — I have an exam tomorrow!”
Common Situations:
School exams, homework
2 Hit the Sack
“Sack” here isn’t a heavy bag — it means bed! We use “hit the sack” when we’re really tired and ready to go to sleep.
It’s 11 p.m.! I’m so tired and need to hit the sack.
Common Situations:
Late night, tiredness
3 Hit a Wall
Sometimes we can’t go on doing something because something stops us from making progress — that’s “hit a wall”.
I’ve hit a wall with my homework — I can’t finish it at all!
Common Situations:
Difficulties, study problems
4 Be a Hit
If something or someone is very popular and loved by people, it’s “a hit”.
He was a hit at the party last night — everyone liked him!
Common Situations:
Popular people/things, daily life
16. Which picture best shows the idiom “Hit the Sack”?
A. B. C. D.
17. What will Tom probably do if he says, “I’ll hit the books tonight for my writing.”?
A. He is going to give up his writing.
B. He wants to ask his classmates for help.
C. He will get ready for the party tomorrow.
D. He plans to work hard to improve his writing.
18. In which part of the magazine can we read the text?
A. Travel. B. Health. C. Language. D. Business.
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. C
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了四个实用的英语习语,包括“Hit the Books”“Hit the Sack”“Hit a Wall”和“Be a Hit”,分别解释了它们的含义、适用场景并举例说明。
【16题详解】
对应“Hit the Sack”板块,文中提到“it means bed. We use “hit the sack” when we’re really tired and ready to go to sleep.”,意为准备去床上睡觉。
【17题详解】
对应“Hit the Books”板块,文中提到“It means to study hard, especially before an exam.”,可知“I’ll hit the books tonight for my writing.”的意思是为了写作努力学习、提升写作水平。
【18题详解】
本文标题为“Useful English Idioms!”,内容主要介绍英语习语的含义和用法,属于语言学习范畴,因此可以在杂志的Language(语言)板块读到。
B
Linda, a 13-year-old girl, is very curious (好奇) about nature. Instead of playing computer games at home or going shopping, she loves watching ants walking in lines or listening to birds singing outside.
Last summer, she found a big eagle with wide wings when she explored a nearby forest. Its sharp eyes and strong flight surprised her a lot, and she wanted to know more about this strange bird.
From that day on, she went to the forest after school every day, hiding behind trees to observe the eagle quietly. She found that the eagle flew back to the same treetop every evening. She also discovered the eagle could feel danger from shaking leaves and faraway deer barks. She wrote these things down in her notebook.
At school, Mr. Wu, her biology teacher, noticed Linda’s love for nature. He gave her a magnifying glass (放大镜) and said, “Curiosity is your superpower. Ask questions, test ideas, and record results.” With his encouragement, Linda began to research after school every day. She put some bread near the eagle’s path to see if it would change its habit. The bird only moved its landing place a little and still came back. She thought it was amazing. Finally her project on eagles won the first prize at the science fair.
She later joined an environmental club, planting flowers for butterflies and building some mini hotels for birds. Many classmates around her became interested in nature and decided to give it a go, too. Linda understood curiosity not only brought fun but also connected her deeply to the world. She would explore nature’s endless secrets.
19. Where does Linda most probably spend her free time?
A. In a gym. B. In a forest. C. In a shop. D. In a computer room.
20. What does the underlined word “observe” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Watch. B. Keep. C. Count. D. Imagine.
21. Why did Mr. Wu say “Curiosity is your superpower.” to Linda?
A. He wished her to be more active in class.
B. He wanted to praise her physical appearance.
C. He expected her to keep exploring the unknown.
D. He hoped she could pay attention to biology grades.
22. What is the writer’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. To explain the secrets of many wild animals.
B. To encourage us to be curious and love nature.
C. To show us how to win prizes at a science fair.
D. To teach us how to do projects on the environment.
【答案】19. B 20. A 21. C 22. B
【解析】
【导语】本文讲述了热爱自然、充满好奇心的13岁女孩Linda,通过在森林观察老鹰、做科学研究,最终在科学展获奖并带动同学热爱自然的故事,传递了好奇心能带来成长、连接自然的道理。
【19题详解】
对应第2段和第3段,文中提到“Last summer, she found a big eagle... when she explored a nearby forest.”以及“From that day on, she went to the forest after school every day, hiding behind trees to observe the eagle quietly.”,可知Linda最可能在森林里度过空闲时间。
【20题详解】
对应第3段,文中提到“hiding behind trees to observe the eagle quietly. She found that the eagle flew back to the same treetop every evening.”,结合语境可知Linda躲在树后是为了观察老鹰,“observe”的意思与watch(观察、看)最接近。
【21题详解】
对应第4段,文中提到吴老师说“Curiosity is your superpower. Ask questions, test ideas, and record results.”,并鼓励Linda做研究,可知老师说这句话是希望她继续探索未知。
【22题详解】
对应全文,文章通过Linda的故事,结尾点明“Linda understood curiosity not only brought fun but also connected her deeply to the world. She would explore nature’s endless secrets.”,可知作者的写作目的是鼓励我们保持好奇心、热爱自然。
C
Am I Real or AI?
Imagine you are shown 10 photos of faces and told that half are real, and the other half are made by AI. Can you recognize (识别) the real ones just by looking?
You might think this is an easy task, but a new study shows it is far more challenging than we believe. Today’s AI-generated (生成) faces look surprisingly real, making it difficult for most people to tell the difference.
Researchers tested 125 people to see if they could discover which faces were AI-made. One-third of them were “super recognizers” — people who are especially skilled at remembering and recognizing faces in daily life. However, in this study, these experts got only 57% correct on average, while the other people got 51% correct, almost no different from blind guessing.
Early AI-generated faces often had clear mistakes and were easy to notice. As AI technology improves rapidly, it has learned from millions of real faces and become much smarter. Besides, there are better ways to make the pictures clear and beautiful. Now AI-generated faces look so perfect that people can hardly tell them from real ones. This has become a growing challenge in our world.
Telling real faces from AI ones is becoming harder every day. “For years, we believed photos showed real people and real situations,” said researcher James Dunn. But now when we look at pictures online, we may no longer trust “ ▲ ”. We should be more careful with fake (假的) AI images on social media and other websites.
The team plans to study the top performers in the tests and find out the secrets behind their ability to identify AI-generated faces. In the future, they hope to create simple and useful tools to help people tell real faces from AI-generated ones more easily.
23. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Sharing photos online. B. Looking at the photos.
C. Making AI-generated faces. D. Telling real faces from AI ones.
24. What can we learn about “super recognizers” from the passage?
A. They could perform perfectly in the test.
B. They got 51% correct on average in the test.
C. They like creating different kinds of AI faces.
D. They are especially good at recognizing faces.
25. Which of the following is mentioned in Paragraph 4?
A. When the early AI-generated faces appeared.
B. Why today’s AI faces are hard to recognize.
C. Who will create a new tool for telling AI faces.
D. How many people can easily discover AI faces.
26. Which of the following can be put in “ ▲ ”?
A. Seeing is believing. B. No pains, no gains.
C. Practice makes perfect. D. Well begun is half done.
【答案】23. D 24. D 25. B 26. A
【解析】
【导语】本文围绕AI生成人脸的识别难题展开,介绍了相关研究发现,分析了如今AI人脸难以分辨的原因,并提出了对网络虚假图片的警示及未来工具研发的展望。
【23题详解】
对应第2段,文中提到“You might think this is an easy task, but a new study shows it is far more challenging than we believe.”,结合前文第一段的问题“Can you recognize the real ones just by looking?”,可知“it”指代的是区分真实人脸和AI生成人脸这件事。
【24题详解】
对应第3段,文中提到“One-third of them were “super recognizers” — people who are especially skilled at remembering and recognizing faces in daily life.”,可知“super recognizers”是特别擅长识别人脸的人。
【25题详解】
对应第4段,文中提到“Early AI-generated faces often had clear mistakes... As AI technology improves rapidly, it has learned from millions of real faces and become much smarter... Now AI-generated faces look so perfect that people can hardly tell them from real ones.”,该段解释了如今AI人脸难以识别的原因。
【26题详解】
对应第5段,文中提到“For years, we believed photos showed real people and real situations... But now when we look at pictures online, we may no longer trust '▲'”,结合语境可知,过去人们相信“眼见为实”,但AI图片的出现让我们无法再相信看到的就是真实的,因此填入“Seeing is believing(眼见为实)”最符合语境。
D
A study in the AHA (美国心脏协会) Journal Circulation shows that eating five servings (份) of fruit and vegetables a day may lower the risk of death by 13%.
Researchers studied data from over 100,000 men and women. The study started in the mid-1980s and ended in 2014. The testers were asked about their diet at the beginning of the study, and again every two to four years. By the end of the study, 33,898 testers had died.
The study found that people who ate two servings of fruit and three servings of vegetables daily had the lowest chance of death. However, eating more than five total servings a day did not make the risk lower.
Compared with those who ate only two servings a day, people who ate five servings were:
➤10% less likely to die from cancer
➤12% less likely to die from heart disease
➤35% less likely to die from lung disease
➤13% less likely to die from all causes
To make the result more believable, the researchers combined their data with 24 other studies. In total, they looked at 1.9 million people from 29 countries across Asia, Africa, Europe, Oceania, North America and South America. They got the same result: five servings a day led to a 13% lower risk of death from any cause.
But lead author Dr. Dong Wang said not all fruits and vegetables are the same. Some may cause health problems. For example, starchy (淀粉类) vegetables like corn and potatoes didn’t help lower the death risk. Fruit juices were also not helpful.
Stick to five servings a day, and keep your plate colorful. Small changes in your food choices can lead to big health benefits over time.
27. How does the writer introduce the study?
A. By telling stories. B. By listing numbers. C. By asking questions. D. By describing feelings.
28. According to the study, who possibly has the lowest risk of death?
A. People who drink fruit juice or eat fruit very often.
B. People who focus on diet to lose weight every day.
C. People who eat two fruits and three vegetables a day.
D. People who change their diets every two to four years.
29. Why does the writer mention corn and potatoes in Paragraph 6?
A. To explain they are unhealthy foods. B. To tell us they are starchy vegetables.
C. To suggest we should eat more of them. D. To show vegetables have different effects.
30. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Fruit Juice: A Healthy Daily Drink B. Sports & Diet: Good for Our Health
C. Daily Choice: Keep Your Plate Colorful D. Fruit & Vegetables: The More, the Better
【答案】27. B 28. C 29. D 30. C
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了美国心脏协会《Circulation》期刊的一项研究,该研究表明每天吃5份果蔬(2份水果+3份蔬菜)可降低13%的死亡风险,同时指出并非所有果蔬都有此效果,淀粉类蔬菜和果汁无帮助,且过量食用不会进一步降低风险。
【27题详解】
对应全文,文章开篇用“lower the risk of death by 13%”,后续列举“over 100,000 men and women”“33,898 testers had died”“10% less likely to die from cancer”等大量数据介绍研究,因此作者是通过列数字的方式介绍研究。
【28题详解】
对应第3段,文中提到“The study found that people who ate two servings of fruit and three servings of vegetables daily had the lowest chance of death.”,可知每天吃2份水果和3份蔬菜的人死亡风险最低。
【29题详解】
对应第6段,文中提到“not all fruits and vegetables are the same. Some may cause health problems. For example, starchy vegetables like corn and potatoes didn’t help lower the death risk.”,可知作者举玉米和土豆的例子是为了说明不同蔬菜对健康的影响不同。
【30题详解】
对应全文,文章核心是每天吃5份多样果蔬(保持餐盘多彩)对健康的益处,结尾也提到“Stick to five servings a day, and keep your plate colorful.”,A选项果汁并非健康饮品,B选项未提及运动,D选项“越多越好”与原文“eating more than five total servings a day did not make the risk lower”矛盾,因此最佳标题为C。
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项),将其序号填入第31-34小题,并回答第35小题。注意:请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Have you ever seen a revolving lantern? It is called Zou Ma Deng in Chinese. It’s a kind of traditional Chinese folk art form, which has a long history. ____31____ It became very popular during the Tang and Song Dynasties. In the Ming and Qing Dynasties, its forms became more creative.
____32____ When the candle inside is lit, the heat makes the air warm and light. The hot air rises and makes the small fan wheel at the top move around slowly. Pictures on the lantern look like they are moving, just like a short play. Zou Ma Deng shows that Chinese wisdom is ahead of its time.
In the past, people made the lanterns to light up dark streets at night. ____33____ They are also becoming a way to spread traditional culture. During the Spring Festival or Mid-Autumn Festival, hanging Zou Ma Deng is a popular tradition across China. They are seen as symbols of happiness and good wishes.
More and more young people are interested in making Zou Ma Deng. ____34____ Some Chinese artists teach people how to make them in museums and communities. By making the lanterns, people can learn more about Chinese culture and history.
Zou Ma Deng connects our past with modern science, making it a wonderful treasure of both culture and knowledge. We should keep this traditional art alive and pass it on.
A. Making it is not easy, but it is very fun.
B. It first appeared in the Qin and Han Dynasties.
C. How does a traditional Zou Ma Deng work?
D. Pictures of horses and people on them are colourful.
E. Today, the lanterns are not just beautiful decorations.
31. __________
32. __________
33. __________
34. __________
35. What other traditional arts are you most interested in? Why? (不超过15词)
_________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】31. B 32. C
33. E 34. A
35. Paper-cutting. Because it is beautiful and meaningful.(答案不唯一)
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,介绍了中国传统民间艺术形式——走马灯(revolving lantern)的历史起源、工作原理、功能演变及其文化传承意义。
【31题详解】
前句提到“has a long history”,后句说唐宋时期流行起来,因此中间需补充首次出现的时间。B项“It first appeared in the Qin and Han Dynasties.”符合时间逻辑顺序。
【32题详解】
本段详细说明走马灯的内部工作原理(蜡烛加热、热空气上升、扇轮转动)。C项“How does a traditional Zou Ma Deng work?”以问句形式引出工作原理,符合段落内容。
【33题详解】
前句说过去人们制作灯笼照亮夜晚街道,后句说它们也成为传播传统文化的方式。A项“Making it is not easy, but it is very fun.”放在此处语义不通。此处应填入E项“Today, the lanterns are not just beautiful decorations.”,以“Today”与上句“In the past”形成时间对比,且“not just beautiful decorations”自然引出后文的“a way to spread traditional culture”。
【34题详解】
前句说越来越多的年轻人对制作走马灯感兴趣,后句说艺术家教人们制作。A项“Making it is not easy, but it is very fun.”说明制作过程的特点(不易但有趣),承上启下,符合此处语境。
【35题详解】
根据题目要求,任选一种中国传统艺术并说明简短理由。示例为剪纸(paper-cutting),理由为美丽且有寓意。
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Elsa had looked forward to her 9th birthday for weeks. Her mother Shirley ____36____ to make it a really special day for her. The big day finally arrived. After weeks of ____37____, Elsa could hardly control her excitement.
At a local restaurant, two waiters were busy helping Shirley ____38____ colorful lights. Elsa circled her and asked, “Will you finish before the guests come?” Her mother smiled, feeling happy to give her daughter the ____39____ she had looked forward to for so long.
It was time for the party. Elsa sat at the table and fixed ____40____ eyes on the door. Thirty minutes passed, ____41____ still no friends had arrived.
The room stayed quiet and ____42____, and the smile on Elsa’s face disappeared. Suddenly, Shirley realized her ____43____ — she had written the wrong date, so the kids wouldn’t come until the next day.
“I let her down.” Shirley thought. Instead of giving up, she decided to do something ____44____. She took out her phone and ____45____ a message in a local community group, asking people to join Elsa’s birthday if they were free.
What happened next was more than she ever expected. Many people ____46____ replied to her invitation. In a short time, ____47____ began to show up, carrying small gifts for the birthday girl. Elsa felt ____48____ and her eyes lit up with joy when people came to say “happy birthday” to her.
At the end of the party, Shirley tried to express her thanks, but tears ran down her cheeks before she could ____49____. She would never forget the kindness ____50____ these warm neighbors.
Sometimes, the best gifts come from people who remind us no one would feel alone.
36. A. forgot B. refused C. promised D. learned
37. A. waiting B. studying C. traveling D. training
38. A. move away B. look at C. put up D. pay for
39. A. trip B. lesson C. party D. speech
40. A. my B. your C. his D. her
41. A. but B. or C. so D. and
42. A. dirty B. wet C. empty D. warm
43. A. mistake B. choice C. hope D. plan
44. A. relaxing B. different C. simple D. dangerous
45. A. sent B. found C. read D. copied
46. A. quickly B. safely C. secretly D. loudly
47. A. relatives B. neighbors C. teachers D. classmates
48. A. comfortable B. proud C. patient D. surprised
49. A. stand B. speak C. leave D. work
50. A. for B. by C. with D. from
【答案】36. C 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了母亲Shirley为女儿Elsa筹备九岁生日聚会时因写错日期导致无人到场,随后通过社区求助获得众多陌生人暖心回应的故事。
【36题详解】
句意:她的母亲Shirley承诺让这一天成为对她来说真正特别的日子。
根据后文母亲精心布置餐厅、写错日期后尽力补救等一系列行为,可知她曾对女儿许下诺言。“promised”意为“承诺”,符合上下文逻辑。若选“forgot”(忘记)则与母亲主动筹备的行为矛盾;“refused”(拒绝)与后文积极行动相悖;“learned”(学会)无法体现母亲的态度。
【37题详解】
句意:经过数周的等待,Elsa几乎无法控制她的兴奋。
前文“had looked forward to her 9th birthday for weeks”表明Elsa长时间处于期待状态,“waiting”意为“等待”,是对这一状态的准确概括。“studying”(学习)、“traveling”(旅行)、“training”(训练)均与期待生日的语境无关。
【38题详解】
句意:两位服务员正忙着帮Shirley挂彩灯。
“put up”为固定短语,意为“悬挂、张贴”,与“colorful lights”(彩灯)构成合理动宾搭配。“move away”(移开)、“look at”(看)、“pay for”(支付)均不符合动作逻辑。
【39题详解】
句意:母亲微笑着,很高兴能为女儿举办这场她期盼已久的派对。
全文核心事件为生日聚会,且前文多次出现“birthday”“party”等词,“party”意为“聚会”,为最直接、准确的指代。“trip”(旅行)、“lesson”(课程)、“speech”(演讲)均偏离主题。
【40题详解】
句意:Elsa坐在桌旁,她的眼睛紧紧盯着门。
空格处需填入形容词性物主代词,修饰“eyes”。主语Elsa为女性第三人称单数,故应用“her”。“my”(我的)、“your”(你的)、“his”(他的)均与主语的人称和性别不一致。
【41题详解】
句意:三十分钟过去了,但仍然没有朋友到来。
前句陈述时间流逝,后句说明无人到来的结果,二者之间为转折关系。“but”意为“但是”,准确表达了这一逻辑。“or”(或者)表选择,“so”(所以)表因果,“and”(和)表顺承,均不符合语境。
【42题详解】
句意:房间保持安静而空荡,Elsa脸上的笑容消失了。
根据“no friends had arrived”(没有朋友到来)可知,房间内无人,故应选“empty”,意为“空的”。“dirty”(脏的)、“wet”(湿的)、“warm”(温暖的)均无法由上下文推断。
【43题详解】
句意:突然,Shirley意识到自己的错误——她写错了日期。
破折号后的内容“she had written the wrong date”是对前文的具体解释,说明她所犯的正是“mistake”,意为“错误”。“choice”(选择)、“hope”(希望)、“plan”(计划)均与解释内容不符。
【44题详解】
句意:她决定做一些不同的事情。
上文描述她意识到错误后并未放弃,下文描述她发消息向社区求助,这一行为不同于被动等待或取消聚会,因此“different”意为“不同的”,准确概括了她的行动转变。“relaxing”(令人放松的)、“simple”(简单的)、“dangerous”(危险的)均无法体现这种转变。
【45题详解】
句意:她拿出手机,在本地社区群组中发送了一条消息。
“send a message”为固定搭配,意为“发送信息”。句中动词需用过去式“sent”。“found”(发现)、“read”(阅读)、“copied”(复制)均不能与“a message”构成合理搭配。
【46题详解】
句意:许多人迅速回复了她的邀请。
下文“In a short time”(短时间内)表明回复速度很快,故应选“quickly”,意为“迅速地”。“safely”(安全地)、“secretly”(秘密地)、“loudly”(大声地)均与时间短暂无逻辑关联。
【47题详解】
句意:很快,邻居们开始出现,为过生日的女孩带来小礼物。
前文提到Shirley在本地社区群组中发送消息,后文称这些人为“warm neighbors”(温暖的邻居),因此此处应指“neighbors”,意为“邻居们”。“relatives”(亲戚)、“teachers”(老师们)、“classmates”(同学们)均与社区群组的语境不符。
【48题详解】
句意:Elsa感到惊讶,眼里闪烁着喜悦的光芒。
原本无人到场,突然众多陌生人前来祝福,这种反差带来的情感应为“surprised”,意为“惊讶的”。“comfortable”(舒适的)、“proud”(骄傲的)、“patient”(耐心的)均无法准确反映这种心理变化。
【49题详解】
句意:泪水在她开口说话之前就顺着脸颊流了下来。
Shirley试图表达感谢,但因感动而哽咽,话未出口泪水已流下。“speak”意为“说话”,强调的是发出语言的动作。“stand”(站立)、“leave”(离开)、“work”(工作)均不符合语境。
【50题详解】
句意:她永远不会忘记这些温暖邻居的善意。
“kindness from...”为常见搭配,意为“来自……的善意”,介词“from”表示来源。“for”表示目的或原因,“by”表示方式,“with”表示伴随,均不能准确表达善意与邻居之间的来源关系。
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
A. 用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次。
hug polite actually chopstick if around the world
Welcome to World Cultural Exchange Channel. I’m your host, Li Yue. We are going to explore fascinating dining cultures ____51____—how people behave at the dinner table in different countries.
In China, children are taught how to use ____52____ properly from an early age. For example, never stick them into the food. Also, it’s ____53____ to hit an empty bowl with them.
In India, many people eat with their right hand. ____54____ you are not familiar with this custom, you might think it’s not clean. ____55____, it is an important part of Indian culture. Interestingly, in many South American countries, people ____56____ each other as a greeting before meals.
Different countries have different table manners, and that’s what makes our world so colorful.
【答案】51. around the world
52. chopsticks
53. impolite
54. If 55. Actually
56. hug
【解析】
【导语】本文以世界文化交流频道为背景,介绍了中国、印度、南美等不同国家和地区的餐桌礼仪与饮食文化,展现了世界饮食文化的多样性。
【51题详解】
句意:我们将探索世界各地迷人的饮食文化——不同国家的人们在餐桌上的行为习惯。结合后文“in different countries(在不同国家)”,around the world表示“世界各地”,符合节目探索全球饮食文化的语境。
【52题详解】
句意:在中国,孩子们从小就被教导如何正确使用筷子。结合后文“never stick them into the food(不要把它们插在食物里)”,chopstick表示“筷子”,此处用复数chopsticks,符合中国餐桌礼仪的语境。
【53题详解】
句意:此外,用筷子敲击空碗是不礼貌的。it’s + 形容词 + to do sth.是固定结构,结合中国餐桌礼仪常识,polite的否定形式impolite表示“不礼貌的”,符合敲击空碗是失礼行为的语境。
【54题详解】
句意:如果你不熟悉这个习俗,你可能会觉得它不干净。此处引导条件状语从句,if表示“如果”,符合“不熟悉习俗就会产生误解”的逻辑,句首首字母大写。
【55题详解】
句意:实际上,它是印度文化的重要组成部分。此处用副词修饰整个句子,actually表示“实际上、事实上”,用于纠正前文的误解,句首首字母大写。
【56题详解】
句意:有趣的是,在许多南美国家,人们在饭前互相拥抱作为问候。句子为一般现在时,主语people是复数,谓语动词用原形,hug表示“拥抱”,符合南美餐前问候的习俗。
B. 阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Sleeping in space is quite different from sleeping in our daily life. Because of zero gravity (失重), astronauts cannot ____57____ (躺) down on a bed. If they do, they will float around and be in danger. To ____58____ (解决) this problem, they sleep in special sleeping bags that are tied to the wall or a hook (钩子). This keeps them safe and stops them from floating away.
____59____ (另一个) big problem is the light. On the International Space Station (ISS), the sun rises and sets every 45 minutes because the station travels around the ____60____ (地球) much more quickly. As a result, astronauts need to wear special eye masks to ____61____ (保护) their eyes from the strong light.
Their sleeping place is also very small. On the ISS, each astronaut has his/her own private space — only the ____62____ (尺寸) of a telephone booth (电话亭). In some smaller spacecraft, they may have to sleep close ____63____ (一起) in an open area.
NASA expects astronauts to sleep 8.5 hours a day but studies show they often sleep only about 6 hours. Not getting ____64____ (足够) sleep is a serious problem for everyone. ____65____ (幸运), new technologies and better sleep plans are being developed to help them rest well in space.
【答案】57. lie
58. solve 59. Another
60. Earth 61. protect
62. size 63. together
64. enough 65. Luckily
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了宇航员在太空中的睡眠情况,说明了失重、光照、空间狭小等给宇航员睡眠带来的挑战,以及对应的解决办法和相关技术发展。
【57题详解】
句意:由于失重,宇航员不能躺在床上。情态动词cannot后接动词原形,“躺”的英文是lie。
【58题详解】
句意:为了解决这个问题,他们睡在固定在墙上或钩子上的特殊睡袋里。此处用不定式作目的状语,to后接动词原形,“解决”的英文是solve。
【59题详解】
句意:另一个大问题是光线。“另一个”修饰单数名词problem,英文是Another,句首首字母大写。
【60题详解】
句意:在国际空间站上,太阳每45分钟升起和落下一次,因为空间站绕地球运行得快得多。“地球”的英文是Earth,专有名词首字母大写。
【61题详解】
句意:因此,宇航员需要佩戴特殊的眼罩来保护他们的眼睛免受强光的伤害。此处用不定式作目的状语,to后接动词原形,“保护”的英文是protect。
【62题详解】
句意:在国际空间站上,每个宇航员都有自己的私人空间——只有电话亭那么大的尺寸。“尺寸”的英文是size,此处表示单数概念。
【63题详解】
句意:在一些更小的航天器上,他们可能不得不一起睡在开阔的区域。“一起”的英文是together,修饰动词sleep。
【64题详解】
句意:睡眠不足对每个人来说都是一个严重的问题。“足够的”修饰名词sleep,英文是enough。
【65题详解】
句意:幸运的是,新的技术和更好的睡眠计划正在被开发,以帮助他们在太空中好好休息。此处修饰整个句子,需用副词,“幸运”的副词形式是Luckily,句首首字母大写。
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
James Sun is a 39-year-old Chinese. He used to be ____66____ engineer. A few years ago, he was going through a dark period in his life. One day, some online videos of sand art suddenly calmed ____67____ (he) down. In the videos, the artists put colored sand into common bottles. They would then use a special tool ____68____ (make) the sand into any shape they needed.
James searched online for information on many famous sand art ____69____ (master). To learn from them, he traveled to different parts of China and other East Asian countries. ____70____ his journey to study was full of difficulties, he still kept going.
Later, as a big sports fan, he started to make sand art portraits (肖像) of well-known sportsmen. ____71____ 2023, James began posting his artworks online. These artworks soon became very popular. James now spends about ten hours a day making sand portraits. So far, he ____72____ (create) sand artworks for many famous companies.
James finds his new job very ____73____ (enjoy) and interesting. “When I gave up my engineering job, everyone thought I was crazy. But it is ____74____ (good) decision I’ve ever made in my life!” the artist said.
____75____ a wonderful life he has!
【答案】66. an 67. him
68. to make
69. masters
70. Although##Though
71. In 72. has created
73. enjoyable
74. the best
75. What
【解析】
【导语】本文讲述了James Sun从工程师转型为沙画艺术家的经历,描述了他接触沙画、克服困难创作以及事业成功的过程,体现了坚持与热爱的力量。
【66题详解】
句意:他曾经是一名工程师。此处表示泛指“一名”,engineer以元音音素开头,用不定冠词an。
【67题详解】
句意:有一天,一些沙画的网络视频突然让他平静下来。动词calmed后接人称代词宾格作宾语,he的宾格是him。
【68题详解】
句意:然后他们会用一种特殊的工具把沙子变成他们需要的任何形状。固定搭配use sth. to do sth.,表示用某物做某事,此处用不定式to make。
【69题详解】
句意:James在网上搜索了许多著名沙画大师的信息。many修饰可数名词复数,master的复数形式是masters。
【70题详解】
句意:尽管他的学习之旅充满了困难,但他仍然坚持。此处表示让步关系,用连词Although/Though,句首首字母大写。
【71题详解】
句意:在2023年,James开始在网上发布他的作品。在年份前用介词In,句首首字母大写。
【72题详解】
句意:到目前为止,他已经为许多著名公司创作了沙画作品。时间标志词So far表明需用现在完成时,结构为has/have+过去分词,主语he是单数,助动词用has,create的过去分词是created。
【73题详解】
句意:James发现他的新工作非常令人愉快且有趣。此处与interesting并列作宾补,需用形容词,enjoy的形容词形式是enjoyable。
【74题详解】
句意:但这是我一生中做过的最好的决定!根据范围I’ve ever made,需用形容词最高级,good的最高级是best,前面加定冠词the。
【75题详解】
句意:他过着多么美好的生活啊!这是一个感叹句,结构为What+a/an+形容词+可数名词单数+主语+谓语!故填What。
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76. 近期你校英语社团将开展以Manage Time, Manage Myself为主题的“时间管理达人”经验分享活动。请你根据以下要点,结合自身经历写一篇英语短文进行分享。
注意:1. 提供的信息仅供参考,可适当发挥;
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3. 词数80左右。首句已给出,不计入总词数。
Manage Time, Manage Myself
Hello, everyone! I’m glad to share my ideas about time management. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】
例文
Manage Time, Manage Myself
Hello, everyone! I’m glad to share my ideas about time management.
I think time management is really necessary and valuable. It helps us improve ourselves, make full use of every day and keep a good balance between study and life. To manage time well, I always make clear daily plans for my tasks. I also use free time wisely, like reading useful books instead of playing games. I never put off my work till tomorrow.
Good time management makes me a better person. Let’s manage our time well from now on.
【解析】
【详解】写作步骤解析
第一步:[审题立意]
确定文体:应用文,用一般现在时为主
明确要点:对时间管理的看法、原因、管理时间的方法
确定人称:第一人称(I/my)
注意事项:词数80左右,不得透露真实姓名和学校名称,可适当发挥
第二步:[构思布局]
三段式结构:
开头段:承接已给开头,引出时间管理的话题
主体段:说明对时间管理的看法、原因,介绍管理时间的方法
结尾段:总结升华,发出倡议
第三步:[要点展开]
要点一:对时间管理的看法
看法:time management is really necessary and valuable
原因:helps us improve ourselves, make full use of every day, keep balance between study and life
要点二:管理时间的方法
方法1:make clear daily plans for tasks
方法2:use free time wisely, like reading useful books instead of playing games
方法3:never put off work till tomorrow
要点三:总结升华
总结:Good time management makes me a better person, manage time well from now on
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