湖南汨罗市第一中学创新班2025-2026学年八年级上学期12月联考阶段英语学情自测

八年级创新班2025年12月联考 英语试题 分值：100分 时量100分钟 考试时间：2025年12月24日 姓名：________ 考号：________ 本试卷包括听力理解、阅读理解、语言运用和综合技能四部分，共8页，时量100分钟，满分100分。 注意事项： 1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名写在答题卡的指定位置。 2. 选择题和非选择题均在答题卡上作答，在问卷和草稿纸上作答无效。 3. 本卷共8页，如缺页，考生须及时报告监考老师，否则后果自负。 4. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Adam think of playing computer games? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Boring. B. Fun. C. Interesting. 2. How was the weather in Bangkok? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy. 3. How often does Mary watch the soap opera? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week. 4. When does the cartoon start on Sundays? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. At 5:30. B. At 6:00. C. At 6:30. 5. Who took the piano lesson yesterday? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Alice’s sister. B. Alice’s cousin. C. Alice. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Who makes breakfast for Eric? A. His father. B. His mother. C. His grandmother. 7. What food does Eric like? A. Apples. B. Bread. C. Pancakes. 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. When was the talent show? A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Wednesday. C. Last Thursday. 9. What is Dennis good at? A. Playing the piano. B. Playing soccer. C. Dancing. 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 10. Did Scott have a good time? A. Yes. B. No. C. I’m not sure. 11. What did Scott do? A. He lived in a big house. B. He visited a big zoo. C. He took many photos. 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 12. How old is Joe? A. 13. B. 14. C. 15. 13. What do Joe and Dave usually talk about? A. Their school lives. B. Their families. C. Their favorite sports. 14. What do the speakers want to do next? A. Go fishing. B. Go skating. C. Go swimming. 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 15. Where are the speakers? A. At home. B. In a supermarket. C. At a cinema. 16 When will the film start? A. At 7:10. B. At 7:20. C. At 7:30. 17 What’s the man going to do? A. Buy some food. B. Cook supper. C. Make a call. 听材料，回答各题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 18. What do Maria and Alice love? A. Cartoons. B. Action movies. C. Music shows. 19. What does Alice often help Maria with? A. Chinese. B. English. C. Math. 20. What does Alice want to tell us? A. Everyone needs a friend. B. Friends can be different. C. Friends in need are friends indeed. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Digital Media Summer Camp The digital media (数字媒体) summer camp is a great chance for students aged 7 to 18 to have STEM courses. Students can learn to build an app, program a robot, or explore the world of music production. STEM courses will also help students create, learn teamwork and solve problems. Students will learn from our teachers who have been employed for both their teaching experience and rich knowledge (知识) in their fields. Besides making new friends, students will leave with amazing final projects and lasting memories. Time: August 1st—August 31st Daily Schedule: 8:30 a.m.—10:00 a.m. Hands-on STEM Instruction 10:30 a.m.—12:00 p.m. Continued Instruction & amp; Creation 12:00 p.m.—1:30 p.m. Lunch Break 1:30 p.m.—3:00 p.m. Robot Programming 3:30 p.m.—4:30 p.m. Music Appreciation (鉴赏) 21. The digital media summer camp can help students in many ways EXCEPT (除了) ________. A. programming a robot, making an app or exploring music B. learning and creating with their parents C. making some new friends 22. Which word can best describe the teachers of the summer camp? A. Young. B. Humorous. C. Experienced. 23. If you join the camp, how many hours do you need to study for a day? A. 5.5 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 6.5 hours. B This summer, I went to my grandpa’s house in the countryside. There were no televisions or computer games, but that didn’t make me bored at all. Instead, I made friends with kids there quickly. Every morning, we ran to the hills behind the village to pick wild berries with excitement. In the afternoon, we caught grasshoppers (蚱蜢) in the golden fields. Those little insects jumped so fast, ▲ —some ran to stop their way, others caught them carefully in glass bottles. We let them go after a while. The nights were the best part of my trip. After dinner, we sat on the grass. The sky was dark, but the stars shone brightly like diamonds (钻石). For the first time, I saw the Big Dipper. Its seven stars looked just like a big spoon, and my friends told me how to find it easily. All the kids sat there, sharing things about the stars. I felt surprised by the night sky’s beauty—it was a whole new world, so different from the city. Nowadays, many of us are lost in short videos or online games. They look at screens for hours daily. However, the simple life in the countryside taught me that the beauty of the real world is far more amazing than any online game. It’s a great way for us to put down our phones, step outside, and let nature be our teacher. That summer, there were no phones or TVs, but I found joy in the “simple” things—and I’ll never forget those shining nights. 24. How did the writer feel according to Paragraph 1? A. Worried. B. Bored. C. Excited. 25. Which is the best sentence for ▲ ? A. but we often ran slowly B. and we sometimes saw one C. but we always worked together 26. What does the Big Dipper look like? A. B. C. 27. What’s the main purpose (目的) of the passage? A. To explain why using phones for too long is bad for eyes. B. To encourage readers to enjoy nature instead of screen time. C. To show the differences between the city and countryside life. C Can you say the meaning of “zero”? Can you do addition and subtraction (加减法)? Most people can. But do you know bees can do these things too? A study shows that bees have even greater math abilities. After some training, they can know the difference between even numbers (ending in 0, 2, 4, 6 and 8) and odd numbers (ending in 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9). Some Australian scientists put up different cards with an odd or even number of triangles (三角形). They used the numbers 1 to 10. Then they trained the first group of bees to choose odd numbers and the second group to choose even numbers. If a bee flew to the right card, it would get sugar water. If it chose the wrong card, it got bitter (苦的) water. In a short time, all the bees knew what odd numbers or even numbers were. They could fly to the right numbers 80% of the time. After that, the scientists added new cards with the numbers 11 and 12. The bees never saw the numbers in their training before, but they could choose rightly 70% of the time. Surprisingly, the bees even learned odd numbers more quickly than people. How did the bees learn the numbers so fast? Scientists didn’t have a clear idea. But they believe if they find the answer, it will help them build better and faster computers. After all, a bee’s brain is about 86,000 times smaller than ours! 28. How does the writer start the passage? A. By listing facts. B. By giving examples. C. By asking questions. 29. Which of the following cards should the second group of bees fly to? A. ①④ B. ②③ C. ①② 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Our brains are 8,600 times bigger than bees’. B. Bees like bitter water rather than sugar water. C. After training, bees can know the difference between even numbers and odd numbers. 31. What can we learn from the last paragraph? A. Bees have a great ability to learn numbers. B. Scientists know how bees learn numbers. C. Scientists know why bees can tell different numbers. 第二节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项多余选项。 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅使用一次，有一个多余选项。 Growing up means not only studying hard but also learning to be a responsible (负责的) member of the family. When I was a child, my parents did everything for me. ___32___ Now, I understand that sharing housework can make our home a happier place. My first regular job was taking out the rubbish. It seemed simple but remembering to do it every day was the real challenge. ___33___ I also learned to cook some simple dishes. At first, I was a little afraid of the stove (厨灶), but with my mom’s guidance, I successfully made scrambled eggs (炒鸡蛋). The proud smile on my parents’ faces made me feel great. ___34___ We created a chore chart and took turns doing different tasks. This not only kept our home clean but also brought us closer. We now have more time to relax together on weekends because the housework is done. So, don’t wait for your parents to ask you to help. Helping out at home teaches you important life skills. ___35___ Start with small tasks, and you will see the difference it makes in your family. A. Sharing housework makes everyone’s life easier. B. However, as I got older, I realized I should help out at home. C. Sometimes I forgot, and my parents would remind me patiently. D. My younger sister saw my efforts (努力) and started to help too. E. It also helps you understand the meaning of teamwork and responsibility. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My father was in the navy (海军), which meant that my mother married both my father and the sea. And we always had to ____36____ our things into boxes because we would prepare for the next leave at any time. We would arrive at our new home and find ourselves once again standing at the pier (码头) and waving goodbye to my father as his ____37____ pulled him away from us. Throughout the years of changing ____38____ , there was one in my childhood—my mother. No matter where we were, she was the mother and the “father”. Although she had to deal with a small budget, my mother would try to make each house into the very home that was ____39____ . Laughter filled every home we lived in. This probably sounds like a bad way to live, ____40____ with two small children. But it was not for my mother. She turned this difficulty into ____41____ for us all. Each relocation (搬迁) was a chance to explore another part of the world. My mother greeted each new culture, climate and neighbourhood. Each new house was a chance to rearrange furniture, make curtains and ____42____ pictures. No matter how ____43____ life was, she always had strength in the face of change. My mother was so ____44____ all those years during my childhood—she was my island in a sea of change. She is where home _____45_____ . 36. A. take B. bring C. pack 37. A. ship B. plane C. train 38. A. friends B. homes C. names 39. A. careful B. playful C. joyful 40. A. especially B. freshly C. hardly 41. A. treasure B. fight C. victory 42. A. stand up B. hang up C. look up 43. A. difficult B. easy C. comfortable 44. A. brave B. lazy C. weak 45. A. arrives B. dies C. lives 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Making Resolutions Do you know what a resolution is? A resolution is a promise that you make to ____46____ (you). People make resolutions ____47____ (improve) their life. The most common kind is a New Year’s resolution. After all, the start of the year is often ____48____ perfect time for making resolutions. Resolutions can be about anything. Some are about physical health. For example, some people may promise to exercise more or eat more ____49____ (healthy). Some resolutions have to do ____50____ learning new things. People might decide they are going to take up a hobby like painting or photography. And some resolutions have to do with self-improvement, like ____51____ (become) more confident or organized. For example, a student may decide to start a new study plan. Although there are ____52____ (difference), most resolutions have one thing in common: people hardly ever keep them! But there are good reasons for this. Sometimes the resolutions may be too difficult to keep. And sometimes people just forget about them. ____53____ (make) your resolutions work, you need to plan them ____54____ (wise). Always make sure your resolution is possible to achieve. Don’t set a goal that is too difficult or too much for you. Try to set mini-goals to help you achieve your resolution. And ____55____ you don’t want to forget your resolutions, write them down. Also, talk about them with your family and friends. Encourage them to remind you of your goals. So what resolutions are you going to make? How are you going to keep them? 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题2分。满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。 Recently, Su Bingtian, known as “Asia’s Flying Man”, has become very popular on Douyin. He finished his final match at the 2025 China National Games on November 20th. This men’s 4×100 m relay (接力赛) was the final run of his 21-year track and field career (田径生涯). Su started his sports life in 2004 when no Asian had run 100m under 10 seconds. To achieve his dream he made training plans: setting mini-goals, improving start speed (速度) and strength day by day. In 2011, he became Asia’s top runner with 10.16s. However, he wanted to run faster. In 2014, he bravely changed his starting leg—a difficult decision. That meant he had to start from zero. Following his new plan, his hard work paid off. In 2021, he finished in 9.83 seconds at the Tokyo Olympics and became the first Chinese athlete to run in the Olympic 100m final. 21 years later, his final match was full of ritual (仪式). After the race, Su took off his shoes and stood barefoot (赤脚) on the track. This reminded his fans of his early training days. With the song Can’t Say Goodbye playing, fans cheered loudly and called it “the most touching goodbye”. After retiring (退役), Su is going to lead Jinan University’s sports college, training young athletes. He tells young people: “Never let age hold you back. Try harder, and you can write your own story.” Indeed, with clear plans and persistence (坚持), everyone can be a “Su-perman”! 56. When did Su Bingtian end his 21-year track and field career? ______________________________________________________ 57. How did Su make his training plans? ______________________________________________________ 58. Why was it a hard decision for Su to change his starting leg? ______________________________________________________ 59. What did Su’s fans think of his final match? ______________________________________________________ 60. What do you think makes Su Bingtian’s dream come true? ______________________________________________________ 第二节（满分15分） 61. 每位同学都有自己的追求和梦想。为了了解同学们的理想，我们在学校的1000名学生中进行了一次调查采访。如图是相关的调查结果。 请你以“The Dream Jobs”为题写一篇英语短文。阐述调查结果并介绍自己的理想、原因及打算如何实现。 要求：1. 需包括图表信息，可适当发挥； 2. 词数不少于80（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； 3. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名。 The Dream Jobs Last week, we asked 1,000 students about their dream jobs in our school. Here are the results. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 八年级创新班2025年12月联考 英语试题 分值：100分 时量100分钟 考试时间：2025年12月24日 姓名：________ 考号：________ 本试卷包括听力理解、阅读理解、语言运用和综合技能四部分，共8页，时量100分钟，满分100分。 注意事项： 1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名写在答题卡的指定位置。 2. 选择题和非选择题均在答题卡上作答，在问卷和草稿纸上作答无效。 3. 本卷共8页，如缺页，考生须及时报告监考老师，否则后果自负。 4. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 【8~9题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. A 【10~11题答案】 【答案】10. A 11. C 【12~14题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. B 【15~17题答案】 【答案】15. C 16. C 17. A 【18~20题答案】 【答案】18. B 19. C 20. B 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. C 29. B 30. C 31. A 第二节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项多余选项。 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. B 33. C 34. D 35. E 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. C 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. yourself 47 to improve 48. a 49. healthily 50. with 51. becoming 52. differences 53. To make 54. wisely 55. if 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题2分。满分10分） 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. He ended his 21-year track and field career on November 20th at the 2025 China National Games. 57. By setting mini-goals, improving start speed and strength day by day. 58. Because that meant he had to start from zero. 59. They thought it was “the most touching goodbye”. 60. I think clear plans, hard work and persistence make his dream come true. 第二节（满分15分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 The Dream Jobs Last week, we asked 1,000 students about their dream jobs in our school. Here are the results. 54% want to be businessmen, hoping to get rich. 28% dream of being doctors to save sick people. 12% choose to be teachers to help students learn more, and 6% have other jobs, like artists. As for me, I want to be a teacher. I’m influenced by my math teacher—she explains problems patiently and makes classes fun. To achieve this, I’ll study hard, practice speaking in class presentations, and help classmates patiently. I believe I can become a good teacher one day. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $英语试卷听力部分。听录音，从题中所给的选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完后。你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读。下一小题。How often do you play computer games? Adam, I hardly play them. I don't think playing computer games as as interesting as reading books. How often do you play computer games? Adam, I hardly play them. I don't think playing computer games as as interesting as reading books. Was IT Sunny when you were in bangkok, thailand? No IT rained heavily during our stay. Was IT Sunny when you were in bangkok, thailand? No IT rained heavily during our stay. Mary, do you like watching the sop? Opera is very popular now. Yes, I can't help seeing what happens next, so I watch IT everyday. Mary, do you like watching the soap Opera? It's very popular now. Yes, I can't help seeing what happens next, so I watch IT everyday. Linda, it's five and a half. Let's go home and watch the cartoon. IT will start in half an hour. Take IT easy. The cartoon starts at six and a half on sundays. Linda, it's fine than a half. Let's go home and watch the cartoon. IT will start in half an hour. Take IT easy. The cartoon starts at six and a half on sundays. Alice, did you go shopping with your sister yesterday? No, he went to take the piano lesson. So I went there with my cousin. Alice, did you go shopping with your sister yesterday? No, he went to take the piano lesson. So I went there with my cousin. 听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。Good morning, eric. Do you usually have breakfast at home? Yes. my father always gets up early to make IT for us. What do you usually have for breakfast? pancakes? They are my favorite food. I also eat an egg every morning. You are a happy boy. Good morning, erik. Do you usually have breakfast at home? Yes, my father always gets up early to make IT for us. What do you usually have for breakfast? pancakes? They are my favorite food. I also eat an egg every morning. You are a happy boy. 听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。Did you watch the talent show last thursday? Mike, of course, IT was fantastic, and my brother was one of the performers. really. Then I know your brother. He one second prize, and his name . is Dennis Brown. Yeah, Dennis Brown is really good at playing the piano. Did you watch the talent show last thursday? Mike, of course, IT was fantastic. And my brother was one of the performers. really. Then I know your brother. He won second prize and his name . is Dennis Brown. Yeah, Dennis Brown. He is really good at playing the piano. 听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。Did you enjoy your vacations? Ghan, yes, I went camping with my friends on the first day. We lived in a big ten and cooked our food over the fire. Sounds wonderful. What did you do in the next few days? We visited a big farm and lived there. The farmers were friendly. They showed us around and took quite a few photos. Do you want to . have a look? sure. Did you enjoy your vacations gone? yes. I went camping with my friends on the first day. We lived in a big ten and cooked our food over the fire. Sounds wonderful. What did you do in the next few days? We visited a big farm and lived there. The farmers were friendly. They showed us around and took quite a few photos. Do you want . to have a look? sure. 听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。What are you doing, joe? I'm writing an email to my friend dave in the U. K. He is fourteen years old. We are of the same age. Do you often write to him? no. About once a month, we usually talk about our school lives. I see, oh, would you like to go skating with me after . finishing IT? Sure, i'd love to. I can finish IT in half . an hour. Okay, what are you doing, joe? I'm writing an email to my friend dave in the U. K. He is fourteen years old. We are of the same age. Do you often write to him? No, about once a month, we usually talk about our school lives. I see. Oh, would you like to go skating with me after finishing IT? Sure, i'd love to. I can finish IT in half an hour. okay? 听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。I don't know why we have come here. It's so far from home and there are so many people. Believe me. You will love the big screen and comfortable seats. Alright, it's seven, twenty. When will the film start . in ten minutes? Could you please go and buy some food? Are you joking? We just had supper at home. I just . think we need to eat something when we see . the film OK. I will be back soon. I don't know why we have come here. It's so far from home and there are so many people. Believe me, you will love the big screen and comfortable seats. All right, it's seven, twenty. When will the film . start in ten minutes? Could you please go and buy some food? Are you joking? We just had supper at home. I just think we need to eat something when . we see the film. Okay, I will be back soon. 听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。听下面一段录音，回答以下几个小题。I'm Alice. This is my best friend maria. Maria and I are classmates. Both of us are tall, but maria is a little thinner than me. We love playing computer games a lot, so both of us wear glasses also. We both love watching action movies. However, we are different in many ways where real loves sports more than I do. SHE plays sports every day, but I play just once a week, but I do Better in the school work. I often help maria with math. Maria is an outgoing girl. SHE talks a lot, and i'm always the listener. I think friends can be different as long as they feel comfortable being with each other. I'm Alice. This is my best friend maria. Maria and I are classmates. Both of us are tall, but maria is a little thinner than me. We love playing computer games a lot, so both of us wear glasses also. We both love watching action movies. However, we are different in many ways where real loves sports more than I do. SHE plays sports every day, but I play just once a week, but I do Better in the school work. I often help mario with math. Maria is an outgoing girl. SHE talks a lot, and i'm always the listener. I think friends can be different as long as they feel comfortable being with each other. 听力部分到此结束。