英语一模提分卷02（浙江专用）学易金卷：2026年中考第一次模拟考试

2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1． 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3．答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 听下面五段短对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How is the weather today? A．Rainy. B．Sunny. C．Cloudy. 2．Which season does the man like? A．Spring. B．Autumn. C．Winter. 3．What does the sign say? A．No smoking. B．No drinking. C．No touching. 4．When will the film start? A．At 8:30. B．At 9:00. C．At 9:30. 5．What will Jack do next? A．Go to bed. B．Listen to music. C．Take a shower. 第二节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面两段较长对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10至15秒的时间回答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答6-7小题。听对话前，你将有10秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 6．Why does Tom choose to volunteer in the library? A．To finish a project. B．To make friends. C．To encourage kids. 7．How long will the volunteer work last? A．For 6 hours. B．For 7 hours. C．For 8 hours. 听下面一段对话, 回答8-10小题，听对话前，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 8．Who does Betty want to talk to? A．David. B．Tony. C．John. 9．Why was John in hospital? A．A car hit him. B．He had a cold. C．He fell off his bike. 10．What is David going to do tomorrow? A．See a doctor. B．Do some shopping. C．Visit his friend. 第三节：听独白，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面一段独白。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读有关内容；听完后，你将有25秒钟的 作答时间。独白读两遍。 11．When will the students go to the Community Center? A．This Friday. B．Next Monday. C．Next Wednesday. 12．Who need to wear the blue school T-shirts? A．Students from Grade Nine. B．Students from Grade Eight. C．Students from Grade Seven. 13．Where will the singing and dancing shows be held? A．In the school hall. B．In the playground. C．Near the school gate. 14．How can students join the Green School project? A．By selling old books. B．By singing and dancing. C．By bringing plastic bottles. 15．How many activities are mentioned? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Iron Age started about 3,200 years ago and lasted for around 1,000 years, depending on the area. During the Iron Age, people began using iron tools and weapons instead of bronze (铜) ones. Tools Iron tools allowed farmers and builders to work better. They were able to grow more crops, clear land for farms, and build bigger buildings. Weapons Iron weapons were lighter and cheaper to make than weapons made from bronze. Well-made iron weapons were also stronger and sharper than bronze ones. Having good weapons meant societies could build powerful armies. Making iron Making iron objects is a process that needs great skill and care. The iron must be made very hot before it can be shaped into a weapon or a tool. How we shape iron today is similar to how iron age craftsmen performed the task. 1. Dig it out. Iron is dug from the ground in lumps, called iron ore (矿石). 2. Heat it up. The iron ore is heated to high temperatures to make it melt. 3. Pour it in. The melted iron is poured into a shaped mold and left to cool. 16．How long did the Iron Age last? A．Over 4,200 years. B．About 3,200 years. C．About 2,200 years. D．Around 1,000 years. 17．What can we learn from the text? A．Iron tools helped people work better than before. B．It was lighter and cheaper to make bronze weapons. C．The process of making iron objects needs little skill. D．The first step to shape iron is to heat up the iron ore. 18．In which part of the magazine can we read the text? A．Story Time. B．Art and Music. C．History. D．Sports News. B Robert Adolf fell in love with Chinese culture when, as a child, he watched the 1998 Disney cartoon, Mulan. He never thought that he would one day work in China. Adolf was born in Germany in 1997. After graduating from Kotztanz University in 2017, he came to China. At the beginning he lived in Lianyungang and later in northern Jiangsu. After living in China for several years, Adolf learned that there are 56 ethnic groups (少数民族) in China. “It is amazing! Why not show their special culture to the world?” said the young man who’s also known as Baozi. He gave himself the nickname because the first meal he had after arriving in China was baozi. In July 2021, Adolf and three of his Chinese friends decided to film a documentary of China’s ethnic groups. Two months later, they set out from Lianyungang and drove all the way to Guizhou. They recorded the cultures of Tujia, Miao, Dong, Yao, Shui and others along the way. “In Guizhou, you can truly experience the colorful lives of different ethnic groups,” said Robert. While filming in Guizhou, Robert took part in celebrations for the Duan Festival of the Shui People’s. It’s their New Year. During the festival, they worship (敬奉) their ancestors, sing traditional songs, and watch horse races. The celebrations usually last for nearly two months. It is known as the “longest national festival in the world”. His short videos have been praised by people from China and abroad. “After watching these videos, many foreigners feel surprised to discover that ▲ . Many of them want to visit China, too,” Adolf said. “This is exactly what I want.” Adolf hasn’t set a timetable for his short video project. But one thing is for sure: he will keep on filming. One day he will finish recording all of the ethnic groups in China! 19．Who gave Adolf the nickname Baozi? A．His parents. B．His teachers. C．His friends. D．He himself. 20．Which is the correct time order of the following events? ①Adolf’s videos have won praise all over the world. ②Adolf made up his mind to film a documentary. ③Adolf came to China after graduating from university. ④Adolf celebrated the Duan Festival with the Shui people. A．③②④① B．②④③① C．②③④① D．③④①② 21．What is the best choice for ▲ ? A．China is such a beautiful and modern country B．China has so many beautiful places and cultures C．it’s cheap for foreigners to travel around China D．a German can be so good at filming China’s cultures 22．What is the best title for the text? A．Feeling Chinese Culture in Guizhou. B．Making New Friends in China. C．Planning a Short Video Project. D．Seeing the Beauty of China by Videos. C ①Everybody enjoys acts of kindness. But can you explain why? Some people think kindness is something out of love and care, while others believe it is just a tool that we use to become more popular. But research shows that being kind can activate (激活) an area of the brain called Striatum. Research also shows that kindness improves people’s mood (情绪). But why and how does it happen? Here are a number of different ways. ②Being kind can make someone smile. If you see yourself smile in a situation, people around may be smiling, too. This is specially true for your close friends and family. A kind act makes someone who is sad feel better. It can also make ourselves feel good. So why not set off that chain (链条) of good feelings to people around? ③Secondly, being kind starts or develops a social connection with others. Kind acts like buying someone a present make friendships stronger. Research has shown that spending money on others may help you get a stronger feeling of happiness than spending it on yourself. Similarly, charities (慈善) also open up new circles of people to connect with someone on the other side of the world. ④In another recent research, even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy. If one person is kind, he or she makes others in the group kind. It also lifts everyone’s spirits. Imagine that you make cakes for the office and it makes others do it each month. Then you’re getting cakes a lot more days than providing them. ⑤All in all, being kind may improve your mood, but research has also shown that if you’re in a good mood, you can act much more kindly. This makes it a wonderful two-way relationship, doesn’t it? 23．The writer leads in the topic by ________. A．telling a story B．asking questions C．giving examples D．making a survey 24．What is Paragraph 4 mainly about? A．The way how kindness can make people happy. B．The way why kindness can make people happy. C．A story why happy children can act more kindly. D．A story how happy children can act more kindly. 25．Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in this article? A．Being kind could improve your mood. B．Being kind can help you get good grades. C．A kind act can make people around happy. D．A kind act can lift everyone’s spirits in a group. 26．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． D ①How would you feel if you couldn’t use the Internet on your phone for two weeks? ②Surprisingly, some people felt better after doing just that! New research suggests that turning off your smartphone’s Internet can improve your mental health, your ability to focus (专注), and your sense of well-being. ③A group of researchers in the United States and Canada wanted to know how turning off the Internet on smartphones would influence people’s feelings. They studied 467 people aged between 18 and 74. These people used a special app that blocked the Internet on their phones for two weeks. They could still make calls and send text messages. ④The researchers asked the people questions about their feelings and tested how well they could focus. The results were very interesting! About 91% of people felt better in at least one area—either their mood (情绪), their focus, or their overall happiness. Seventy-one percent said they had better mental health after the two weeks, and 73% said they had improved well-being. The people also did better on focus tests—like they were 10 years younger! ⑤Looking more deeply into the reasons for these changes, the researchers found that when people weren’t using the Internet, they spent more time outside, got more exercise, met and talked to others. ⑥It was hard for many people to stay offline for two full weeks. In fact, only 25% actually did so! However, even those who only blocked the Internet for part of the time showed improvements. Some people kept using their phones less even after the two weeks were over. ⑦Although completely blocking the Internet from our smartphones might be difficult, the study shows that using it less—like spending less time on some apps—can help us feel better too. 27．What does the underlined word “that” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A．Sending text messages to friends. B．Using a special app to play games. C．Not using the Internet on smartphones for two weeks. D．Asking questions about people’s feelings. 28．Which of the following question can be answered according to Paragraph 3? A．What did the focus tests look like? B．What age group did the people in the study belong to? C．Why do people feel better after being offline? D．How many people finished the whole two-week test? 29．What would people probably do after stopping using the Internet according to the study? A．Start playing online games. B．Watch more videos at home. C．Stop using phones completely. D．Spend more time doing sports. 30．What happened to some people after the study ended? A．They wanted to take the tests again. B．They never used their phones again. C．They used the Internet less than before. D．They used the Internet more than before. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选择正确的选项，将其序号填入前4个小题 (有一项为多余选项)，并结合文本内容回答最后一题。 A TEAM FOR LIFE A successful team projectSarah successfully completed a science project with her team, and the reporter asked her to share something about it. Reporter: 31 Sarah: Our class had to do a group project on renewable energy. My team studied different types like solar and wind power. Then we built a small model to show them. Reporter: What was the best part of working in the team? Sarah: It was dividing up the work. We each studied a different energy type. Then we came together to decide what to focus on for the model. Reporter: Were there any challenges? Sarah: At first it was hard to agree on which to choose. We all had different ideas. So we had to make a plan to work on the project together. Reporter: 32 Sarah: We communicated a lot and listened to each other. When we couldn’t agree, we voted. We’ve also taken lots of photos to record the process, and when we look back at them, they do bring back all those happy moments. Good to know Reporter: 33 Sarah: The listener quietly keeps an eye on you and is willing to listen whenever you want to talk. The fixer shows an amazing ability to solve problems. They can suggest creative solutions to problems with your studies, and even relationships. The organizer knows you well and is always good at making plans. This helpful person enjoys planning trips, buying tickets and much more. The reporter takes photos of everything your team does and posts them on the Internet. 34 They’re always sharing whatever you do together. A．How did you manage to solve the problem? B．Different people play different roles in a team. C．Why did you choose them as your teammates? D．This person helps build a good relationship in the team. E．Tell us about the science project you worked on with your team. 35. What do you want to be in a team? Why? (不超过20词) 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 阅读下面短文，掌握大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 On Sep. 17, 2022, Jeff Agar, and his son Johnny Agar, set out to begin the first part of the Ironman competition in Cambridge. They weren’t the common 36 . Johnny had difficulty walking because of muscle (肌肉) weakness. Jeff would act as his arms and 37 , carrying the weight of his son during the whole race. Competitors must complete a difficult 140 miles of 38 , bicycling and running in under 17 hours. The race began with a 2.4-mile swim in the Choptank River. Jeff helped Johnny 39 a kayak (皮划艇), with one end of a rope tied to his back and the other to the kayak. Swimming with his son was hard enough 40 Jeff also had to fight with fish. “It’s a hard journey, but we 41 it,” Jeff said excitedly. The pair completed the swim in 90 42 , and they went on to the next part: a 112-mile bicycle ride. Their 43 bike had an extra seat in the back for Johnny. They completed the ride in nine hours, then began the final—a 26.2-mile marathon with Jeff 44 Johnny in the racing chair. But at mile 19, Jeff realized they were going too 45 . Somehow he found the energy to speed up. With minutes left and 200 feet to the 46 line, Jeff stopped to help Johnny out of his racing chair. Johnny decided to finish his race 47 . “Not because I wouldn’t get my moment,” he said, “but because Dad had worked so 48 .” With 4 minutes and 25 seconds left, father and son crossed the finish line together. 49 the crowd cheered on Johnny, Jeff kept a low profile. “He didn’t want his finish line moment. He wanted it to be 50 ,” said Johnny, smiling at Jeff. 36．A．visitors B．workers C．volunteers D．players 37．A．eyes B．knees C．legs D．hands 38．A．jumping B．dancing C．walking D．swimming 39．A．wait for B．take away C．get into D．move out 40．A．but B．and C．if D．or 41．A．make B．find C．promise D．leave 42．A．seconds B．minutes C．hours D．days 43．A．free B．empty C．tiny D．special 44．A．throwing B．moving C．feeding D．lifting 45．A．quickly B．normally C．slowly D．differently 46．A．life B．finish C．safety D．bottom 47．A．in one go B．with no effort C．on his own D．without doubt 48．A．hard B．fast C．easily D．closely 49．A．As B．How C．Why D．Where 50．A．his B．yours C．mine D．theirs 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 natural  along  month  give  right away Sidney is a swan (天鹅). His best friend is Bob, a 39-year-old builder. Bob found Sidney in May when he walked 51 the river. The baby swan had two large wounds on his neck. Bob took the bird home and 52 him food to eat. He named him Sidney and took care of him. In July, Bob took Sidney to a wildlife center. This way, he could live in a more 53 environment. But three 54 later, workers at the center asked Bob to take the swan back. They found that Sidney was unhappy at the center and didn’t sleep much. When Sidney heard Bob’s voice, he ran over to him 55 . “I felt like a proud father seeing him come home,” Bob said. B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 Sleep is essential for our health. Adults usually need 6 to 8 hours of sleep one night. This 56 (意思) we spend nearly 1/3 of our lives sleeping. But why is sleep so important? In fact, sleep serves several important purposes for our brains and 57 (身体). First, sleep helps our brains work 58 (更好). When we are awake, our brains produce waste. How do we get rid of it? Well, sleep plays a key 59 (角色) in clearing out these waste products at night. This process helps us 60 (唤醒) up well and keep our minds clear. Without enough sleep, we may find it difficult to remember things. Students 61 (尤其) need good sleep to help their memory. If you want to remember something, a good night’s sleep is what you need. Second, sleep is important for our 62 (体重)! Research shows that people who don’t get enough sleep may gain pounds more easily. Lack of sleep can also cause muscle loss. Moreover, poor sleep can also cause health risks 63 (像) heart disease or high blood pressure. So, what should we do? The answer is simple. Place more importance to sleep. Experts suggest 6 to 8 hours of quality sleep 64 (每个) night. Monitoring sleep has been easier thanks to 65 (现代的) health-tracking technology. By making sure we get enough rest, we can protect our health, improve memory, and stay strong. 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Australia is an English-speaking country. Its capital is Canberra and three of its 66 (big) cities are Sydney, Melbourne and Brisbane. Australia is the 67 (six) largest country in the world, but only about 26.8 million people live there. Much of the land 68 (cover) by desert, so about eighty percent of the people live on the coast. The climate is better there. But some people live in unusual places. One of them is 69 small town called Coober Pedy. Coober Pedy is in the South Australian desert. On summer days, it can be as hot 70 52℃! For this reason, more than half people live under the ground. The temperature is always 71 (surprising) comfortable there. Underground homes have kitchens, bathrooms, bedrooms and living rooms. Everyday life in Coober Pedy is not very different from any other town. People go to work or school, do chores, watch TV and spend time with 72 (they) friends and family. Coober Pedy has lots of 73 (visitor) every year. People come to stay in the underground hotels. There are also underground shops, cafés 74 museums. On summer nights, when it isn’t too hot, people can go above the ground and play golf (高尔夫球运动). It’s not easy 75 (lose) golf balls because they can glow (发出暗淡的光) in the dark! 第四部分 书面表达（共1题，满分20分） 76．假如你是李华，你的澳大利亚朋友 Lily 下个月要来中国旅游。她想了解中国人平时在节假日里喜欢做的休闲活动，希望你帮她推荐一个有趣的活动。请你写一封邮件给她，介绍一种中国人喜欢的节日休闲方式，并说明它的内容、乐趣及推荐理由。 I want to know some fun activities that Chinese people like to do during holidays. Flying kites ·popular in spring ·fun, relaxing, and good for health ·enjoy nature Watching traditional shows ·include opera, puppet (木偶) shows, and dragon dances ·often held in squares or theaters ·show Chinese culture 要求： (1)邮件需包含所选活动至少两点相关信息，可适当发挥； (2)文章不得出现真实姓名等个人信息； (3)词数：80-100 词(邮件的称呼和落款计入总词数)。 Dear Lily, I’m glad to know you’re coming to China soon! ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1． 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3．答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 听下面五段短对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How is the weather today? A．Rainy. B．Sunny. C．Cloudy. 【答案】B 【原文】M: How about going camping this afternoon? W: Sounds great. It’s sunny and not cold or hot, just right for camping. 2．Which season does the man like? A．Spring. B．Autumn. C．Winter. 【答案】C 【原文】W: I like spring because it’s warm and everything comes to life. What about you? M: I like winter best because I can go skating. 3．What does the sign say? A．No smoking. B．No drinking. C．No touching. 【答案】C 【原文】W: Stop! Don’t touch it. Can’t you see the sign? M: I’m sorry. I didn’t see that. 4．When will the film start? A．At 8:30. B．At 9:00. C．At 9:30. 【答案】C 【原文】W: Hurry up! It’s 9 o’clock now. M: Don’t worry. The film starts at 9:30. We still have half an hour left. 5．What will Jack do next? A．Go to bed. B．Listen to music. C．Take a shower. 【答案】C 【原文】W: It’s time for bed, Jack. Why are you still listening to music? M: OK, mom. But I need to take a shower first. 第二节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面两段较长对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10至15秒的时间回答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答6-7小题。听对话前，你将有10秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 6．Why does Tom choose to volunteer in the library? A．To finish a project. B．To make friends. C．To encourage kids. 7．How long will the volunteer work last? A．For 6 hours. B．For 7 hours. C．For 8 hours. 【答案】6．C 7．B 【原文】W: Do you have any plans for the weekend, Tom? M: Yes, I’m going to volunteer in the city library on Sunday. W: Sounds good. Why do you choose to volunteer in the library? M: I love books and I want to encourage more kids to read. Do you want to join me? W: Sure. What exactly will we do there? M: We will help organize books and help kids in picking stories to read. W: I see. When does it begin? M: At 9 in the morning, then we can leave at four in the afternoon. W: Okay, see you then. 听下面一段对话, 回答8-10小题，听对话前，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 8．Who does Betty want to talk to? A．David. B．Tony. C．John. 9．Why was John in hospital? A．A car hit him. B．He had a cold. C．He fell off his bike. 10．What is David going to do tomorrow? A．See a doctor. B．Do some shopping. C．Visit his friend. 【答案】8．B 9．C 10．C 【原文】M: Hello, this is David speaking. W: Hi, David! This is Betty. I’m calling to speak to Tony. M: Tony is not in now. He is doing some shopping. Can I take a message? W: Yes, of course. Thanks. Please tell him that John is in hospital. M: What happened to John? W: A car nearly hit him this morning. Luckily, the car stopped just in time. But he fell off his bike and hurt his leg. Though it’s nothing serious. I think we should go and see him. M: I agree with you. And I’d like to go with you. When are you going? W: How about ten o’ clock tomorrow morning? M: That’s fine. W: Don’t forget to tell Tony about that. See you then. M: No problem. See you. 第三节：听独白，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面一段独白。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读有关内容；听完后，你将有25秒钟的 作答时间。独白读两遍。 11．When will the students go to the Community Center? A．This Friday. B．Next Monday. C．Next Wednesday. 12．Who need to wear the blue school T-shirts? A．Students from Grade Nine. B．Students from Grade Eight. C．Students from Grade Seven. 13．Where will the singing and dancing shows be held? A．In the school hall. B．In the playground. C．Near the school gate. 14．How can students join the Green School project? A．By selling old books. B．By singing and dancing. C．By bringing plastic bottles. 15．How many activities are mentioned? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 【答案】11．A 12．A 13．A 14．C 15．B 【原文】  Good morning, Sunshine Middle school. This is your school radio host Amy. Here are some fun activities for you. First, our volunteer day will be held this Friday afternoon from 1:30 to 4:30. All Grade Nine students will go to the community Center near our school. We’ll chat with the old people and help the kids with their English. Don’t forget to wear your blue school T-shirts. Also, the art festival organized by the music club and the art club is coming next Monday. Students will show their amazing talents in music and art. You can enjoy wonderful singing and dancing shows in the school hall. Some colorful artworks will also be on show in the library. Last, don’t forget our Green School project. From next week, bring some plastic bottles and old books to the recycle area near the school gate every Wednesday afternoon. The class with the most bottles and books will get small prizes. For more information about the project, ask Mr. Li in Room 305. That’s all for today. Have a good week. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Iron Age started about 3,200 years ago and lasted for around 1,000 years, depending on the area. During the Iron Age, people began using iron tools and weapons instead of bronze (铜) ones. Tools Iron tools allowed farmers and builders to work better. They were able to grow more crops, clear land for farms, and build bigger buildings. Weapons Iron weapons were lighter and cheaper to make than weapons made from bronze. Well-made iron weapons were also stronger and sharper than bronze ones. Having good weapons meant societies could build powerful armies. Making iron Making iron objects is a process that needs great skill and care. The iron must be made very hot before it can be shaped into a weapon or a tool. How we shape iron today is similar to how iron age craftsmen performed the task. 1. Dig it out. Iron is dug from the ground in lumps, called iron ore (矿石). 2. Heat it up. The iron ore is heated to high temperatures to make it melt. 3. Pour it in. The melted iron is poured into a shaped mold and left to cool. 16．How long did the Iron Age last? A．Over 4,200 years. B．About 3,200 years. C．About 2,200 years. D．Around 1,000 years. 17．What can we learn from the text? A．Iron tools helped people work better than before. B．It was lighter and cheaper to make bronze weapons. C．The process of making iron objects needs little skill. D．The first step to shape iron is to heat up the iron ore. 18．In which part of the magazine can we read the text? A．Story Time. B．Art and Music. C．History. D．Sports News. 【答案】16．D 17．A 18．C 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章简要介绍了铁器时代的时间跨度、铁制工具与武器相比青铜制品的优势，以及铁器的基本制作流程，展现了铁器时代的技术特征及其对人类社会的影响。 16．细节理解题。根据第一段“The Iron Age started about 3,200 years ago and lasted for around 1,000 years, depending on the area.”可知，铁器时代持续了大约1000年。故选D。 17．细节理解题。根据第二段“Iron tools allowed farmers and builders to work better.”可知，铁制工具让农民和建筑工人能够更好地工作，选项A表述与原文相符；其他选项，选项B与原文“Iron weapons were lighter and cheaper to make than weapons made from bronze.”意思相反，选项C与原文“Making iron objects is a process that needs great skill and care.”意思相反，选项D与原文描述的炼铁步骤“1. Dig it out.”不符。故选A。 18．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了铁器时代这一历史时期的特点、工具武器的进步以及生产工艺，内容属于历史知识的范畴。因此，最有可能在杂志的“历史”栏目中读到这篇文章。故选C。 B Robert Adolf fell in love with Chinese culture when, as a child, he watched the 1998 Disney cartoon, Mulan. He never thought that he would one day work in China. Adolf was born in Germany in 1997. After graduating from Kotztanz University in 2017, he came to China. At the beginning he lived in Lianyungang and later in northern Jiangsu. After living in China for several years, Adolf learned that there are 56 ethnic groups (少数民族) in China. “It is amazing! Why not show their special culture to the world?” said the young man who’s also known as Baozi. He gave himself the nickname because the first meal he had after arriving in China was baozi. In July 2021, Adolf and three of his Chinese friends decided to film a documentary of China’s ethnic groups. Two months later, they set out from Lianyungang and drove all the way to Guizhou. They recorded the cultures of Tujia, Miao, Dong, Yao, Shui and others along the way. “In Guizhou, you can truly experience the colorful lives of different ethnic groups,” said Robert. While filming in Guizhou, Robert took part in celebrations for the Duan Festival of the Shui People’s. It’s their New Year. During the festival, they worship (敬奉) their ancestors, sing traditional songs, and watch horse races. The celebrations usually last for nearly two months. It is known as the “longest national festival in the world”. His short videos have been praised by people from China and abroad. “After watching these videos, many foreigners feel surprised to discover that ▲ . Many of them want to visit China, too,” Adolf said. “This is exactly what I want.” Adolf hasn’t set a timetable for his short video project. But one thing is for sure: he will keep on filming. One day he will finish recording all of the ethnic groups in China! 19．Who gave Adolf the nickname Baozi? A．His parents. B．His teachers. C．His friends. D．He himself. 20．Which is the correct time order of the following events? ①Adolf’s videos have won praise all over the world. ②Adolf made up his mind to film a documentary. ③Adolf came to China after graduating from university. ④Adolf celebrated the Duan Festival with the Shui people. A．③②④① B．②④③① C．②③④① D．③④①② 21．What is the best choice for ▲ ? A．China is such a beautiful and modern country B．China has so many beautiful places and cultures C．it’s cheap for foreigners to travel around China D．a German can be so good at filming China’s cultures 22．What is the best title for the text? A．Feeling Chinese Culture in Guizhou. B．Making New Friends in China. C．Planning a Short Video Project. D．Seeing the Beauty of China by Videos. 【答案】19．D 20．A 21．B 22．D 【导语】本文讲述了德国青年Robert Adolf因喜爱中国文化来到中国，通过拍摄短视频记录中国少数民族文化并受到中外好评的故事。 19．细节理解题。根据“He gave himself the nickname because the first meal he had after arriving in China was baozi.”可知，Adolf的昵称是他自己取的。故选D。 20．细节理解题。根据“After graduating… he came to China…”可知③最先；根据“In July 2021… decided to film a documentary.”可知②其后；再根据“While filming in Guizhou… took part in… Duan Festival.”可知④随后；最后“His short videos have been praised…”可知①最后。顺序为③②④①。故选A。 21．推理判断题。根据“many foreigners feel surprised to discover that… Many of them want to visit China, too.”可知，空格应体现外国人对中国之美与文化之丰富感到惊讶。B项“中国有如此多美丽的地方和文化”符合语境。故选B。 22．最佳标题题。全文围绕Adolf拍摄短视频向世界展示中国之美展开，最适合作标题的是D项“通过视频看见中国之美”。故选D。 C ①Everybody enjoys acts of kindness. But can you explain why? Some people think kindness is something out of love and care, while others believe it is just a tool that we use to become more popular. But research shows that being kind can activate (激活) an area of the brain called Striatum. Research also shows that kindness improves people’s mood (情绪). But why and how does it happen? Here are a number of different ways. ②Being kind can make someone smile. If you see yourself smile in a situation, people around may be smiling, too. This is specially true for your close friends and family. A kind act makes someone who is sad feel better. It can also make ourselves feel good. So why not set off that chain (链条) of good feelings to people around? ③Secondly, being kind starts or develops a social connection with others. Kind acts like buying someone a present make friendships stronger. Research has shown that spending money on others may help you get a stronger feeling of happiness than spending it on yourself. Similarly, charities (慈善) also open up new circles of people to connect with someone on the other side of the world. ④In another recent research, even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy. If one person is kind, he or she makes others in the group kind. It also lifts everyone’s spirits. Imagine that you make cakes for the office and it makes others do it each month. Then you’re getting cakes a lot more days than providing them. ⑤All in all, being kind may improve your mood, but research has also shown that if you’re in a good mood, you can act much more kindly. This makes it a wonderful two-way relationship, doesn’t it? 23．The writer leads in the topic by ________. A．telling a story B．asking questions C．giving examples D．making a survey 24．What is Paragraph 4 mainly about? A．The way how kindness can make people happy. B．The way why kindness can make people happy. C．A story why happy children can act more kindly. D．A story how happy children can act more kindly. 25．Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in this article? A．Being kind could improve your mood. B．Being kind can help you get good grades. C．A kind act can make people around happy. D．A kind act can lift everyone’s spirits in a group. 26．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． 【答案】23．B 24．A 25．B 26．A 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，文章向我们介绍了善良可以改善人们情绪的不同方式。 23．细节理解题。根据“But why and how does it happen? Here are a number of different ways.”可知，作者通过提问来引出主题。故选B。 24．主旨大意题。通读第四段“In another recent research, even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy…”可知本段主要讲述了善良如何让人们开心。故选A。 25．推理判断题。根据“kindness improves people’s mood (情绪)”可知善良可以改善情绪，根据“If you see yourself smile in a situation, people around may be smiling, too.”可知善良的行为可以让身边的人开心，根据“If one person is kind, he or she makes others in the group kind. It also lifts everyone’s spirits.”可知善良的行为可以振奋一个小组里每个人的精神，选项B“善良可以帮助你取得好成绩。”文中没有提及。故选B。 26．篇章结构题。第一段设问，引出文章主题；第二、三、四段介绍了善良可以改善人们情绪的三种情形；第五段总结善良可以改善情绪，呼应主题。所以全文是总分总结构。故选A。 D ①How would you feel if you couldn’t use the Internet on your phone for two weeks? ②Surprisingly, some people felt better after doing just that! New research suggests that turning off your smartphone’s Internet can improve your mental health, your ability to focus (专注), and your sense of well-being. ③A group of researchers in the United States and Canada wanted to know how turning off the Internet on smartphones would influence people’s feelings. They studied 467 people aged between 18 and 74. These people used a special app that blocked the Internet on their phones for two weeks. They could still make calls and send text messages. ④The researchers asked the people questions about their feelings and tested how well they could focus. The results were very interesting! About 91% of people felt better in at least one area—either their mood (情绪), their focus, or their overall happiness. Seventy-one percent said they had better mental health after the two weeks, and 73% said they had improved well-being. The people also did better on focus tests—like they were 10 years younger! ⑤Looking more deeply into the reasons for these changes, the researchers found that when people weren’t using the Internet, they spent more time outside, got more exercise, met and talked to others. ⑥It was hard for many people to stay offline for two full weeks. In fact, only 25% actually did so! However, even those who only blocked the Internet for part of the time showed improvements. Some people kept using their phones less even after the two weeks were over. ⑦Although completely blocking the Internet from our smartphones might be difficult, the study shows that using it less—like spending less time on some apps—can help us feel better too. 27．What does the underlined word “that” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A．Sending text messages to friends. B．Using a special app to play games. C．Not using the Internet on smartphones for two weeks. D．Asking questions about people’s feelings. 28．Which of the following question can be answered according to Paragraph 3? A．What did the focus tests look like? B．What age group did the people in the study belong to? C．Why do people feel better after being offline? D．How many people finished the whole two-week test? 29．What would people probably do after stopping using the Internet according to the study? A．Start playing online games. B．Watch more videos at home. C．Stop using phones completely. D．Spend more time doing sports. 30．What happened to some people after the study ended? A．They wanted to take the tests again. B．They never used their phones again. C．They used the Internet less than before. D．They used the Internet more than before. 【答案】27．C 28．B 29．D 30．C 【导语】本文介绍了一项研究，发现关闭智能手机网络两周可改善心理健康、专注力和幸福感。参与者虽难以完全坚持，但减少网络使用仍带来积极变化，如增加户外活动等。 27．词句猜测题。画线词“that”位于第二段首句“some people felt better after doing just that”，前句提问“两周不用手机网络的感受”，后句指出“断网改善心理健康”，故“that”指代前句“不用手机网络两周”的行为。故选C。 28．细节理解题。根据“They studied 467 people aged between 18 and 74.”可知，研究对象为“467名18-74岁人群”，选项B询问年龄范围，故选B。 29．推理判断题。根据“the researchers found that when people weren’t using the Internet, they spent more time outside, got more exercise, met and talked to others.”可知，断网后人们“花更多时间户外活动、锻炼、与他人交谈”，选项D“花更多时间运动”与此直接对应。故选D。 30．细节理解题。根据“Some people kept using their phones less even after the two weeks were over.”可知，第六段末句明确说明“部分人在两周后继续减少手机使用”，选项C“上网减少”为同义表述。故选C。 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选择正确的选项，将其序号填入前4个小题 (有一项为多余选项)，并结合文本内容回答最后一题。 A TEAM FOR LIFE A successful team projectSarah successfully completed a science project with her team, and the reporter asked her to share something about it. Reporter: 31 Sarah: Our class had to do a group project on renewable energy. My team studied different types like solar and wind power. Then we built a small model to show them. Reporter: What was the best part of working in the team? Sarah: It was dividing up the work. We each studied a different energy type. Then we came together to decide what to focus on for the model. Reporter: Were there any challenges? Sarah: At first it was hard to agree on which to choose. We all had different ideas. So we had to make a plan to work on the project together. Reporter: 32 Sarah: We communicated a lot and listened to each other. When we couldn’t agree, we voted. We’ve also taken lots of photos to record the process, and when we look back at them, they do bring back all those happy moments. Good to know Reporter: 33 Sarah: The listener quietly keeps an eye on you and is willing to listen whenever you want to talk. The fixer shows an amazing ability to solve problems. They can suggest creative solutions to problems with your studies, and even relationships. The organizer knows you well and is always good at making plans. This helpful person enjoys planning trips, buying tickets and much more. The reporter takes photos of everything your team does and posts them on the Internet. 34 They’re always sharing whatever you do together. A．How did you manage to solve the problem? B．Different people play different roles in a team. C．Why did you choose them as your teammates? D．This person helps build a good relationship in the team. E．Tell us about the science project you worked on with your team. 35. What do you want to be in a team? Why? (不超过20词) 【答案】31．E 32．A 33．B 34．D 35．I want to be a fixer because I enjoy solving problems creatively. 【导语】本文是一篇访谈类文章，主要讲述了Sarah与团队成功完成可再生能源科学项目的经历，并介绍了团队中不同成员的角色。 31．根据Sarah的回答“Our class had to do a group project on renewable energy...”可知，记者在询问Sarah关于团队科学项目的内容。选项E“告诉我们你和团队合作的科学项目。”符合语境。 故填E。 32．根据Sarah的回答“We communicated a lot and listened to each other...”可知，记者在询问团队如何解决问题。选项A““你们是如何解决问题的？”符合语境。 故填A。 33．根据Sarah的回答“The listener...The fixer...The organizer...可知，此处与“团队成员的角色”有关。选项B“团队中不同的人扮演不同的角色。”符合语境。 故填B。 34．根据“The reporter takes photos... They’re always sharing whatever you do together.”可知，此处应描述“reporter”这一角色。选项D“这个人帮助建立团队良好的关系。”符合语境。 故填D。 35．开放性试题，言之有理即可。例如：我想成为解决问题者，因为我喜欢创造性解决问题。故填I want to be a fixer because I enjoy solving problems creatively. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 阅读下面短文，掌握大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 On Sep. 17, 2022, Jeff Agar, and his son Johnny Agar, set out to begin the first part of the Ironman competition in Cambridge. They weren’t the common 36 . Johnny had difficulty walking because of muscle (肌肉) weakness. Jeff would act as his arms and 37 , carrying the weight of his son during the whole race. Competitors must complete a difficult 140 miles of 38 , bicycling and running in under 17 hours. The race began with a 2.4-mile swim in the Choptank River. Jeff helped Johnny 39 a kayak (皮划艇), with one end of a rope tied to his back and the other to the kayak. Swimming with his son was hard enough 40 Jeff also had to fight with fish. “It’s a hard journey, but we 41 it,” Jeff said excitedly. The pair completed the swim in 90 42 , and they went on to the next part: a 112-mile bicycle ride. Their 43 bike had an extra seat in the back for Johnny. They completed the ride in nine hours, then began the final—a 26.2-mile marathon with Jeff 44 Johnny in the racing chair. But at mile 19, Jeff realized they were going too 45 . Somehow he found the energy to speed up. With minutes left and 200 feet to the 46 line, Jeff stopped to help Johnny out of his racing chair. Johnny decided to finish his race 47 . “Not because I wouldn’t get my moment,” he said, “but because Dad had worked so 48 .” With 4 minutes and 25 seconds left, father and son crossed the finish line together. 49 the crowd cheered on Johnny, Jeff kept a low profile. “He didn’t want his finish line moment. He wanted it to be 50 ,” said Johnny, smiling at Jeff. 36．A．visitors B．workers C．volunteers D．players 37．A．eyes B．knees C．legs D．hands 38．A．jumping B．dancing C．walking D．swimming 39．A．wait for B．take away C．get into D．move out 40．A．but B．and C．if D．or 41．A．make B．find C．promise D．leave 42．A．seconds B．minutes C．hours D．days 43．A．free B．empty C．tiny D．special 44．A．throwing B．moving C．feeding D．lifting 45．A．quickly B．normally C．slowly D．differently 46．A．life B．finish C．safety D．bottom 47．A．in one go B．with no effort C．on his own D．without doubt 48．A．hard B．fast C．easily D．closely 49．A．As B．How C．Why D．Where 50．A．his B．yours C．mine D．theirs 【答案】36．D 37．C 38．D 39．C 40．B 41．A 42．B 43．D 44．B 45．C 46．B 47．C 48．A 49．A 50．C 【导语】本文主要介绍了杰夫·阿加和他患病的儿子约翰尼·阿加参加铁人三项比赛的经历。 36．句意：他们不是普通的选手。 visitors游客；workers工人；volunteers志愿者；players选手。根据“Jeff Agar, and his son Johnny Agar, set out to begin the first part of the Ironman competition in Cambridge.”可知，他们参加铁人三项比赛，所以他们属于参赛选手。故选D。 37．句意：杰夫将充当他的手臂和双腿，在整个比赛中承担儿子的体重。 eyes眼睛；knees膝盖；legs腿；hands手。根据“Johnny had difficulty walking”可知，约翰尼走路困难，所以杰夫将充当他的手臂和双腿。故选C。 38．句意：参赛者必须在17个小时内完成艰难的140英里游泳、自行车和跑步。 jumping跳；dancing跳舞；walking走；swimming游泳。根据“The race began with a 2.4-mile swim in the Choptank River.”并结合实际可知，铁人三项包括游泳、自行车、跑步。故选D。 39．句意：杰夫帮助约翰尼进入皮划艇，绳子的一端系在他背上，另一端系在皮划艇上。 wait for等待；take away解除；get into进入；move out搬出去。根据“a kayak”可知，此处指进入皮划艇，准备开始比赛。故选C。 40．句意：和儿子一起游泳已经够难了，而且杰夫还得和鱼搏斗。 but但是；and和；if如果；or或者。根据“Swimming with his son was hard enough... Jeff also had to fight with fishes.”可知，横线前后为并列关系，应填连词and。故选B。 41．句意：“这是一段艰难的行程，但我们做到了，” 杰夫兴奋地说。 make做；find发现；promise承诺；leave离开。根据“It’s a hard journey, but we... it,”可知，but表示转折，过程虽然很难，但他们做到了；“make it”是固定搭配，意为“成功做到”。故选A。 42．句意：这对父子用90分钟完成了游泳，然后进入下一部分：一段112英里的自行车骑行。 seconds秒；minutes分钟；hours小时；days天。根据“The pair completed the swim in 90...”可知，游泳2.4英里，用时90分钟，符合逻辑。故选B。 43．句意：他们的特殊自行车后面有一个额外的座位给约翰尼。 free空闲的；empty空的；tiny微小的；special特殊的。根据“had an extra seat in the back for Johnny”可知，自行车有额外的座位，所以自行车是特殊的。故选D。 44．句意：他们用了9个小时完成骑行，然后开始最后一项——一段26.2 英里的马拉松，杰夫推着坐在比赛轮椅上的约翰尼。 throwing扔；moving移动；feeding喂养；lifting举起。根据“a 26.2-mile marathon with Jeff... Johnny in the racing chair.”可知，约翰尼坐在比赛轮椅上，杰夫推着轮椅前进。故选B。 45．句意：但在第19英里时，杰夫意识到他们走得太慢了。 quickly迅速地；normally正常地；slowly缓慢地；differently不同地。根据“Somehow he found the energy to speed up.”可知，他找到了加速的力气，所以此处指他们走得太慢了。故选C。 46．句意：剩下几分钟，离终点线还有200英尺时，杰夫停下来帮约翰尼从他的比赛轮椅上下来。 life生命；finish最后部分，结尾；safety安全；bottom底部。根据“With minutes left and 200 feet to the... line,”可知，此处指离终点线还有200英尺；“finish line”是“终点线”，固定搭配。故选B。 47．句意：约翰尼决定独自完成比赛。 in one go一举，一下子；with no effort毫不费力地；on his own独自；without doubt毫无疑问。根据“Jeff stopped to help Johnny out of his racing chair.”可知，约翰尼从他的比赛轮椅上下来了，所以他想要独自完成比赛。故选C。 48．句意：“不是因为我不想拥有属于自己的时刻，”他说，“而是因为爸爸太努力了。” hard努力地；fast快速地；easily容易地；closely亲近地。根据“but because Dad had worked so...”和上文内容可知，他的爸爸很努力地完成比赛项目。故选A。 49．句意：当人群为约翰尼欢呼时，杰夫保持低调。 As当……时；How如何；Why为什么；Where在哪里。根据“... the crowd cheered on Johnny, Jeff kept a low profile (侧影).”可知，此处应填As引导时间状语从句，表示“当人群为约翰尼欢呼时”。故选A。 50．句意：“他不想拥有自己的终点时刻。他希望那是我的时刻。” 约翰尼微笑着对杰夫说。 his他的（所有物）；yours你的（所有物）；mine我的（所有物）；theirs他们的（所有物）。根据“He wanted it to be...”可知，杰夫希望终点时刻是约翰尼的，此处是直接引语，说话人是约翰尼，应用mine。故选C。 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 natural  along  month  give  right away Sidney is a swan (天鹅). His best friend is Bob, a 39-year-old builder. Bob found Sidney in May when he walked 51 the river. The baby swan had two large wounds on his neck. Bob took the bird home and 52 him food to eat. He named him Sidney and took care of him. In July, Bob took Sidney to a wildlife center. This way, he could live in a more 53 environment. But three 54 later, workers at the center asked Bob to take the swan back. They found that Sidney was unhappy at the center and didn’t sleep much. When Sidney heard Bob’s voice, he ran over to him 55 . “I felt like a proud father seeing him come home,” Bob said. 【答案】51．along 52．gave 53．natural 54．months 55．right away 【导语】本文讲述了建筑工人Bob救助受伤的天鹅Sidney，并与它成为好朋友的故事。 51．句意：Bob在五月沿着河边散步时发现了Sidney。根据“he walked…the river”和备选词汇可知，此处“沿着”河边散步，along符合语境，指沿着河边行走。故填along。 52．句意：Bob把这只鸟带回家，给它食物吃。根据“Bob took the bird home and…him food to eat”和备选词汇可知，此处指Bob给鸟食物吃，give符合语境；文章叙述过去的事，用一般过去时，give的过去式为gave。故填gave。 53．句意：这样，它就能生活在更自然的环境中。根据“In July, Bob took Sidney to a wildlife center.”可知，去野生动物中心，是为了让天鹅生长在一种更自然的环境中，natural表示“自然的”，符合语境。故填natural。 54．句意：但三个月后，中心的工作人员让Bob把天鹅带回去。根据“three…later”可知，three后接名词复数；结合备选词，month的复数形式months符合语境，指三个月的时间。故填months。 55．句意：当 Sidney 听到 Bob 的声音时，它立刻跑向他。根据“he ran over to him…”可知，句子结构完整，考虑使用副词（短语），right away符合语境，指立刻跑向Bob。故填right away。 B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 Sleep is essential for our health. Adults usually need 6 to 8 hours of sleep one night. This 56 (意思) we spend nearly 1/3 of our lives sleeping. But why is sleep so important? In fact, sleep serves several important purposes for our brains and 57 (身体). First, sleep helps our brains work 58 (更好). When we are awake, our brains produce waste. How do we get rid of it? Well, sleep plays a key 59 (角色) in clearing out these waste products at night. This process helps us 60 (唤醒) up well and keep our minds clear. Without enough sleep, we may find it difficult to remember things. Students 61 (尤其) need good sleep to help their memory. If you want to remember something, a good night’s sleep is what you need. Second, sleep is important for our 62 (体重)! Research shows that people who don’t get enough sleep may gain pounds more easily. Lack of sleep can also cause muscle loss. Moreover, poor sleep can also cause health risks 63 (像) heart disease or high blood pressure. So, what should we do? The answer is simple. Place more importance to sleep. Experts suggest 6 to 8 hours of quality sleep 64 (每个) night. Monitoring sleep has been easier thanks to 65 (现代的) health-tracking technology. By making sure we get enough rest, we can protect our health, improve memory, and stay strong. 【答案】56．means 57．bodies 58．better 59．role/part 60．wake 61．especially 62．weight 63．like 64．each/every 65．modern 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了睡眠对健康的重要性，包括帮助大脑清除废物、改善记忆、控制体重等方面。 56．句意：这意味着我们一生中几乎1/3的时间都在睡觉。主语“This”是单数，句子描述客观事实，用一般现在时，谓语动词用第三人称单数形式，“mean（意思是；意味着）”的第三人称单数是“means”。故填means。 57．句意：事实上，睡眠对我们的大脑和身体有几个重要作用。“and”连接并列成分，前面“brains”是复数，“body”这里指“我们的身体”，要用复数“bodies”。故填bodies。 58．句意：首先，睡眠帮助我们的大脑更好地工作。这里修饰动词“work”，要用副词，“good”的副词形式“well”的比较级是“better”。故填better。 59．句意：嗯，睡眠在夜间清除这些废物方面起着关键作用。“play a key role/part in...”是固定短语，意为“在……中起关键作用”。故填role/part。 60．句意：这个过程帮助我们很好地醒来，并且保持头脑清醒。“help sb. do sth.”是固定用法，“wake up”中“wake”用动词原形。故填wake。 61．句意：学生尤其需要良好的睡眠来帮助他们记忆。这里修饰动词“need”，要用副词，“especially”符合语境。故填especially。 62．句意：其次，睡眠对我们的体重很重要！“our”后接名词，“weight”是名词，符合语义。故填weight。 63．句意：此外，睡眠不好也会导致健康风险，像心脏病或高血压。“like”作为介词，有“像；例如”的意思，用于列举，符合语境。故填like。 64．句意：专家建议每晚要有6到8小时的优质睡眠。“each /every”都可表示“每个”，修饰“night”，表示“每个夜晚”。故填each/every。 65．句意：多亏了现代的健康追踪技术，监测睡眠变得更容易了。这里修饰名词“health-tracking technology”，要用形容词，“modern”符合语义。故填modern。 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Australia is an English-speaking country. Its capital is Canberra and three of its 66 (big) cities are Sydney, Melbourne and Brisbane. Australia is the 67 (six) largest country in the world, but only about 26.8 million people live there. Much of the land 68 (cover) by desert, so about eighty percent of the people live on the coast. The climate is better there. But some people live in unusual places. One of them is 69 small town called Coober Pedy. Coober Pedy is in the South Australian desert. On summer days, it can be as hot 70 52℃! For this reason, more than half people live under the ground. The temperature is always 71 (surprising) comfortable there. Underground homes have kitchens, bathrooms, bedrooms and living rooms. Everyday life in Coober Pedy is not very different from any other town. People go to work or school, do chores, watch TV and spend time with 72 (they) friends and family. Coober Pedy has lots of 73 (visitor) every year. People come to stay in the underground hotels. There are also underground shops, cafés 74 museums. On summer nights, when it isn’t too hot, people can go above the ground and play golf (高尔夫球运动). It’s not easy 75 (lose) golf balls because they can glow (发出暗淡的光) in the dark! 【答案】66．biggest 67．sixth 68．is covered 69．a 70．as 71．surprisingly 72．their 73．visitors 74．and 75．to lose 【导语】本文介绍澳大利亚，提及首都、大城市，国土面积、人口分布、气候，还讲了特殊小镇库伯佩地的情况，包括地下居住原因、生活日常及旅游相关内容。 66．句意：它的首都是堪培拉，并且它最大的三座城市是悉尼、墨尔本和布里斯班。根据“three of its...cities”可知，此处指最大的三座城市，要用big的最高级形式biggest，表示“最大的”。故填 biggest。 67．句意：澳大利亚是世界上第六大国家但只有约2680万人居住在那里。根据“the...largest country”可知，此处为the+序数词+形容词最高级，表示“第几个最……的”。six要变为序数词sixth用于表达“第六”。故填sixth。 68．句意：大部分土地被沙漠覆盖所以大约80%的人口居住在沿海地区。根据“Much of the land...by desert”可知，此处指土地被沙漠覆盖，要用一般现在时的被动语态，结构为“be + 过去分词”，land是不可数名词，be动词用is，cover的过去分词是covered。故填is covered。 69．句意：其中一个是一个叫库伯佩迪的小镇。根据“...small town called Coober Pedy”可知，此处表示“一个小镇”，small以辅音音素开头，用不定冠词a。故填a。 70．句意：在夏天，温度能高达52摄氏度！根据“as hot...52°C”可知，“as + 形容词/副词原级 + as”是固定结构，意为“和……一样……”。故填as。 71．句意：在地下，温度出奇地舒适。根据“...comfortable there”可知，修饰形容词comfortable要用副词，surprising的副词形式是surprisingly。故填surprisingly。 72．句意：人们去工作或上学，做家务，看电视，并和他们的朋友及家人共度时光。根据“...friends and family”可知，修饰名词要用形容词性物主代词，they的形容词性物主代词是their。故填their。 73．句意：库伯佩迪每年有很多游客。根据“lots of...”可知，lots of后接可数名词复数，visitor的复数形式是visitors。故填visitors。 74．句意：也有地下商店、咖啡馆和博物馆。根据“underground shops, cafés...museums”可知，shops、cafés和museums是并列关系，用连词and。故填and。   75．句意：丢失高尔夫球并不容易，因为它们在黑暗中会发光！根据“It’s not easy...golf balls”可知，“It’s + 形容词 + to do sth.”是固定句型，意为“做某事是……的”。故填to lose。 第四部分 书面表达（共1题，满分20分） 76．假如你是李华，你的澳大利亚朋友 Lily 下个月要来中国旅游。她想了解中国人平时在节假日里喜欢做的休闲活动，希望你帮她推荐一个有趣的活动。请你写一封邮件给她，介绍一种中国人喜欢的节日休闲方式，并说明它的内容、乐趣及推荐理由。 I want to know some fun activities that Chinese people like to do during holidays. Flying kites ·popular in spring ·fun, relaxing, and good for health ·enjoy nature Watching traditional shows ·include opera, puppet (木偶) shows, and dragon dances ·often held in squares or theaters ·show Chinese culture 要求： (1)邮件需包含所选活动至少两点相关信息，可适当发挥； (2)文章不得出现真实姓名等个人信息； (3)词数：80-100 词(邮件的称呼和落款计入总词数)。 Dear Lily, I’m glad to know you’re coming to China soon! ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 【答案】 76．范文 Dear Lily, I’m glad to know you’re coming to China soon! I’d like to tell you about a fun activity Chinese people enjoy during holidays—flying kites. Flying kites is very popular in spring, especially in parks or open areas. People bring colorful kites in the shape of birds, butterflies, or dragons. It’s really fun to see them flying high in the sky! This activity is not only relaxing but also good for your health. Many families and friends fly kites together to enjoy nature and spend time outdoors. I believe you’ll love this activity. I hope you can try it when you visit! Yours, Li Hua 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一封电子邮件 ②时态：时态是“一般现在时”和“一般将来时”； ③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不要遗漏，适当增加细节，并突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，开门见山，引出话题。 第二步，具体阐述写作内容，主要围绕“放风筝的内容”、“乐趣”以及“推荐的理由”展开，适当补充，丰富细节。 第三步，书写结语，表达期待。 [亮点词汇] ①be glad to do sth很高兴做某事 ②would like to do sth想要做某事 ③flying kites放风筝 ④not only…but also…不仅……而且…… ⑤be good for对……有好处 [高分句型] ①It’s really fun to see them flying high in the sky! (It作形式主语的句型) ②I believe you’ll love this activity.(宾语从句) ③I hope you can try it when you visit! (when引导的时间状语从句) 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。How about going camping? This afternoon . sounds great. It's Sunny and not cold or hot, just right for camping. Listen to the next question. I like spring because it's warm and everything comes to life. What about you? I like winter best because I can go skating. Listen to the next . question. stop. Don't touch IT. Can you see the sign? I'm sorry I didn't . see that. Listen to the next question. Hurry up. It's nine o'clock now. Don't worry. The film starts at nine thirty. We still have half an hour left. Listen to the next question . is time for bad jack, why are still listening to music? OK mom, but I need to take a shower first. Listen to the next question. Do you have any plans for the weekend? tom? Yes. i'm going to volunteer in the city library on sunday. Sounds good. Why do you choose to volunteer in the library? I love books and I want to encourage more kids to read. Do you want to join me? sure. What exactly what we do there. we will help organized books and help kids and picking stories to read. I see, when does IT begin at nine . in the morning? Then we can leave IT for in the afternoon. Okay, see you then. Do you have any plans for the weekend? tom? Yes, i'm going to volunteer in the city library on sunday. Sounds good. Why do you choose to volunteer in the library? I love books, and I want to encourage more kids to read. Do you want to join me? sure. What exactly will we do there? We will help organized . books and help kids and picking stories to read. I see, when does IT begin at nine . in the morning? Then we can leave IT for in the afternoon. Okay, see you then. Listen to the next question. Hello, this is David speaking. Hi David. This is beddy. I'm calling to speak to tony. Tony is not in now. He is doing some shopping. Can I take a message? Yes, of course. thanks. Please tell him that john is in hospital. What happened to john? A car nearly hit him this morning. Luckily, the car stopped just in time, but he fell off his bike and hurt his leg. Though it's nothing serious, I think we should go and see him. I agree with you, and i'd like to go with you. When are you going? How about ten o'clock tomorrow morning? That's fine. Don't forget to tell tony about that. See you then. No problem. See you. Hello, this is David speaking. Hi David. This is Betty. I'm calling to speak to tony. Tony is not in now. He is doing some shopping. Can I take . a message? Yes, of course. thanks. Please tell him that john is in hospital. What happened to john? A car nearly hit him this morning. Luckily, the car stopped just in time, but he fell off his bike and hurt his leg. Though it's nothing serious, I think we should go and see him. I agree with you, and i'd like to go with you. When are you going? How about ten o'clock tomorrow morning? That's fine. Don't forget to tell tony about that. See you then. No problem. See you. Listen to the next question. Good morning, sunshine. Middle school. This is your school radio host, amy. Here are some fun activities for you first. Our volunteer day will be held this friday afternoon. From one thirty to four thirty, all grade nine students will go to the community center near our school, will chat with the old people and help the kids with their english. Don't forget to wear your blue school t shirts. Also, the art festival organized by the music club and the art club is coming next monday. Students will show their amazing talents in music and art. You can enjoy wonderful singing and dancing shows in the school hall. Some colorful artworks will also be on show in the library. Last, don't forget our Green school project from next week, bring some plastic bottles and all the books to the recycle area near the school gate. Every wednesday afternoon, the class with the most bottles and books will get small prizes. For more information about the project, ask mister lee in room three o five that off for today. Have a good week. Good morning, sunshine. Middle school. This is your school radio host, amy. Here are some fun activities for you first. Our volunteer day will be held this friday afternoon. From one thirty to four thirty, all grade nine students will go to the community center near our school. We'll chat with the old people and help the kids with their english. Don't forget to wear your blue school t shirts. Also, the art festival organized by the music club and the art club is coming next monday. Students will show their amazing talents in music and art. You can enjoy wonderful singing and dancing shows in the school hall. Some colorful artworks will also be on show in the library. Last, don't forget our Green school project from next week, bring some plastic bottles and all the books to the recycle area near the school gate. Every wednesday afternoon, the class with the most bottles and books will get small Prices. For more information about the project, ask mister lee in room three o five. That's all for today. Have a good week. 听力部分到此结束。 绝密★启用前|学科网试题命制中心 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） 英语答题卡 (考试时间：100分钟试卷满分：120分) 姓 名： 缺考 标记 条 码粘贴处 准考证号： 注意事项 1.答题前， 考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5m黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 3. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 4. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 5. 正确填涂■ 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 1一5小题，36-50小题，每小题1分；6-15小题，每小题1.5分；16-30小题，31-34小题，每小题2分 1[AJ[B][C][D] 6[AJ[BI[C][D] 11[A][B][C][D] 16.AlBICHDI 2[AJ[B][C][D] 7[AJIBJICJ[D] 12[A][B][C][D] 17AJIB][CID] 3.[A][B][C][D] 8[A][B][C][D] 13.[A][B][C][D] 18[A][B]ICID] 4[AJ[B][C][D] [AJ[B][C][D] 14[A][B][C][D] 19.[A][B][CID] 5.[A][B][C][D] 10.[AJ[B][C][D] 15[AJ[B][C][D] 20.[A][B][CID] 21.A][B][C[DJ 26.[A]IB][C]ID] 31.AlIBIICIIDIIEI 36.A1[B1[C1[D1 22.[A][BJICID] 27[A][B][CJ[D] 32.[A][B][C][D][E]37[A][B][C][D] 23.[A][B][CIID] 28.[A][B1[CI[D] 33A][BI[C][D][E] 38.[A][B][C][D] 24A][B][C[D] 29.[AJIB1[C][D] 34.A][B][C]ID][E] 39.[A][B][C][D] 25[A][B][CID] 30.[A][B][C][D] 40.[A][B][C][D] 41[A][B][C][D] 46.[A][B][C][D] 42.[A][B][C][D] 47.A][B][CI[D] 43.[A][B][C][D] 48[A][B][C][D] 44A][B]IC][D] 49.[A][B1[C1IDI 45.[A][B]IC][D] 50.[A][B][C][D] 英语第1页（共2页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 35. 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 51. 52. 53. 54 55 B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 56. 57. 58 59 60. 61. 62. 63 64. 65. 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 66. 67. 68. 69 70. 71 72. 73. 74 75. 第四部分书面表达（共1题，满分20分) 英语第2页（共2页）………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1． 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3．答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 听下面五段短对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How is the weather today? A．Rainy. B．Sunny. C．Cloudy. 2．Which season does the man like? A．Spring. B．Autumn. C．Winter. 3．What does the sign say? A．No smoking. B．No drinking. C．No touching. 4．When will the film start? A．At 8:30. B．At 9:00. C．At 9:30. 5．What will Jack do next? A．Go to bed. B．Listen to music. C．Take a shower. 第二节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面两段较长对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10至15秒的时间回答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答6-7小题。听对话前，你将有10秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 6．Why does Tom choose to volunteer in the library? A．To finish a project. B．To make friends. C．To encourage kids. 7．How long will the volunteer work last? A．For 6 hours. B．For 7 hours. C．For 8 hours. 听下面一段对话, 回答8-10小题，听对话前，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 8．Who does Betty want to talk to? A．David. B．Tony. C．John. 9．Why was John in hospital? A．A car hit him. B．He had a cold. C．He fell off his bike. 10．What is David going to do tomorrow? A．See a doctor. B．Do some shopping. C．Visit his friend. 第三节：听独白，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面一段独白。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读有关内容；听完后，你将有25秒钟的 作答时间。独白读两遍。 11．When will the students go to the Community Center? A．This Friday. B．Next Monday. C．Next Wednesday. 12．Who need to wear the blue school T-shirts? A．Students from Grade Nine. B．Students from Grade Eight. C．Students from Grade Seven. 13．Where will the singing and dancing shows be held? A．In the school hall. B．In the playground. C．Near the school gate. 14．How can students join the Green School project? A．By selling old books. B．By singing and dancing. C．By bringing plastic bottles. 15．How many activities are mentioned? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Iron Age started about 3,200 years ago and lasted for around 1,000 years, depending on the area. During the Iron Age, people began using iron tools and weapons instead of bronze (铜) ones. Tools Iron tools allowed farmers and builders to work better. They were able to grow more crops, clear land for farms, and build bigger buildings. Weapons Iron weapons were lighter and cheaper to make than weapons made from bronze. Well-made iron weapons were also stronger and sharper than bronze ones. Having good weapons meant societies could build powerful armies. Making iron Making iron objects is a process that needs great skill and care. The iron must be made very hot before it can be shaped into a weapon or a tool. How we shape iron today is similar to how iron age craftsmen performed the task. 1. Dig it out. Iron is dug from the ground in lumps, called iron ore (矿石). 2. Heat it up. The iron ore is heated to high temperatures to make it melt. 3. Pour it in. The melted iron is poured into a shaped mold and left to cool. 16．How long did the Iron Age last? A．Over 4,200 years. B．About 3,200 years. C．About 2,200 years. D．Around 1,000 years. 17．What can we learn from the text? A．Iron tools helped people work better than before. B．It was lighter and cheaper to make bronze weapons. C．The process of making iron objects needs little skill. D．The first step to shape iron is to heat up the iron ore. 18．In which part of the magazine can we read the text? A．Story Time. B．Art and Music. C．History. D．Sports News. B Robert Adolf fell in love with Chinese culture when, as a child, he watched the 1998 Disney cartoon, Mulan. He never thought that he would one day work in China. Adolf was born in Germany in 1997. After graduating from Kotztanz University in 2017, he came to China. At the beginning he lived in Lianyungang and later in northern Jiangsu. After living in China for several years, Adolf learned that there are 56 ethnic groups (少数民族) in China. “It is amazing! Why not show their special culture to the world?” said the young man who’s also known as Baozi. He gave himself the nickname because the first meal he had after arriving in China was baozi. In July 2021, Adolf and three of his Chinese friends decided to film a documentary of China’s ethnic groups. Two months later, they set out from Lianyungang and drove all the way to Guizhou. They recorded the cultures of Tujia, Miao, Dong, Yao, Shui and others along the way. “In Guizhou, you can truly experience the colorful lives of different ethnic groups,” said Robert. While filming in Guizhou, Robert took part in celebrations for the Duan Festival of the Shui People’s. It’s their New Year. During the festival, they worship (敬奉) their ancestors, sing traditional songs, and watch horse races. The celebrations usually last for nearly two months. It is known as the “longest national festival in the world”. His short videos have been praised by people from China and abroad. “After watching these videos, many foreigners feel surprised to discover that ▲ . Many of them want to visit China, too,” Adolf said. “This is exactly what I want.” Adolf hasn’t set a timetable for his short video project. But one thing is for sure: he will keep on filming. One day he will finish recording all of the ethnic groups in China! 19．Who gave Adolf the nickname Baozi? A．His parents. B．His teachers. C．His friends. D．He himself. 20．Which is the correct time order of the following events? ①Adolf’s videos have won praise all over the world. ②Adolf made up his mind to film a documentary. ③Adolf came to China after graduating from university. ④Adolf celebrated the Duan Festival with the Shui people. A．③②④① B．②④③① C．②③④① D．③④①② 21．What is the best choice for ▲ ? A．China is such a beautiful and modern country B．China has so many beautiful places and cultures C．it’s cheap for foreigners to travel around China D．a German can be so good at filming China’s cultures 22．What is the best title for the text? A．Feeling Chinese Culture in Guizhou. B．Making New Friends in China. C．Planning a Short Video Project. D．Seeing the Beauty of China by Videos. C ①Everybody enjoys acts of kindness. But can you explain why? Some people think kindness is something out of love and care, while others believe it is just a tool that we use to become more popular. But research shows that being kind can activate (激活) an area of the brain called Striatum. Research also shows that kindness improves people’s mood (情绪). But why and how does it happen? Here are a number of different ways. ②Being kind can make someone smile. If you see yourself smile in a situation, people around may be smiling, too. This is specially true for your close friends and family. A kind act makes someone who is sad feel better. It can also make ourselves feel good. So why not set off that chain (链条) of good feelings to people around? ③Secondly, being kind starts or develops a social connection with others. Kind acts like buying someone a present make friendships stronger. Research has shown that spending money on others may help you get a stronger feeling of happiness than spending it on yourself. Similarly, charities (慈善) also open up new circles of people to connect with someone on the other side of the world. ④In another recent research, even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy. If one person is kind, he or she makes others in the group kind. It also lifts everyone’s spirits. Imagine that you make cakes for the office and it makes others do it each month. Then you’re getting cakes a lot more days than providing them. ⑤All in all, being kind may improve your mood, but research has also shown that if you’re in a good mood, you can act much more kindly. This makes it a wonderful two-way relationship, doesn’t it? 23．The writer leads in the topic by ________. A．telling a story B．asking questions C．giving examples D．making a survey 24．What is Paragraph 4 mainly about? A．The way how kindness can make people happy. B．The way why kindness can make people happy. C．A story why happy children can act more kindly. D．A story how happy children can act more kindly. 25．Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in this article? A．Being kind could improve your mood. B．Being kind can help you get good grades. C．A kind act can make people around happy. D．A kind act can lift everyone’s spirits in a group. 26．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． D ①How would you feel if you couldn’t use the Internet on your phone for two weeks? ②Surprisingly, some people felt better after doing just that! New research suggests that turning off your smartphone’s Internet can improve your mental health, your ability to focus (专注), and your sense of well-being. ③A group of researchers in the United States and Canada wanted to know how turning off the Internet on smartphones would influence people’s feelings. They studied 467 people aged between 18 and 74. These people used a special app that blocked the Internet on their phones for two weeks. They could still make calls and send text messages. ④The researchers asked the people questions about their feelings and tested how well they could focus. The results were very interesting! About 91% of people felt better in at least one area—either their mood (情绪), their focus, or their overall happiness. Seventy-one percent said they had better mental health after the two weeks, and 73% said they had improved well-being. The people also did better on focus tests—like they were 10 years younger! ⑤Looking more deeply into the reasons for these changes, the researchers found that when people weren’t using the Internet, they spent more time outside, got more exercise, met and talked to others. ⑥It was hard for many people to stay offline for two full weeks. In fact, only 25% actually did so! However, even those who only blocked the Internet for part of the time showed improvements. Some people kept using their phones less even after the two weeks were over. ⑦Although completely blocking the Internet from our smartphones might be difficult, the study shows that using it less—like spending less time on some apps—can help us feel better too. 27．What does the underlined word “that” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A．Sending text messages to friends. B．Using a special app to play games. C．Not using the Internet on smartphones for two weeks. D．Asking questions about people’s feelings. 28．Which of the following question can be answered according to Paragraph 3? A．What did the focus tests look like? B．What age group did the people in the study belong to? C．Why do people feel better after being offline? D．How many people finished the whole two-week test? 29．What would people probably do after stopping using the Internet according to the study? A．Start playing online games. B．Watch more videos at home. C．Stop using phones completely. D．Spend more time doing sports. 30．What happened to some people after the study ended? A．They wanted to take the tests again. B．They never used their phones again. C．They used the Internet less than before. D．They used the Internet more than before. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选择正确的选项，将其序号填入前4个小题 (有一项为多余选项)，并结合文本内容回答最后一题。 A TEAM FOR LIFE A successful team projectSarah successfully completed a science project with her team, and the reporter asked her to share something about it. Reporter: 31 Sarah: Our class had to do a group project on renewable energy. My team studied different types like solar and wind power. Then we built a small model to show them. Reporter: What was the best part of working in the team? Sarah: It was dividing up the work. We each studied a different energy type. Then we came together to decide what to focus on for the model. Reporter: Were there any challenges? Sarah: At first it was hard to agree on which to choose. We all had different ideas. So we had to make a plan to work on the project together. Reporter: 32 Sarah: We communicated a lot and listened to each other. When we couldn’t agree, we voted. We’ve also taken lots of photos to record the process, and when we look back at them, they do bring back all those happy moments. Good to know Reporter: 33 Sarah: The listener quietly keeps an eye on you and is willing to listen whenever you want to talk. The fixer shows an amazing ability to solve problems. They can suggest creative solutions to problems with your studies, and even relationships. The organizer knows you well and is always good at making plans. This helpful person enjoys planning trips, buying tickets and much more. The reporter takes photos of everything your team does and posts them on the Internet. 34 They’re always sharing whatever you do together. A．How did you manage to solve the problem? B．Different people play different roles in a team. C．Why did you choose them as your teammates? D．This person helps build a good relationship in the team. E．Tell us about the science project you worked on with your team. 35. What do you want to be in a team? Why? (不超过20词) 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 阅读下面短文，掌握大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 On Sep. 17, 2022, Jeff Agar, and his son Johnny Agar, set out to begin the first part of the Ironman competition in Cambridge. They weren’t the common 36 . Johnny had difficulty walking because of muscle (肌肉) weakness. Jeff would act as his arms and 37 , carrying the weight of his son during the whole race. Competitors must complete a difficult 140 miles of 38 , bicycling and running in under 17 hours. The race began with a 2.4-mile swim in the Choptank River. Jeff helped Johnny 39 a kayak (皮划艇), with one end of a rope tied to his back and the other to the kayak. Swimming with his son was hard enough 40 Jeff also had to fight with fish. “It’s a hard journey, but we 41 it,” Jeff said excitedly. The pair completed the swim in 90 42 , and they went on to the next part: a 112-mile bicycle ride. Their 43 bike had an extra seat in the back for Johnny. They completed the ride in nine hours, then began the final—a 26.2-mile marathon with Jeff 44 Johnny in the racing chair. But at mile 19, Jeff realized they were going too 45 . Somehow he found the energy to speed up. With minutes left and 200 feet to the 46 line, Jeff stopped to help Johnny out of his racing chair. Johnny decided to finish his race 47 . “Not because I wouldn’t get my moment,” he said, “but because Dad had worked so 48 .” With 4 minutes and 25 seconds left, father and son crossed the finish line together. 49 the crowd cheered on Johnny, Jeff kept a low profile. “He didn’t want his finish line moment. He wanted it to be 50 ,” said Johnny, smiling at Jeff. 36．A．visitors B．workers C．volunteers D．players 37．A．eyes B．knees C．legs D．hands 38．A．jumping B．dancing C．walking D．swimming 39．A．wait for B．take away C．get into D．move out 40．A．but B．and C．if D．or 41．A．make B．find C．promise D．leave 42．A．seconds B．minutes C．hours D．days 43．A．free B．empty C．tiny D．special 44．A．throwing B．moving C．feeding D．lifting 45．A．quickly B．normally C．slowly D．differently 46．A．life B．finish C．safety D．bottom 47．A．in one go B．with no effort C．on his own D．without doubt 48．A．hard B．fast C．easily D．closely 49．A．As B．How C．Why D．Where 50．A．his B．yours C．mine D．theirs 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 natural  along  month  give  right away Sidney is a swan (天鹅). His best friend is Bob, a 39-year-old builder. Bob found Sidney in May when he walked 51 the river. The baby swan had two large wounds on his neck. Bob took the bird home and 52 him food to eat. He named him Sidney and took care of him. In July, Bob took Sidney to a wildlife center. This way, he could live in a more 53 environment. But three 54 later, workers at the center asked Bob to take the swan back. They found that Sidney was unhappy at the center and didn’t sleep much. When Sidney heard Bob’s voice, he ran over to him 55 . “I felt like a proud father seeing him come home,” Bob said. B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 Sleep is essential for our health. Adults usually need 6 to 8 hours of sleep one night. This 56 (意思) we spend nearly 1/3 of our lives sleeping. But why is sleep so important? In fact, sleep serves several important purposes for our brains and 57 (身体). First, sleep helps our brains work 58 (更好). When we are awake, our brains produce waste. How do we get rid of it? Well, sleep plays a key 59 (角色) in clearing out these waste products at night. This process helps us 60 (唤醒) up well and keep our minds clear. Without enough sleep, we may find it difficult to remember things. Students 61 (尤其) need good sleep to help their memory. If you want to remember something, a good night’s sleep is what you need. Second, sleep is important for our 62 (体重)! Research shows that people who don’t get enough sleep may gain pounds more easily. Lack of sleep can also cause muscle loss. Moreover, poor sleep can also cause health risks 63 (像) heart disease or high blood pressure. So, what should we do? The answer is simple. Place more importance to sleep. Experts suggest 6 to 8 hours of quality sleep 64 (每个) night. Monitoring sleep has been easier thanks to 65 (现代的) health-tracking technology. By making sure we get enough rest, we can protect our health, improve memory, and stay strong. 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Australia is an English-speaking country. Its capital is Canberra and three of its 66 (big) cities are Sydney, Melbourne and Brisbane. Australia is the 67 (six) largest country in the world, but only about 26.8 million people live there. Much of the land 68 (cover) by desert, so about eighty percent of the people live on the coast. The climate is better there. But some people live in unusual places. One of them is 69 small town called Coober Pedy. Coober Pedy is in the South Australian desert. On summer days, it can be as hot 70 52℃! For this reason, more than half people live under the ground. The temperature is always 71 (surprising) comfortable there. Underground homes have kitchens, bathrooms, bedrooms and living rooms. Everyday life in Coober Pedy is not very different from any other town. People go to work or school, do chores, watch TV and spend time with 72 (they) friends and family. Coober Pedy has lots of 73 (visitor) every year. People come to stay in the underground hotels. There are also underground shops, cafés 74 museums. On summer nights, when it isn’t too hot, people can go above the ground and play golf (高尔夫球运动). It’s not easy 75 (lose) golf balls because they can glow (发出暗淡的光) in the dark! 第四部分 书面表达（共1题，满分20分） 76．假如你是李华，你的澳大利亚朋友 Lily 下个月要来中国旅游。她想了解中国人平时在节假日里喜欢做的休闲活动，希望你帮她推荐一个有趣的活动。请你写一封邮件给她，介绍一种中国人喜欢的节日休闲方式，并说明它的内容、乐趣及推荐理由。 I want to know some fun activities that Chinese people like to do during holidays. Flying kites ·popular in spring ·fun, relaxing, and good for health ·enjoy nature Watching traditional shows ·include opera, puppet (木偶) shows, and dragon dances ·often held in squares or theaters ·show Chinese culture 要求： (1)邮件需包含所选活动至少两点相关信息，可适当发挥； (2)文章不得出现真实姓名等个人信息； (3)词数：80-100 词(邮件的称呼和落款计入总词数)。 Dear Lily, I’m glad to know you’re coming to China soon!________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 试题 第3页（共10页） 试题 第4页（共10页） 试题 第1页（共10页） 试题 第2页（共10页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $: 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） .: (考试时间：100分钟试卷满分：120分) : : 注意事项： : 1.本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。满分120分，考试时间100分钟 : 2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位 : 置上。 : ·:: 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作 :: 答一律无效。 : 第一部分听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） .: 听下面五段短对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话 : 仅读一遍。 : : 1.How is the weather today? : A.Rainy. B.Sunny. C.Cloudy : .: 2.Which season does the man like? : A.Spring B.Autumn. C.Winter. : 3.What does the sign say? A.No smoking. B.No drinking. C.No touching. : 4.When will the film start? : A.At8:30 B.At9:00 C.At9:30 ·： :: 5.What will Jack do next? A.Go to bed. B.Listen to music C.Take a shower. : 第二节：听对话，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面两段较长对话。听完每段对话后，你都有10至15秒的时间回答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。 : 听下面一段对话，回答6-7小题。听对话前，你将有10秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 6.Why does Tom choose to volunteer in the library? : : A.To finish a project.B.To make friends. C.To encourage kids : 7.How long will the volunteer work last? : : 超 :: A.For 6hours. B.For 7 hours. C.For 8hours. 区 : 听下面一段对话，回答8-10小题，听对话前，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。 8.Who does Betty want to talk to? : : A.David B.Tony C.John. : 9.Why was John in hospital? : A.A car hit him. B.He had a cold. C.He fell off his bike. : 试题第1页（共12页） : 学科网·学易金卷做蕊限家 10.What is David going to do tomorrow? A.See a doctor B.Do some shopping. C.Visit his friend. 第三节：听独白，选择答案（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面一段独白。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读有关内容；听完后，你将有25秒钟的 作答时间。独白读两遍。 11.When will the students go to the Community Center? A.This Friday. B.Next Monday. C.Next Wednesday. 12.Who need to wear the blue school T-shirts? A.Students from Grade Nine. B.Students from Grade Eight. C.Students from Grade Seven. 13.Where will the singing and dancing shows be held? A.In the school hall.B.In the playground. C.Near the school gate. 14.How can students join the Green School project? A.By selling old books.B.By singing and dancing. C.By bringing plastic bottles. 15.How many activities are mentioned? A.Two. B.Three C.Four. 第二部分阅读覆解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Iron Age started about 3,200 years ago and lasted for around 1,000 years,depending on the area. During the Iron Age,people began using iron tools and weapons instead of bronze (ones. Weapons Tools Iron weapons were lighter and cheaper to Iron tools allowed farmers and builders to make than weapons made from bronze. work better.They were able to grow more Well-made iron weapons were also stronger crops,clear land for farms,and build bigger and sharper than bronze ones.Having good buildings. weapons meant societies could build powerful armies. Making iron Making iron objects is a process that needs great skill and care.The iron must be made very hot 试题第2页（共12页） 矿学科网·学易金卷梵既品限是 before it can be shaped into a weapon or a tool.How we shape iron today is similar to how iron age craftsmen performed the task. 1.Dig it out.Iron is dug from the ground in lumps,called iron ore(). 2.Heat it up.The iron ore is heated to high temperatures to make it melt. 3.Pour it in.The melted iron is poured into a shaped mold and left to cool. 16.How long did the Iron Age last? A.Over 4,200 years. B.About 3,200 years. C.About 2,200 years. D.Around 1,000 years. 17.What can we learn from the text? A.Iron tools helped people work better than before. B.It was lighter and cheaper to make bronze weapons. C.The process of making iron objects needs little skill. D.The first step to shape iron is to heat up the iron ore. 18.In which part of the magazine can we read the text? A.Story Time.B.Art and Music.C.History. D.Sports News. B Robert Adolf fell in love with Chinese culture when,as a child,he watched the 1998 Disney cartoon,Mulan. He never thought that he would one day work in China. Adolf was born in Germany in 1997.After graduating from Kotztanz University in 2017,he came to China. At the beginning he lived in Lianyungang and later in northern Jiangsu After living in China for several years,Adolf learned that there are 56 ethnic groups in China. "It is amazing!Why not show their special culture to the world?'said the young man who's also known as Baozi. He gave himself the nickname because the first meal he had after arriving in China was baozi. In July 2021,Adolf and three of his Chinese friends decided to film a documentary of China's ethnic groups.Two months later,they set out from Lianyungang and drove all the way to Guizhou.They recorded the cultures of Tujia,Miao,Dong,Yao,Shui and others along the way. "In Guizhou,you can truly experience the colorful lives of different ethnic groups,"said Robert.While 试题第3页（共12页） filming in Guizhou,Robert took part in celebrations for the Duan Festival of the Shui People's.It's their New O Year.During the festival,they worship (their ancestors,sing traditional songs,and watch horse races.The celebrations usually last for nearly two months.It is known as the "longest national festival in the world". His short videos have been praised by people from China and abroad."After watching these videos,many foreigners feel surprised to discover that Many of them want to visit China,too,"Adolf said."This is exactly what I want..” 兵 Adolf hasn't set a timetable for his short video project.But one thing is for sure:he will keep on filming. ········ One day he will finish recording all of the ethnic groups in China! ' 19.Who gave Adolf the nickname Baozi? A.His parents.B.His teachers. C.His friends. D.He himself. 20.Which is the correct time order of the following events? DAdolf's videos have won praise all over the world. 游 烂 2Adolf made up his mind to film a documentary. 擗 3Adolf came to China after graduating from university. 4Adolf celebrated the Duan Festival with the Shui people. A.③②④①B.②④③① C.②③④① D.③④①② 2l.What is the best choice for_▲？ A.China is such a beautiful and modern country B.China has so many beautiful places and cultures C.it's cheap for foreigners to travel around China D.a German can be so good at filming China's cultures 学 22.What is the best title for the text? A.Feeling Chinese Culture in Guizhou.B.Making New Friends in China C.Planning a Short Video Project. D.Seeing the Beauty of China by Videos. ..·.... DEverybody enjoys acts of kindness.But can you explain why?Some people think kindness is something out of love and care,while others believe it is just a tool that we use to become more popular.But research shows that being kind can activate (an area of the brain called Striatum.Research also shows that kindness improves people's mood ()But why and how does it happen?Here are a number of different ways. :::: 2Being kind can make someone smile.If you see yourself smile in a situation,people around may be smiling,too.This is specially true for your close friends and family.A kind act makes someone who is sad feel 试题第4页（共12页） .….… ::: better.It can also make ourselves feel good.So why not set off that chain (of good feelings to people around? 3Secondly,being kind starts or develops a social connection with others.Kind acts like buying someone a : : : present make friendships stronger.Research has shown that spending money on others may help you get a ..: stronger feeling of happiness than spending it on yourself.Similarly,charities (also open up new circles of 郡 people to connect with someone on the other side of the world. . 4In another recent research,even children in their first year of secondary school know how being kind makes them feel happy.If one person is kind,he or she makes others in the group kind.It also lifts everyone's : spirits.Imagine that you make cakes for the office and it makes others do it each month.Then you're getting cakes a lot more days than providing them. : : 5All in all,being kind may improve your mood,but research has also shown that if you're in a good mood, : you can act much more kindly.This makes it a wonderful two-way relationship,doesn't it? 23.The writer leads in the topic by : : A.telling a story B. asking questions C.giving examples D.making a survey : : 24.What is Paragraph 4 mainly about? ○ A.The way how kindness can make people happy. B.The way why kindness can make people happy ·: : C.A story why happy children can act more kindly : D.A story how happy children can act more kindly. : 25.Which of the following statement is NOT mentioned in this article? : A.Being kind could improve your mood. B.Being kind can help you get good grades. C.A kind act can make people around happy. : D.A kind act can lift everyone's spirits in a group. : 26.Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? : : D ②4⑤ : : D 试题第5页（共12页） : : 可学科网·学易金卷就慕吸斋 DHow would you feel if you couldn't use the Internet on your phone for two weeks? 2Surprisingly,some people felt better after doing just that!New research suggests that turning off your smartphone's Internet can improve your mental health,your ability to focus ()and your sense of well-being. 3A group of researchers in the United States and Canada wanted to know how turning off the Internet on smartphones would influence people's feelings.They studied 467 people aged between 18 and 74.These people used a special app that blocked the Internet on their phones for two weeks.They could still make calls and send text messages. 4The researchers asked the people questions about their feelings and tested how well they could focus. The results were very interesting!About 91%of people felt better in at least one area-either their mood () their focus,or their overall happiness.Seventy-one percent said they had better mental health after the two weeks, and 73%said they had improved well-being.The people also did better on focus tests-like they were 10 years younger! 5Looking more deeply into the reasons for these changes,the researchers found that when people weren't using the Internet,they spent more time outside,got more exercise,met and talked to others. 6It was hard for many people to stay offline for two full weeks.In fact,only 25%actually did so! However,even those who only blocked the Internet for part of the time showed improvements.Some people kept using their phones less even after the two weeks were over 7Although completely blocking the Internet from our smartphones might be difficult,the study shows that using it less-like spending less time on some apps-can help us feel better too. 27.What does the underlined word"that"'in Paragraph 2 refer to? A.Sending text messages to friends. B.Using a special app to play games. C.Not using the Internet on smartphones for two weeks. D.Asking questions about people's feelings. 28.Which of the following question can be answered according to Paragraph 3? A.What did the focus tests look like? B.What age group did the people in the study belong to? C.Why do people feel better after being offline? D.How many people finished the whole two-week test? 29.What would people probably do after stopping using the Internet according to the study? A.Start playing online games. B.Watch more videos at home. 试题第6页（共12页） 矿学科网·学易金卷两品限是品 C.Stop using phones completely D.Spend more time doing sports. 30.What happened to some people after the study ended? A.They wanted to take the tests again.B.They never used their phones again. C.They used the Internet less than before.D.They used the Internet more than before. 第二节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A一E五个选项中选择正确的选项，将其序号填入前4个小题（有- 多余选项)，并结合文本内容回答最后一题。 A TEAM FOR LIFE A successful team projectSarah successfully completed a science project with her team, and the reporter asked her to share something about it. Reporter:31 Sarah:Our class had to do a group project on renewable energy.My team studied different types like solar and wind power.Then we built a small model to show them. Reporter:What was the best part of working in the team? Sarah:It was dividing up the work.We each studied a different energy type.Then we came together to decide what to focus on for the model. Reporter:Were there any challenges? Sarah:At first it was hard to agree on which to choose.We all had different ideas.So we had to make a plan to work on the project together. Reporter:32 Sarah:We communicated a lot and listened to each other.When we couldn't agree,we voted.We've also taken lots of photos to record the process,and when we look back at them, they do bring back all those happy moments. Good to know Reporter:_ 33 Sarah:The listener quietly keeps an eye on you and is willing to listen whenever you want to talk. The fixer shows an amazing ability to solve problems.They can suggest creative 试题第7页（共12页） solutions to problems with your studies,and even relationships. The organizer knows you well and is always good at making plans.This helpful person enjoys planning trips,buying tickets and much more. The reporter takes photos of everything your team does and posts them on the Internet. 34 They're always sharing whatever you do together. 项为 A.How did you manage to solve the problem? B.Different people play different roles in a team. C.Why did you choose them as your teammates? D.This person helps build a good relationship in the team. ···········: 江 E.Tell us about the science project you worked on with your team. 35.What do you want to be in a team?Why?(不超过20词) 擗 第三部分语言运用（兴三节，满分40分》 第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 阅读下面短文，掌握大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 O On Sep.17,2022,Jeff Agar,and his son Johnny Agar,set out to begin the first part of the Ironman competition in Cambridge.They weren't the common 36.Johnny had difficulty walking because of muscle weakness.Jeff would act as his arms and37,canrying the weight of his son during the whole race.Competitors must complete a difficult 140 miles of 38,bicycling and running in under 17 或 hours. The race began with a 2.4-mile swim in the Choptank River.Jeff helped Johnny 39 a kayak 学 )with one end of a rope tied to his back and the other to the kayak.Swimming with his son was hard enough O 40 Jeff also had to fight with fish."It's a hard journey,but we 41 it,"Jeff said excitedly. The pair completed the swim in 90 42,and they went on to the next part:a 112-mile bicycle ride. ············· Their 43 bike had an extra seat in the back for Johnny.They completed the ride in nine hours,then 落 began the final-a 26.2-mile marathon with Jeff 44 Johnny in the racing chair.But at mile 19,Jeff realized they were going too45 Somehow he found the energy to speed up. With minutes left and 200 feet to the 46 line,Jeff stopped to help Johnny out of his racing chair. Johnny decided to finish his race 47"Not because I wouldn't get my moment,"he said,"but because Dad had worked so 48"With 4 minutes and 25 seconds left,father and son crossed the finish line 试题第8页（共12页） : : together. 49 the crowd cheered on Johnny,Jeff kept a low profile."He didn't want his finish line : ..... moment.He wanted it to be 50 ,said Johnny,smiling at Jeff. 36.A.visitors B.workers C.volunteers D.players : 37.A.eyes B.knees C.legs D.hands : .· 38.A.jumping B.dancing C.walking D. swimming 39.A.wait for B.take away C.get into D.move out .... 40.A.but B.and C.if D.or 41.A.make B.find C.promise D.leave : 42.A.seconds B.minutes C.hours D. days 43.A.free B.empty C.tiny D. special : : 44.A.throwing B.moving C.feeding D.lifting : : 45.A.quickly B.normally C.slowly D.differently 46. A.life B.finish C.safety D.bottom . 47.A.in one go B.with no effort C.on his own D.without doubt 48.A.hard B.fast C.easily D.closely 49.A.As B.How C.Why D.Where : 50.A.his B.yours C.mine D.theirs : 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） .…… A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次. natural along month give right away Sidney is a swan ()His best friend is Bob,a 39-year-old builder.Bob found Sidney in May when he : walked 51 the river.The baby swan had two large wounds on his neck Bob took the bird home and 52 him food to eat.He named him Sidney and took care of him. In July,Bob took Sidney to a wildlife center.This way,he could live in a more 53 environment. But three 54 later,workers at the center asked Bob to take the swan back.They found that Sidney was : unhappy at the center and didn't sleep much. 部 的 When Sidney heard Bob's voice,he ran over to him55"I felt like a proud father seeing him come home," . Bob said. : B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 Sleep is essential for our health.Adults usually need 6 to 8 hours of sleep one night.This56 (意 : )we spend nearly 1/3 of our lives sleeping.But why is sleep so important? 试题第9页（共12页） : : : 学科网·学易金卷做既燕思家是 In fact,sleep serves several important purposes for our brains and 57(). First,sleep helps our brains work 58()When we are awake,our brains produce waste. How do we get rid of it?Well,sleep plays a key 59()in clearing out these waste products at night. This process helps us 60()up well and keep our minds clear.Without enough sleep,we may find it difficult to remember things.Students 61()need good sleep to help their memory.If you want to remember something,a good night's sleep is what you need. Second,sleep is important for our 62()!Research shows that people who don't get enough sleep may gain pounds more easily.Lack of sleep can also cause muscle loss.Moreover,poor sleep can also cause health risks 63()heart disease or high blood pressure. So,what should we do?The answer is simple.Place more importance to sleep.Experts suggest 6 to 8 hours of quality sleep 64(每个)night.Monitoring sleep has been easier thanks to65(现代的) health-tracking technology.By making sure we get enough rest,we can protect our health,improve memory,and stay strong. 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 Australia is an English-speaking country.Its capital is Canberra and three of its 66 (big)cities are Sydney,Melbourne and Brisbane.Australia is the 67(six)largest country in the world,but only about 26.8 million people live there.Much of the land68(cover)by desert,so about eighty percent of the people live on the coast.The climate is better there.But some people live in unusual places.One of them is 69 small town called Coober Pedy. Coober Pedy is in the South Australian desert.On summer days,it can be as hot 70 52C!For this reason,more than half people live under the ground.The temperature is always 71(surprising) comfortable there.Underground homes have kitchens,bathrooms,bedrooms and living rooms.Everyday life in Coober Pedy is not very different from any other town.People go to work or school,do chores,watch TV and spend time with 72(they)friends and family. Coober Pedy has lots of 73(visitor)every year.People come to stay in the underground hotels. There are also underground shops,cafes 74 museums.On summer nights,when it isn't too hot,people can go above the ground and play golf(高尔夫球运动).It's not easy75(Iose)golf balls because they can glow(发出暗淡的光)in the dark! 第四部分书面豪达（共1题，满分20分） 76.假如你是李华，你的澳大利亚朋友Ly下个月要来中国旅游。她想了解中国人平时在节假日里 试题第10页（共12页）》 命学科网·学易金卷梵限品 喜欢做的休闲活动，希望你帮她推荐一个有趣的活动。请你写一封邮件给她，介绍一种中国人喜欢的节日 休闲方式，并说明它的内容、乐趣及推荐理由。 I want to know some fun activities that Chinese people like to do during holidays. Flying kites popular in spring fun,relaxing,and good for health enjoy nature Watching traditional shows include opera,puppet (shows,and dragon dances often held in squares or theaters show Chinese culture 要求： (1)邮件需包含所选活动至少两点相关信息，可适当发挥； (2)文章不得出现真实姓名等个人信息； (3)词数：80-100词（邮件的称呼和落款计入总词数）。 Dear Lily, I'm glad to know you're coming to China soon! Yours, 试题第11页（共12页） 圳想复12乐（妆12所 LiHua …………a…O…[1……t…O…☑…O…… 拜 火 1 亲 治 和 …O………O…[…0…………○…绝蜜女启用前学科网试题命制中心 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（浙江专用） 英语答题卡 (考试时间：100分钟试卷满分：120分) 姓 名 缺考 准考证号： 标记 条码粘贴处 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 3. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 4. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 5. 正确填涂■ 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 1一5小题，36-50小题，每小题1分；6-15小题，每小题1.5分；16-30小题，31-34小题，每小题2分； 1[A][B][C][D] 6.A][B1[CJ[D1 11.[A1[B1[C1[DJ 16.[A][B][CID] 2.[AJ[B][C][D] 7.A][B1[C][D1 12[A][BJ[C[D] 17[A][B][CI[D] 3.[A1[B1[C1[D1 8[AJ[B1[C1[D1 13.[A1[B][C1[D1 18.[A1[B1LC[D1 4[A][B][C][D] 9.AJ[B][C1[D] 14.[A1[B1[CJ[D 19.[AJ[B][C1[D] 5.[A][B][C][D] 10.[A][B][C][D] 15.[A][B][C][D] 20.[A][B][CID] 21.AJ[B][C[D] 26.[AJ[B1[CJ[D1 31:AJ[B][C][D][E] 36.[A][B][C][D] 22.[A][B][CIID] 27.A1[B][C1[D] 32[A1[B1[C][D1[E]37.A1[B1IC1[D1 23.[A][B][CI[D] 28.[AJ[B][CJ[D1 33.[A][B][C][D][E] 38.A1[BJ[C1[D1 24.[A][B][CI[D] 29.[A][B][C][D] 34.A1[B1【C][D][EJ 39.[A][B][C][D1 25.A][B1[C[D] 30.[AJ[B1[C][D1 40.[A1[B][C][DJ 41.A][B][C][D] 46.A]IB][C][D1 42.A1[B1[C1[D] 47.A][B1[C1[D1 43.[A][B][C][D] 48.[AJ[B1[CI[D1 44[A][B][C][D] 49.[A][B][C][D] 45.AJ[B][C][D] 50.[A][B][C][D] 英语第1页（共2页） 请在各题日的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 35. 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 51. 52. 53. 54 55. B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给的汉语注释写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 66. 67. 68 69. 70. 71. 72. 73 74. 75. 第四部分常面表达（共1题，满分20分） 英语第2页（共2页） 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（参考答案） （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 1．【答案】B 2．【答案】C 3．【答案】C 4．【答案】C 5．【答案】C 6．【答案】C 7．【答案】B 8．【答案】B 9．【答案】C 10．【答案】C 11．【答案】A 12．【答案】A 13．【答案】A 14．【答案】C 15．【答案】B 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 16．【答案】D 17．【答案】A 18．【答案】C 19．【答案】D 20．【答案】A 21．【答案】B 22．【答案】D 23．【答案】B 24．【答案】A 25．【答案】B 26．【答案】A 27．【答案】C 28．【答案】B 29．【答案】D 30．【答案】C 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 31．【答案】E 32．【答案】A 33．【答案】B 34．【答案】D 35．【答案】I want to be a fixer because I enjoy solving problems creatively. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 36．【答案】D 37．【答案】C 38．【答案】D 39．【答案】C 40．【答案】B 41．【答案】A 42．【答案】B 43．【答案】D 44．【答案】C 45．【答案】B 46．【答案】B 47．【答案】C 48．【答案】A 49．【答案】A 50．【答案】C 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 51．【答案】along 52．【答案】gave 53．【答案】natural 54．【答案】months 55．【答案】right away 56．【答案】means 57．【答案】bodies 58．【答案】better 59．【答案】role/part 60．【答案】wake 61．【答案】especially 62．【答案】weight 63．【答案】like 64．【答案】each/every 65．【答案】modern 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 66．【答案】biggest 67．【答案】sixth 68．【答案】is covered 69．【答案】a 70．【答案】as 71．【答案】surprisingly 72．【答案】their 73．【答案】visitors 74．【答案】and 75．【答案】to lose 第四部分 书面表达（共1题，满分20分） 【答案】 例文： Dear Lily, I’m glad to know you’re coming to China soon! I’d like to tell you about a fun activity Chinese people enjoy during holidays—flying kites. Flying kites is very popular in spring, especially in parks or open areas. People bring colorful kites in the shape of birds, butterflies, or dragons. It’s really fun to see them flying high in the sky! This activity is not only relaxing but also good for your health. Many families and friends fly kites together to enjoy nature and spend time outdoors. I believe you’ll love this activity. I hope you can try it when you visit! Yours, Li Hua 2 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $