河南焦作市联考普通高中2025-2026学年(上)高二年级期末考试英语试题

绝密★启用前 普通高中2025—2026学年(上)高二年级期末考试 英语 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考场号、座位号、考生号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What does the man ask the woman to do? A. Give him a book. B. Hand him a form. C. Check his speech. 2. What is the man doing? A. Looking for a community. B. Asking for directions. C. Exercising in a gym. 3. Where will the meeting be held probably? A. In a lab. B. In a library. C. In a classroom. 4. How does the man sound? A. Regretful. B. Annoyed. C. Shocked. 5. What does the man dislike about the app? A. The background sounds. B. The regular reminders. C. The study methods. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Librarian and borrower. C. Interviewer and interviewee. 7. How long will the summer program last? A. About half a month. B. About a month. C. About two months. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. When is the deadline for the permission form? A. This afternoon. B. The next day. C. This Thursday. 9. Why is the girl’s mother unable to sign the form? A. She is on business. B. She is having a meeting. C. She may forget it. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What has drawn Mark’s attention? A. A funny video. B. A phone screen. C. A piece of news. 11. What is the significance of the project mentioned? A. It aids climate studies. B. It promotes space travel. C. It tests rocket technology. 12. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A weather satellite. B. A space company. C. A research project. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Why did Lisa leave her previous job? A. It was really intense. B. It was badly-paid. C. It was unpromising. 14. What does Lisa enjoy most about her cafe? A. Designing the menu. B. Managing social media. C. Knowing her customers. 15. What is Lisa’s main challenge? A. Making enough cakes. B. Handling all work alone. C. Attracting young customers. 16. What is Lisa’s key advice on starting a small business? A. To use social media. B. To find a reliable partner. C. To focus on your strength. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the speaker probably? A. A news announcer. B. A zoo keeper. C. A wildlife scientist. 18. Where was the panda Xing Fu born and raised? A. In a Chinese zoo. B. In a European zoo. C. In a wild habitat. 19. What was part of Xing Fu’s special training? A. Wearing a GPS device. B. Establishing a home. C. Identifying dangers. 20. What is the main goal of this project? A. To attract more visitors. B. To increase panda numbers. C. To improve panda diversity. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Sporting Heroes of 2025 The Game-Changer: Chloe Kelly In 2022, Chloe Kelly scored England’s winning goal at the UEFA Women’s Euro Championship final. Three years later, she was the match winner again in the Euro 2025 final. Kelly scored the winning penalty (点球) in the shoot-out against Spain. The 27-year-old didn’t start any of England’s Euro 2025 games; she also scored in a quarter-final shoot-out against Sweden, and scored a late strike in the semi-final (半决赛). The Sprinter (短跑运动员): Melissa Jefferson-Wooden Winning one gold medal at the World Athletics Championships is a brilliant achievement, but US sprinter Melissa Jefferson-Wooden won three in 2025. The 24-year-old finished first in the women’s 100 meters, 200 meters and the 4×100 meters event. The only other woman to have achieved this is Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce for Jamaica in 2013. The Teenager: Luke Littler On 3 January, Luke Littler (who was aged 17 at the time) became the youngest winner of the PDC World Darts Championship. Littler finished second in the final in 2024. The next year he showed his astonishing talent by beating a former world champion. On 16 November, Littler was named PDC world No. 1, the youngest player ever to win that honor. The Hero: Rory McIlroy The Masters, PGA Championship, US Open and the Open Championship are the top events each year in men’s golf. Rory McIlroy had won all of them over the past 14 years except the Masters. In April, the Northern Irishman achieved his dream when he won the Masters by beating Justin Rose in a play-off. Winning all four events over a career is called a “career Grand Slam”. 1. What did Chloe Kelly do in the Euro 2025 final? A. She set up two goals. B. She played the full game. C. She helped beat Jamaica. D. She kicked the winning penalty. 2. What do we know about Luke Littler? A. He is 17 this year. B. He got a world honor. C. He ranked first in 2024. D. He is the youngest player. 3. What did Melissa Jefferson-Wooden and Rory McIlroy have in common in 2025? A. They beat previous title holders. B. They got the same number of medals. C. They made their personal breakthrough. D. They won team and personal championships. B Three years ago, the designer Charlotte Taylor moved back to her family home in Bromley, where she’d lived as a teenager after living for periods in Paris and a Hackney flat. Her return to this familiar environment became an unexpected source of creative inspiration, allowing her to combine personal history with her innovative design vision. Despite working on international projects — such as designing a listening bar in Clerkenwell and a store in New York — Taylor’s own home in Bromley best expresses her unique style. A design magazine once called her style “trashy (低成本) minimalism”, a term she advocates. Her inner urges mix the playful and the significant: fine knives hang beside sculptural objects in the kitchen, and art books are placed next to custom furniture. She finds creative energy in contrasting villages’ quiet routine with lively, imaginative design. Taylor actively promotes a more human-centered and accessible approach within the design industry. Her projects often feature inviting lived-in spaces — thoughtfully folded blankets, desks showing signs of work — which reflect a growing desire for authenticity (真实性). She also designs unusual business items, such as artisan lighters or handmade stamps, to gently challenge the formality of her field. Taylor believes good design should be inclusive and joyful, not exclusive or frightening. Her career has taken an inspiring path. As the daughter of a lighting designer, she studied fine art and later gained recognition by creating 3D digital images of optimistic and fantastical spaces. This led to real-world opportunities, including organizing exhibitions. At the London Design Festival, she filled a Georgian townhouse with works by 30 female designers, aiming to make design feel welcoming to all. Taylor describes her approach as “organic” and “natural”. She continues to work on various projects — from community art initiatives to furniture design — and dreams of one day designing an uplifting space, like a community hotel, where every detail promotes connection and creativity. 4. What inspired Taylor after returning home? A. The quiet local lifestyle. B. Her family’s design business. C. Her childhood environment, D. A neighbor’s friendly advice. 5. What is Taylor’s design style like? A. Joyful and genuine. B. Perfect and costly. C. Strict and traditional. D. Formal and splendid. 6. What made Taylor gain recognition? A. Her real housing projects. B. Her digital art creations. C. Her design teaching discussions. D. Her published art-related writings. 7. What can be inferred from Taylor’s approach? A. She thinks good design is mostly for experts. B. She values naturalism over strict formal rules. C. She prefers following traditional styles closely. D. She believes design should be perfectly polished. C Tracking sharks has long been a major challenge for ocean researchers. Traditionally, scientists relied on methods like diving (潜水), setting fishing lines, or positioning underwater video cameras. These approaches are often slow, expensive, and unreliable, as they depend on sharks choosing to appear. A pioneering solution has now appeared: the analysis of environmental DNA, or eDNA. Every creature in the ocean always drops tiny bits of DNA into the water through skin cells, liquid, and bodily waste. By simply collecting and screening a container of seawater, researchers can detect which species have recently been present, all without ever seeing the animal itself. In extensive studies across the Caribbean and the Pacific, scientist Judith Bakker applied this eDNA technique. Her work successfully identified 21 different shark species and demonstrated that ocean areas protected from fishing had significantly greater shark diversity. The method proved extremely more efficient than traditional surveys. In New Caledonia, for example, the water collected in just two weeks revealed more shark species than two full years of camera studies and thousands of dives combined. eDNA detected sharks 90% of the time, far outperforming cameras (50%) and dive surveys (15%). This technique offers critical advantages. It is completely nonintrusive, causing no stress or harm to the sharks, unlike trapping methods. It also minimizes behavioral errors, because species that avoid cameras still leave detectable bits of DNA behind. Current limitations remain: some species like nurse sharks are missed due to technical issues with DNA introductions, and eDNA cannot yet provide exact population counts, only estimates of relative amount. However, the future is promising. The method is already being used to monitor (监测) fish populations in places like Greenland, and soon, drones (无人机) and underwater robots may automatically collect water, even in distant deep-sea regions. For conservation, eDNA represents a faster, cheaper, and broader way to monitor shark populations and guide vital protection efforts. 8. What is the feature of eDNA technique? A. Direct and accurate. B. Stable but impractical. C. Simple but expensive. D. Efficient and reliable. 9. How does the author demonstrate the advantages of eDNA? A. By quoting scientists’ remarks. B. By describing the process of the analysis. C. By presenting Bakker’s research findings. D. By comparing with traditional methods. 10. What does the underlined word “nonintrusive” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Highly precise. B. Physically harmless. C. Hardly applicable. D. Technically simple. 11. What is the author’s main purpose in writing this text? A. To report a new monitoring technique. B. To criticize outdated research methods. C. To popularize knowledge about sharks. D. To raise awareness of wildlife protection. D Artificial intelligence is expanding quickly, leading to a sharp rise in energy use — mostly from the huge data centers that run AI systems. This higher demand worries people working on climate change, because these centers still use a lot of electricity from fossil (化石) fuels. This could even cancel out global goals to cut carbon emissions (排放). Documented examples highlight the issue. In Tennessee last year, significant methane — a greenhouse gas — was detected from a major AI data center using gas engines without pollution controls. In Ireland, the situation has reached a critical point: Data centers currently consume over twenty percent of the nation’s electricity, with projections suggesting this share could reach one-third in the coming years. This rapid growth has left local power networks too stressed, leading to short-term limitations on new connections. Analysts fear the energy thirst of these facilities could ruin the environmental benefits gained from expanding renewable energy sources. Globally, while data centers currently account for about 1% of electricity use, their share is rising rapidly. In the United States, their consumption is expected to more than double by 2035. The industry’s response involves signing agreements for renewable or nuclear power. However, in the near term, fossil fuels still account for the majority of the supply — such as coal in parts of China and natural gas in the US — sometimes lengthening the life of polluting power plants. A debate exists between critics and supporters. Critics warn this creates a dangerous new demand for carbon-intensive energy. Advocates, however, argue that AI itself can be a powerful tool for climate solutions, capable of improving energy networks, advancing clean technology, and improving efficiency across branches. Some studies suggest AI’s potential to reduce global emissions could outweigh its own carbon footprint. The central question remains whether AI will be regulated to minimise harm or employed to boost the shift to a sustainable (可持续的) future. 12. What worries people about AI data centers? A. The huge consumption of energy. B. The amazingly fast growth rate. C. The extremely complex technology. D. The over-advanced digital products. 13. What do the examples in paragraph 2 show? A. The lack of power resources. B. The popularization of AI. C. The new trends in pollution. D. The seriousness of the issue. 14. What is the key uncertainty about AI in paragraph 4? A. Whether AI will use up fossil fuels. B. Whether AI can reduce carbon footprint. C. Whether AI will be used for sustainability. D. Whether AI will be stopped from developing. 15. What is the main idea of this text? A. Fossil fuels are reliable. B. Renewable energy is losing. C. AI risks harming the climate. D. AI will help fix climate issues. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The decrease in time spent outdoors is having a harmful impact on public health, with children’s mental wellbeing being a particular concern. A government-funded study from 2016 to 2018 showed more than one in nine children in England had not visited a park, forest, beach, or similar environment for at least a year.____16____ Financial barriers and accessibility issues play a significant role. It is obvious that inequalities exist.____17____For families in busy urban settings, making outdoor activity a priority (首要任务) is often challenging compared to managing work and household responsibilities. ____18____This includes heightened traffic danger and the closure or ignorance of public play spaces due to funding cuts. Therefore, independent outdoor play has sharply decreased, from 71% of adults recalling daily childhood play near home to just 21% of children today.____19____Also, technology additionally encourages indoor leisure activities for all ages. However, extensive research confirms the significant benefits of nature exposure.____20____The connection to the natural world reduced their physiological (生理的) stress markers, lowered their heart rate, and improved their mental health. Given the evidence, prioritising children’s regular access to natural environments is an urgent necessity for their healthy development and for the future wellbeing of society as a whole. A. Practical barriers have also increased, B. What is causing this indoor lifestyle? C. Does the outdoor lifestyle cause any trouble? D. Parents today are less protective than those in earlier times. E. Children from lower-income areas are less likely to access natural spaces. F. Adult anxieties, intensified by media, further limit children’s outdoor time. G. For children, outdoor experience is strongly connected with their overall wellbeing. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Eight years ago, I moved from Ethiopia to England. I often felt a deep sense of cultural ____21____ and absence of community while studying in London. However, this year I decided to take a break. Having never ridden a bike as a child, I started with a second-hand bicycle ____22____ by a friend. My dear kind friend didn’t ask for any money. Later, I built a wooden bicycle from ____23____ materials at a community workshop, turning waste into something practical. Inspired there, I decided to ____24____ a long cycling journey from Scotland southward. The first days were ____25____, with poor shelter and little food. ____26____, strangers helped me. Moved by their kindness, I began fundraising for people ____27____.Throughout the trip, generosity surrounded me. People offered gardens for my tent, homes for shelter, and even ____28____ repairs for my bike. My unique wooden bicycle attracted ____29____ everywhere, allowing me to share my story and cause. I also ____30____ with Ethiopians across the UK who followed my journey online, receiving warm welcomes in their communities. Despite ____31____ like storms and mechanical (机械的) issues, the kindness of strangers — from a DJ ____32____ a hotel to builders offering a place to stay — carried me forward. This journey taught me that true ____33____ is built not through personal strength but shared ____34____. The connection I had missed now felt vividly alive, all thanks to the ____35____ I found on the road. 21. A. shift B. crisis C. loss D. exchange 22. A. made B. sold C. returned D. donated 23. A. recycled B. flexible C. raw D. organic 24. A. continue B. begin C. avoid D. describe 25. A. exciting B. peaceful C. tough D. strange 26. A. Luckily B. Suddenly C. Gradually D. Interestingly 27. A. in order B. in need C. in danger D. in sight 28. A. expensive B. quickened C. free D. delayed 29. A. sympathy B. doubt C. criticism D. attention 30. A. argued B. connected C. competed D. lived 31. A. challenges B. disasters C. instances D. distractions 32. A. setting up B. paying for C. checking into D. staying at 33. A. confidence B. success C. freedom D. community 34. A. kindness B. wealth C. strength D. courage 35. A. adventure B. scenery C. generosity D. wonder 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In a coffee festival held in Tanzhesi, an ancient town in western Beijing, a long line of people waited ____36____ (patient) at a cafe stand. This scene was representative of a model ____37____ combines modern lifestyle with rural development. “Specifically, our signature drink was created for cyclists ____38____ (refresh) their energy after intense effort,” says Zhu Mingbo, who runs the Snow Peak Cafe ____39____ (locate) on a famed cycling route. Since its opening, the cafe’s offerings ____40____ (earn) widespread recognition. The festival aimed to combine the ancient town’s beauty with modern coffee culture. At the opening ceremony, local authorities revealed a Coffee Lifestyle Guide, ____41____ (feature) three coffee-themed tasting routes. “The rise of coffee here was a ____42____ (nature) effect. At first, it might have just been people bringing their own cups while cycling or sightseeing,” says Wu Jiajie, chief of Tanzhesi town. The local government then rolled out favorable ____43____ (policy) to support the local coffee business. Zhu decided to open his cafe after recognizing the potential of combining coffee with cycling. Beyond drinks, the cafe also offers lightweight outdoor equipment. A unique “bicycle wall” inside the shop has become ____44____ popular check-in point. Zhu’s cafe was among several awarded by the town government. Wu says the festival uses coffee _____45_____ a specific point of entry, through which the entire tourism experience can be connected. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，你校即将举办“International Cultural Bridge”主题活动，需要准备具有“桥梁”意义的礼物送给对方。你的英国朋友Sam对此很感兴趣，希望你给他推荐一款礼物。请你给他回一封邮件，内容包括： 1.你推荐的礼物及其特色; 2.说明推荐理由。 注意：1.写作词数应为80左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Sam, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Playa Del Rey Beach was cold and rainy that weekend morning. I wasn’t surprised that most people chose to be warm inside with their families. Even the regulars who surfed at first light had packed up and gone home. I was there because I had a job to do, making the rounds on the windy beach with my fellow Los Angeles County lifeguard (救生员), Mike. You never knew when someone might need help, on any given day, at any given time. We went slowly but not too slowly. We had a lot of beaches to cover. I’d always felt called to serve people. I truly liked to be of help. But to be honest, feeling like a hero was pretty great too. Inside the warm vehicle, I rested my back against my seat. “Nice start to the weekend, wouldn’t you say?” Mike agreed. “Any plans for later?” he asked. I looked into the distance without answering. “Mike, is that someone in the water?” I grabbed the telescope. “I don’t see a surfboard.” It didn’t look like the person was wearing a wet suit either. Mike hit the gas, and we sped toward the figure — a woman with her waist (腰) high in the water, definitely not a surfer. I jumped out of the truck with the rescue buoy (浮标) before Mike came to a full stop. “I’ll call for backup,” he shouted. I jumped into the ocean. The icy waves nearly took my breath away, but I kept my eye on the woman. I set my sights on the markers on the beach behind me before the woman disappeared underwater. I dolphin-dived once, twice, three times, feeling around blindly in the darkness. I caught sight of something 20 yards or so ahead. A hand? I swam closer and dove down with my arms outstretched. 注意：1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 “Got her!” I shouted. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Back at the lifeguard station, the woman and I sat side by side. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 绝密★启用前 普通高中2025—2026学年(上)高二年级期末考试 英语 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考场号、座位号、考生号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What does the man ask the woman to do? A. Give him a book. B. Hand him a form. C. Check his speech. 2. What is the man doing? A. Looking for a community. B. Asking for directions. C. Exercising in a gym. 3. Where will the meeting be held probably? A. In a lab. B. In a library. C. In a classroom. 4. How does the man sound? A. Regretful. B. Annoyed. C. Shocked. 5. What does the man dislike about the app? A. The background sounds. B. The regular reminders. C. The study methods. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Librarian and borrower. C. Interviewer and interviewee. 7. How long will the summer program last? A. About half a month. B. About a month. C. About two months. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. When is the deadline for the permission form? A. This afternoon. B. The next day. C. This Thursday. 9. Why is the girl’s mother unable to sign the form? A. She is on business. B. She is having a meeting. C. She may forget it. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What has drawn Mark’s attention? A. A funny video. B. A phone screen. C. A piece of news. 11. What is the significance of the project mentioned? A. It aids climate studies. B. It promotes space travel. C. It tests rocket technology. 12. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A weather satellite. B. A space company. C. A research project. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Why did Lisa leave her previous job? A. It was really intense. B. It was badly-paid. C. It was unpromising. 14. What does Lisa enjoy most about her cafe? A. Designing the menu. B. Managing social media. C. Knowing her customers. 15. What is Lisa’s main challenge? A. Making enough cakes. B. Handling all work alone. C. Attracting young customers. 16 What is Lisa’s key advice on starting a small business? A. To use social media. B. To find a reliable partner. C. To focus on your strength. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the speaker probably? A. A news announcer. B. A zoo keeper. C. A wildlife scientist. 18. Where was the panda Xing Fu born and raised? A. In a Chinese zoo. B. In a European zoo. C. In a wild habitat. 19. What was part of Xing Fu’s special training? A. Wearing a GPS device. B. Establishing a home. C. Identifying dangers. 20. What is the main goal of this project? A. To attract more visitors. B. To increase panda numbers. C. To improve panda diversity. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. D 10. B 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. D 14. C 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. E 18. A 19. F 20. G 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. patiently 37. that##which 38. to refresh 39. located 40. have earned 41. featuring 42. natural 43. policies 44. a 45. as 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】【参考范文】 Dear Sam: Thank you for your attention to our “International Cultural Bridge” event. I would like to recommend a silk scarf. Among various options, the silk scarf symbolizes its elegant craftsmanship and unique design, which combines elements of the Great Wall of China and the Tower Bridge in London. By combining these two landmarks into one pattern, it represents friendship and connection between the two cultures. It’s not only a piece of beautiful clothing but also a thoughtful gift that conveys respect and goodwill. I believe it will serve as a perfect cultural bridge. Hope this suggestion helps! Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】参考范文】 “Got her!” I shouted. I managed to wrap my arms around her waist. She struggled gently her body weak with cold and exhaustion. “It’s alright — I’ve got you,” I repeated firmly, though waves crashed against my face. Using my buoy as a hold, I pulled her toward the shore, fighting the current. Yet the distant sight of Mike waving urgently renewed my strength. We finally reached shallow water, where Mike rushed to help carry her onto the sand. She lay coughing, her eyes empty with despair. Back at the lifeguard station, the woman and I sat side by side. Wrapped in a blanket, she stared blankly at her shaking hands until I offered her a warm drink. “Thank you,” she whispered, her voice weak. Slowly, her story unfolded — a recent loss made her sad. Worse still, when walking by the beach, she was accidentally pulled into the sea by waves. Listening quietly, I realized that being a hero wasn’t about dramatic rescues; it was about this moment of human connection, offering hope. Her gratitude, expressed through tear-filled eyes, reminded me why I chose this path. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $普通高中2025一2026学 英语 第三部分语言运用 第二节(15分) 56一65题评分标准：严格按照答案批改，有拼写错 误或大小写错误均不给分。未作答题目不得分。 参考答案： 56.patiently 57.that/which 58.to refresh 59.located 60.have earned 61.featuring 62.natural 63.policies 64.a 65.as 答案解析： 【语篇导读】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了北京潭 柘寺咖啡节是如何将咖啡文化与乡村旅游、骑行运 动相结合的。 56.patiently考查词性转换。根据句子结构可知， 此处修饰动词“waited”,应用形容词 “patient'”的副词形式。故填patiently。 57.that/which考查定语从句的引导词。设空处 引导一个定语从句，先行词是model,.指物，引 导词在从句中作主语，应用that或which引导 定语从句。故填that/which。 58.to refresh考查非谓语动词。不定式作目的状 语，表示“为了恢复能量”，在句中用来说明这 款饮品的特定作用。故填to refresh。 59.1 ocated考查非谓语动词。此处用过去分词作 后置定语，修饰the Snow Peak Cafe,表示 “坐落于”。故填located。 60.have earned考查动词时态。根据时间状语 “Since its opening”可知，此句应用现在完成 时，表明该咖啡店的产品自开业以来获得了广 泛认可，强调从开业至今的影响。故填have earned。 6l.featuring考查非谓语动词。在这个句子中， featuring是现在分词作伴随状语，用来补充说 明主句中“发布咖啡生活指南”这件事的具体 内容：这份指南的核心特征是包含三条咖啡主 题品鉴路线。故填featuring。 ·英语评分细则 年（上）高二年级期末考试 评分细则 62.natural考查词性转换。设空后是名词 “effect'”,应用“nature”的形容词形式修饰名 词。故填natural。 63.policies考查名词复数。此处指多项政策，符 合语境中的“多项有利的政策”。故填policies。 64.a考查冠词。表示“一个受欢迎的打卡点”。 “check-in point'”是一个可数名词，且第一次提 到，popular的读音以辅音音素开头，应使用不 定冠词“a”。故填a。 65.as考查介词。use sth.as sth.是固定搭配， 表示“把某物当作/用作某一身份/角色/载体”， 精准契合原句中“把咖啡作为特定切人点”的语 义。故填as。 第四部分写作 第一节(15分) 【参考范文】 Dear Sam, Thank you for your attention to our "International Cultural Bridge"event.I would like to recommend a silk scarf. Among various options,the silk scarf symbolizes its elegant craftsmanship and unique design,which combines elements of the Great Wall of China and the Tower Bridge in London.By combining these two landmarks into one pattern,it represents friendship and connection between the two cultures.It's not only a piece of beautiful clothing but also a thoughtful gift that conveys respect and goodwill. I believe it will serve as a perfect cultural bridge.Hope this suggestion helps! Yours, Li Hua 【评分标准】 一、评分原则 1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。评分标准 (第1页，共3页)· 同高考标准。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所 属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调 整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于60和多于100的，适当扣分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容重点、应用 词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连 贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分 时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美 拼写词汇和用法均可接受。 6.如书写较差以致影响交际的，将分数降低一个 档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档(13一15分)：完全达成了试题规定的任务， 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 一覆盖全部内容重点。 一应用了许多的语法结构和词汇。 一语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为因使用较 复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运 用能力。 一有效使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第四档(10一12分)：完全达成了试题规定的任务， 达到了预期的写作目的。 一虽遗漏1、2个次重点，但覆盖全部主要内容。 一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本正确，些许错误主 要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致 一应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第三档(7一9分)：基本达成了试题规定的任务， 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 一虽遗漏一些内容，但覆盖全部主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有些语法结构或者词汇方面的错误，但不影响 理解。 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档(4一6分)：未恰当完成试题规定的任务， 信息未能清楚地传达给读者」 一遗漏或未描绘清楚一些主要内容，写了一些不相 关内容。 ·英语评分细则 一语法结构单一、词汇项目有限。 一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写 作内容的理解。 一较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 第一档(1一3分)：未达成试题规定的任务，原因 可能是未理解试题要求。 显然遗漏主要内容，写了一些不相关内容，原因 可能是未理解试题要求。 一语法结构单一、词汇项目有限。 一许多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内 容的理解。 一缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 不得分(0分)：未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太 少，没法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容不相关或 所写内容没法看清楚，逻辑混乱。 第二节(25分) 【参考范文】 “Got her!”I shouted.I managed to wrap my arms around her waist.She struggled gently,her body weak with cold and exhaustion."It's alright- I've got you,"I repeated firmly,though waves crashed against my face.Using my buoy as a hold,I pulled her toward the shore,fighting the current's pull.Each stroke felt heavier,yet the distant sight of Mike waving urgently renewed my strength.We finally reached shallow water,where Mike rushed in to help carry her onto the sand.She lay coughing, her eyes empty with despair,but alive. Back at the lifeguard station,the woman and I sat side by side.Wrapped in a blanket,she stared blankly at her shaking hands until I offered her a warm drink.“Thank you,”she whispered,her voice weak.Slowly,her story unfolded-a recent loss has left her feeling sad.Worse still,when walking by the beach,she was accidentally pulled into the sea by the current.Listening quietly,I realized that being a hero wasn't about dramatic rescues;it was about this moment of human connection,offering hope when all seemed lost.Her gratitude,expressed through tear-filled eyes, 第2页，共3页)· reminded me why I chose this path. 【评分标准】 一、评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。 2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三 个方面考虑，具体为： (1)续写内容的质量、完整性以及原文情景的融 洽度。 (2)所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多 样性。 (3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3.评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的 档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量、确定或调 整档次，最后给分。 4.评分时还应注意： (1)词数少于130的，酌情扣分； (2)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分； (3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面， 评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美 拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 第七档(22一25分) 一创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性， 续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅， 语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解。 一自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间的衔接手段， 全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。 第六档(18一21分) 一创造了丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写 比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达 比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解。 一比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构 ·英语评分细则 比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 第五档(15一17分) 一创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写 基本完整，与原文情境相关。 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不 够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解。 使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰， 意义比较连贯。 第四档(11一14分) 一创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合 理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关。 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误 和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解。 尚有语句衔接的意义，全文结构基本清晰，意义 基本连贯。 第三档(6一10分) 一内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整， 与原文有一定程度的脱节。 -所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比 较低级，影响理解。 一未能有效地使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不 够清晰，意义不够连贯。 第二档(1一5分) 内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄 自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。 所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极 多，严重影响理解。 一几乎没有使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不清 晰，意义不连贯。 第一档(0分) 一未作答 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判。 一所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。 第3页，共3页)·