（山东济南卷）2025-2026学年八年级英语下学期开学提分卷 人教版

（山东济南卷）2025-2026学年八年级英语下学期 开学提分卷 人教版 解析卷 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4. 难度系数：0.65。 5．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1． A．Yes, he is. B．He is taller. C．He is smarter. 【答案】B 【原文】Is Tom taller or shorter than Alan? 2． A．I’d love to. B．You’re welcome. C．You’re right. 【答案】A 【原文】Shall we go to see the new film tonight? 3． A．Green and yellow. B．Wood and plastic. C．Meat and vegetables. 【答案】B 【原文】What is the table made of? 4． A．I don’t think so. B．The same to you. C．Me too. 【答案】C 【原文】I like running very much. 5． A．A doctor. B．In Beijing. C．For 10 years. 【答案】A 【原文】What do you want to be when you grow up? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6．Where did Emma stay during the National Day holiday? A．At home. B．At school. C．In the city library. 【答案】C 【原文】A: How do you like your National Day holiday, Emma? B: Pretty good. I stayed in the city library and read lots of books. 7．When does Ben often do chores? A．On Monday. B．On Friday. C．On Sunday. 【答案】C 【原文】A: Ben, do you often do chores at home? B: Yes. I am busy with my homework on weekdays. But I often help out with chores on weekends. 8．Where will they visit during the summer vacation? A．The beach. B．Fujian Tulou. C．The mountains. 【答案】B 【原文】W: Where shall we spend this summer vacation, at the beach or in the mountains? M: Neither. We will go to visit Fujian Tulou. 9．What is the man looking at through the telescope? A．Mars. B．The stars. C．The Moon. 【答案】B 【原文】W: Hey, Matthew! What are you looking at through the telescope? M: I’m looking at the stars. They are so amazing. 10．What does the woman want to do? A．Build a wall. B．Decorate the room. C．Share a room with John. 【答案】B 【原文】A: Can you help us decorate our room, John? B: Sure. I can help paint the wall. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．Whose birthday is on Saturday? A．Helen’s. B．Mike’s. C．Bob’s. 12．Why is Helen worried at first? A．She doesn’t like going camping. B．She forgot to invite Mike and Bob. C．Alex might miss her birthday party. 13．When will Alex’s camping trip finally happen? A．This Saturday. B．Next weekend. C．Never. 14．What will Helen’s mum prepare for the party? A．Beef and cheese pizzas. B．A strawberry cake. C．Some soft drinks. 15．What can we know about Helen? A．She is Alex’s sister. B．She is turning twelve. C．She is as tall as Alex. 【答案】11．A 12．C 13．B 14．A 15．B 【原文】A: Hi Alex, are you all right? B: Yeah Helen. I’m really excited. Mike, Bob and I are going to camp this Saturday. We will make a campfire. It all sounds fantastic. A: Uh, did Mike and Bob actually seem they are excited? B: Not yet, but we love it. Wait, you don’t like the plan, do you? A: Well. To be honest I’m not sure. But my birthday party is on Saturday, remember? B: Oh. I totally forgot. No worries, we’ll camp next weekend. I’ll text Mike and Bob now? A: Really? You don’t mind. B: Of course not, there’s no way we are missing your party. A: Thanks, Alex. Party starts at four, my mom says she’s going to make beef and cheese pizza. B: Sounds great. And I’ll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. A: Cool. I’ll prepare some soft drinks. B: Wonderful. See you on Saturday. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 16．How was the boy that David saw on the playground? A．Bored. B．Sad. C．Angry. 17．Why did David want to give something special to everyone in the school? A．Because he wanted everyone in the school to help each other. B．Because everyone in the school needed David’s help. C．Because David was a helpful teacher in the school. 18．Who helped David to make his idea come true? A．His brothers, classmates and friends. B．His parents, teachers and classmates. C．His friends, teachers and classmates. 19．What’s on the buttons (徽章)? A．A sentence. B．A picture. C．A flower. 20．What is the ending (结局) of the story? A．David became the most famous student in the school. B．David made everyone the school feel happy. C．David made a big difference to his school. 【答案】16．B 17．A 18．B 19．A 20．C 【原文】 One day, David saw a sad boy on the playground. After talking with him, he knew that the boy felt lonely in the school. David remembered seeing some other students who felt lonely, too. This made David come up with an idea. He wanted to give something special to everyone in the school to let them know that everyone was important and they should give more care and kindness to people around. With the help of David’s parents, teachers and classmates, he decided on buttons (徽章). David printed the buttons with the sentence “You Belong Here!” Then he and his classmates gave the buttons to each student in the school. David hoped that the buttons would help the students remember that they all belonged here. He also hoped the students could make friends actively. Now, almost all the students in the school are wearing the buttons and they spend more time with each other than before. David is very happy because he knows that he has really made a difference! 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Chimelong Safari Park It is one of the biggest nature parks in China and is home to about 20,000 animals, including pandas, tigers and birds. It is the first park in China to introduce a self-drive tour. Tourists can watch wild animals while driving in the special area around the park. Opening Hours:9:30 a.m.~6:00 p.m. (Monday to Friday) 9:30 a.m.~6:30 p.m. (Saturday to Sunday)Rules for Tourists: Don’t get off in the self-drive area. Drive slowly and stop to take photos of the animals. Tourists can have meals at restaurants in the park if they are hungry. Don’t bring any food into the park except the food for babies.Ticket Information: 300 yuan/an adult (成人) 280 yuan/a student 245 yuan/a child (1.0~1.5 meters tall) It’s free for children shorter than 1 meter.Address: No. 299, Hanxi Avenue, Panyu District, GuangzhouHow to Get There: 1. By bus: Take Bus No. 304 or 562 and get off at Hanxi Changlong Station. 2. By underground: Take Guangzhou Metro Line 3 to Hanxi Changlong Station. 21．What is special about Chimelong Safari Park according to the passage? A．It only has pandas and tigers. B．It is the biggest park in China. C．Tourists can not eat in the park. D．Tourists can drive to see animals. 22．When can people visit Chimelong Safari Park? A．At 6:30 p.m. on Friday. B．At 8:30 a.m. on Tuesday. C．At 10:00 a.m. on Saturday. D．At 9:00 p.m. on Sunday. 23．What can people do when visiting the park? A．Bring baby food into the park. B．Get off the car to feed animals. C．Drive fast to watch more animals. D．Drive quickly and stop to take photos of the animals. 24．How much should Jason pay if he goes to the park with his 1.3-meter-tall daughter? A．245 yuan. B．280 yuan. C．300 yuan. D．545 yuan. 25．Where is this passage most probably from? A．A music book. B．A travel guide. C．A science fiction. D．A health magazine. 【答案】21．D 22．C 23．A 24．D 25．B 【导语】本文介绍广州长隆野生动物世界的概况、开放时间、规则、票价与交通方式，为游客提供游玩参考信息。 21．细节理解题。根据“It is the first park in China to introduce a self-drive tour. Tourists can watch wild animals while driving in the special area around the park.”可知，该园区的特色是游客可以自驾观赏动物，故选D。 22．细节理解题。根据“9:30 a.m.~6:00 p.m. (Monday to Friday)，9:30 a.m.~6:30 p.m. (Saturday to Sunday)”可知，周六上午十点在开放时段内，故选C。 23．细节理解题。根据“Don’t bring any food into the park except the food for babies.”可知，只有婴儿食品可以带入园区，故选A。 24．推理判断题。根据“300 yuan/an adult，245 yuan/a child (1.0~1.5 meters tall)”可知，成人票价300元，1.3米儿童票价245元，合计545元，故选D。 25．推理判断题。根据全文介绍景点、游玩规则、票价、交通等旅游相关信息可知，文章最可能出自旅游指南，故选B。 B Huangmei Opera is a famous type of traditional Chinese opera from Huangmei County in Anhui Province. It first appeared during the mid-Qing Dynasty and now stands as one of China’s most important local operas. People in Anhui and Hubei provinces first enjoyed this opera. Audiences (观众) , especially in the Jianghuai area, love its beautiful and easy-to-remember music, its simple acting, and its easy-to-understand language. This opera began as folk singing. People called its early form the “Huangmei tune (曲调) ,” which is simple and traditional. Over hundreds of years, it developed by learning from other opera styles. Today, performers use unusual music, acting methods, and stage skills that give Huangmei Opera its special style. The music in Huangmei Opera has clear, lively, and moving tunes. It builds on the old Huangmei tune and helps express the characters’ feelings, pulling the audience into the story. Its performance style seems more simple and natural than that of other Chinese operas. Actors use real and honest expressions so that everyone can understand the story and connect with the characters. Performers usually sing and speak in the local languages of Anhui or Hubei. This makes the opera feel close and friendly to common people, and more and more people like it. Huangmei Opera strongly influences Chinese culture. In the mid-20th century, it reached more people through movies. The famous film The Fairy Couple especially helped people all over China and the world know about this beautiful art form. Today, Huangmei Opera is still an important part of Chinese tradition, and it keeps getting more fans from all over the world. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 26．When did Huangmei Opera first appear? A．In the mid-20th century. B．During the mid-Qing Dynasty. C．During the late Qing Dynasty. D．During Anhui Province’s founding period. 27．What’s the main purpose of the second paragraph? A．To tell us why people love Huangmei Opera today. B．To list all the places where Huangmei Opera is popular. C．To compare Huangmei Opera with other kinds of music. D．To show how Huangmei Opera started and changed over time. 28．What does the underlined word “that” refer to in Paragraph 3? A．The audience. B．Huangmei Opera. C．Performance style. D．The music of Huangmei Opera. 29．Why can audiences easily connect with Huangmei Opera performances? A．Because it uses very old and formal language. B．Because the actors wear very colorful clothes. C．Because the stories are always about modern life. D．Because the actors use natural expressions and local language. 30．What is the main idea of the passage? A．Huangmei Opera is no longer popular in China today. B．Huangmei Opera is a popular local opera with special artistic styles. C．The film The Fairy Couple is the only reason Huangmei Opera is famous. D．Huangmei Opera started as a folk tune and has become a popular and influential Chinese opera. 【答案】26．B 27．D 28．C 29．D 30．D 【导语】本文主要介绍了黄梅戏的历史背景、形成过程、传播情况以及在现代的影响。 26．细节理解题。根据“It first appeared during the mid-Qing Dynasty”可知，黄梅戏首次出现在清朝中期。故选B。 27．主旨大意题。根据“This opera began as folk singing...Today, performers use unusual music, acting methods, and stage skills that give Huangmei Opera its special style.”可知，第二段主要讲述了黄梅戏的起源以及它是如何随着时间变化的。故选D。 28．词句猜测题。根据“Its performance style seems more simple and natural than that of other Chinese operas.”可知，它的表演风格似乎比其他中国戏曲更简单自然，此处that指代的是“表演风格”。故选C。 29．细节理解题。根据“Actors use real and honest expressions so that everyone can understand the story and connect with the characters. Performers usually sing and speak in the local languages of Anhui or Hubei.”可知，演员们使用真实而诚实的表情，这样每个人都能理解故事并与角色产生联系，表演者通常用安徽或湖北的当地语言唱歌和说话，所以观众很容易与黄梅戏表演产生联系是因为演员们使用自然的表情和当地语言。故选D。 30．主旨大意题。根据“Huangmei Opera is a famous type of traditional Chinese opera...Huangmei Opera strongly influences Chinese culture.”以及通读全文可知，本文主要介绍了黄梅戏，它起源于民间曲调，现在已成为一种受欢迎且有影响力的中国戏曲。故选D。 C When I was 10, my grandmother came to stay with us in our village home. For the first few months, grandma seemed lonely and out of place. She wasn’t used to the traffic noises and missed the peace and quiet of life in the country. However, she slowly accepted that she would spend the rest of her life with us in a little house far from her childhood (童年) farm. When the warm spring winds began to blow, grandma told us that she was going to plant a small garden. “But there is no need to do that,” father said. “I know, we can buy the food, but I need a garden. And I’m going to plant one here,” replied grandmother. She asked me if I would help her prepare the land for planting and I happily agreed. In early spring, we put cabbages, corn, and tomatoes in the little pots. I carefully watered them every day. Soon, little green shoots appeared. When the days were warm enough, we moved the young plants into neat (整齐的) rows in the small garden. When everything was planted, we stood and looked at the newly planted garden proudly. “In a month, we will have cabbages to eat,” said grandmother happily. “And a few weeks after that, we will have plenty of fresh vegetables for our supper table.” I am so glad to spend those days looking after our plants in the summer heat. When autumn arrived, we harvested (收获) the food. Grandmother made sure we always had something fresh on the table. Now that I’m older and living on my own, I still remember those wonderful meals with an old lady’s love. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 31．What made grandma out of place at the beginning of the story? A．She didn’t like the food there. B．She hated the heavy traffic. C．She missed the life in the country. D．She thought the weather was too cold. 32．What’s the meaning of the underlined word “shoots” in Paragraph 5? A．根 B．花朵 C．嫩芽 D．果实 33．What would they eat first from the garden, according to grandmother? A． B． C． D． 34．How did grandma’s feelings change according to the story? A．sad-angry-proud B．lonely-excited-moved C．lonely-proud-happy D．sad-excited-moved 35．What’s the best title of the passage? A．Life in the village home. B．Fresh vegetables on the table. C．How to plant a garden. D．Grandma’s garden of love. 【答案】31．C 32．C 33．A 34．C 35．D 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者的奶奶初到作者家感到孤独，后与作者共种菜园，收获幸福与爱的故事。 31．细节理解题。根据“She wasn’t used to the traffic noises and missed the peace and quiet of life in the country.”可知，奶奶起初不适应是因为想念乡村的宁静生活。故选C。 32．词句猜测题。根据“I carefully watered them every day. Soon, little green shoots appeared.”可知，浇水后长出的绿色小芽是植物的嫩芽，shoots意为“嫩芽”。故选C。 33．细节理解题。根据“‘In a month, we will have cabbages to eat,’ said grandmother happily.”可知，奶奶说最先能吃到的是卷心菜，对应图片A。故选A。 34．细节理解题。根据“grandma seemed lonely and out of place”、“we stood and looked at the newly planted garden proudly”、“said grandmother happily”可知，奶奶的情感变化是孤独→自豪→开心。故选C。 35．最佳标题题。全文围绕奶奶的菜园展开，菜园承载着奶奶的爱与对生活的热爱，“Grandma’s garden of love”最能概括文章主旨。故选D。 D Here is the car of the future! This car is very different from today’s cars. It is quiet and clean. Today’s cars have wheels, but this one does not. It moves like a snail (蜗牛), but is much faster than a snail! This car will use electricity (电). People can make it full of electricity very quickly. It will also be very easy to drive. In fact, you don’t need to drive it because it will drive itself. You will just need to tell the computer “Go to …” and then the car will take you there. Also, it will reach the place very quickly, much faster than today’s cars. It will also be very safe and comfortable. A lot of technology has already appeared, but it is at the experimental stage (试验阶段). Fifty years from now, maybe sooner, some new roads will have solar panels and some cars will be able to use them. However, you may not be able to drive a “snail car”, even if you’re only under 20 today. Maybe this is the car of the year 2100, and your grandchildren may drive it. No pollution, no traffic jams, no stress. Scientists have lots of ideas about the car of the future. It will be interesting to see what ideas they come up with many years from now. 36．What can we know about the car of the future according to Paragraphs 1 and 2? A．The car won’t be easy to drive. B．The car moves as quickly as today’s cars. C．The car has wheels. D．The car will be silent and clean. 37．What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 3 mean? A．Snails. B．Solar panels. C．Snail cars. D．Cars of the future. 38．What can we infer (推断) according to the last paragraph? A．Driving will be difficult in the 22nd century. B．Driving will be nice in the 22nd century. C．Driving will be worrying in the 22nd century. D．Driving will be tiring in the 22nd century. 39．What’s the advantage (优点) of the car of the future? A．It will be able to drive itself. B．The car will not use electricity. C．There will be a robot to drive it. D．When driving it, people don’t need to tell the computer what to do. 40．What’s the best title for the passage? A．The Solar Energy B．Important Energy C．The Future Cars D．Some Interesting Experiments 【答案】36．D 37．B 38．B 39．A 40．C 【导语】本文主要介绍了未来汽车的特点，包括无车轮、电动驱动、自动驾驶、安全舒适等，还提到相关技术处于试验阶段及未来可能的应用场景。 36．细节理解题。根据“This car is very different from today’s cars. It is quiet and clean.”可知，未来的汽车安静又清洁。故选D。 37．词句猜测题。根据“Fifty years from now, maybe sooner, some new roads will have solar panels and some cars will be able to use them.”可知，此处“them”指代前文提到的太阳能电池板。故选B。 38．推理判断题。根据“No pollution, no traffic jams, no stress.”可知，未来的驾驶没有污染、堵车和压力，可以推断未来的驾驶将是美好的。故选B。 39．细节理解题。根据“This car will use electricity (电). People can make it full of electricity very quickly. It will also be very easy to drive. In fact, you don’t need to drive it because it will drive itself. You will just need to tell the computer ‘Go to …’ and then the car will take you there.”可知，未来的汽车需要使用电，需要人们向电脑下达指令，可以自动驾驶。故选A。 40．最佳标题题。通读全文可知，文章主要介绍未来的汽车，C选项“未来的汽车”是最佳标题。故选C。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） How to Get a “Yes” for Your Trip Do you want to go on a fun trip with your friends? But are you worried your parents will say no? Don’t worry! 41 Let your parents know your friends well. Invite your friends to your house a few times. When your parents see that your friends are nice and responsible (负责任的), they will feel better about the trip. 42 Don’t start the conversation suddenly. Ask your parents, “Can we talk about something important?” and choose a time when everyone is free and happy. Tell your parents why this trip is important for you. Explain how it can help you learn new things, see new places, and become more independent. Please don’t just say you want to go for parties or fun. 43 Show them your plan. Parents love to see a clear plan. Prepare a simple list of where you will go, where you will stay, and what you will do each day. 44 This shows you are serious and responsible. Ask your parents what they think. Listen to their questions and worries carefully. 45 Then, show them your new plan and make sure they are happy with it. This is called a compromise (妥协). If you follow these steps, your parents will see that you have thought about everything. They will know you are ready for this adventure. Good luck. A．Find a good time to talk. B．Promise you will call them every day. C．Maybe you need to change your plan a little. D．Show them this is a good learning experience. E．Let them know your friends’ parents also agreed. F．Also, tell them about how much money the trip will cost. G．Here is a plan to help you talk to them and get their “yes”. 【答案】41．G 42．A 43．D 44．F 45．C 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，针对如何让父母同意自己的旅行计划，给出了具体的建议。 41．根据前文“Don’t worry!”及下文分条给出的建议可知，此处起到承上启下的过渡作用，选项G“这里有一个计划可以帮助你和他们沟通并获得他们的同意。”符合语境。故选G。 42．根据下文“Don’t start the conversation suddenly... choose a time when everyone is free and happy.”可知，此段围绕“选择合适的沟通时间”展开，选项A“找一个合适的时间沟通。”符合语境。故选A。 43．根据前文“Explain how it can help you learn new things, see new places, and become more independent.”可知，此段围绕“说明旅行的重要性，尤其是学习意义”展开，选项D“向他们展示这是一次很好的学习经历。”符合语境。故选D。 44．根据前文“Prepare a simple list of where you will go, where you will stay, and what you will do each day.”可知，此段围绕“展示旅行计划”展开，选项F“另外，告知他们这次旅行的花费。”是对旅行计划的补充说明，符合语境。故选F。 45．根据下文“Then, show them your new plan and make sure they are happy with it.”可知，此处指需要根据父母的意见调整计划，选项C“也许你需要稍微调整一下你的计划。”符合语境。故选C。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Amy: Hi, Ken. Our community will hold an activity to clean up the park this Saturday. Ken: Yes, I did. How about you? Amy: Me too. I’m just thinking about what to prepare. Do you have any advice? Ken: Well, we might need gloves and rubbish bags. Amy: Good idea. Let’s take some from home. Ken: OK. Amy: Oh, I’d love to. Ken: Great! It’s green and healthy. Amy: Right. By the way, I also plan to plant a tree there if possible. Ken: It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener. Amy: Will you bring your younger sister with you? Ken: Yeah, she wants to come. Amy: Great! Let’s meet at the park gate at 9 a.m. 46．A．Did you hear about it? B．What time will it start? C．Are you going to join? D．Can you help organize it? 47．A．Where did you buy them? B．How many do we need? C．Why don’t we bring them? D．Who can help us get some? 48．A．How will you go there? B．Can you give me a lift? C．What would you like to be? D．Shall we go there by bike? 49．A．Good for you! B．Nothing serious. C．I don’t agree. D．Sounds tiring. 50．A．She’s too young to join us. B．She likes nature a lot. C．She is busy this weekend. D．She dislikes getting dirty. 【答案】46．A 47．C 48．D 49．A 50．B 【导语】本文主要是艾米和肯关于周六社区公园清扫活动的对话，内容围绕活动通知、准备物品、出行方式及同行人员展开。 46．根据下文肯的回答“Yes, I did.”可知，上文艾米的问句应为一般过去时，选项A“你听说这件事了吗？”符合语境。故选A。 47．根据下文艾米的回答“Good idea. Let’s take some from home.”可知，上文肯应是提出了带物品的建议，选项C“我们为什么不带上它们呢？”符合语境。故选C。 48．根据下文艾米的回答“Oh, I’d love to.”及“ It’s green and healthy.”可知，上文肯提出的建议应是健康环保的出行方式，选项D“我们骑自行车去那里好吗？”符合语境。故选D。 49．根据上文艾米说计划种树及下文“ It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener.”可知，肯应是对艾米的想法表示认可，选项A“你真棒！”符合语境。故选A。 50．根据上文肯说妹妹想来及下文艾米的回应“Great!”可知，此处应补充妹妹想来的原因，选项B“她非常喜欢大自然。”符合语境。故选B。 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 Ava is worried about going back to school. She has been out of school for several weeks. She is 51 of learning new things and making new friends again. Her mother 52 Ava to take her stuffed (毛绒的) toy to school. Ava loves the idea and 53 finds her favourite stuffed bear, Teddy. On the first day of school, Ava goes to school 54 Teddy in her schoolbag. Before walking into the classroom, she is a little 55 . Then she 56 of Teddy. She takes it out and 57 it. The soft feeling makes her feel 58 . At break time, Ava sees a boy called Lucas 59 with a stuffed dog. She walks to Lucas and asks about the stuffed dog. Lucas says Bingo makes him feel 60 at school. Ava knows they have 61 in common. After that, they often play together, and soon become good friends. Ava and Lucas 62 to start the Stuffed Animal Club at school. They take their stuffed animals to school every day. Many other children join the club. There are about thirty 63 now. They meet on Mondays and Thursdays. In the club, they share stories and play different games together. It’s so much fun! Because of the club, many other children like Ava and Lucas have new friends and feel safe at school. Ava and Lucas want to help more kids. They plan to 64 stuffed animals to the kids in hospital next week. The idea makes all the club members excited. They’re happy to do 65 things. The club becomes a warm place for every member. 51．A．tired B．careful C．afraid D．proud 52．A．stops B．advises C．allows D．invites 53．A．hardly B．suddenly C．quickly D．recently 54．A．for B．about C．from D．with 55．A．angry B．bored C．relaxed D．nervous 56．A．hears B．talks C．thinks D．dreams 57．A．hits B．hugs C．throws D．washes 58．A．better B．worse C．sadder D．quieter 59．A．eating B．playing C．sleeping D．reading 60．A．safe B．busy C．funny D．lucky 61．A．nothing B．everything C．anything D．something 62．A．warn B．refuse C．decide D．forget 63．A．members B．teachers C．parents D．visitors 64．A．give away B．give up C．take off D．put on 65．A．careful B．useless C．meaningful D．endless 【答案】 51．C 52．B 53．C 54．D 55．D 56．C 57．B 58．A 59．B 60．A 61．D 62．C 63．A 64．A 65．C 【导语】本文讲述艾娃返校前感到不安，带着毛绒熊上学获得慰藉，结识有相同经历的卢卡斯，二人创办毛绒动物俱乐部，帮助更多孩子交友并传递温暖的故事。 51．句意：她害怕再次学习新东西和交新朋友。 tired疲惫的；careful小心的；afraid害怕的；proud骄傲的。根据“Ava is worried about going back to school.”可知，艾娃担心返校，此处指害怕学新东西和交新朋友，故选C。 52．句意：她的妈妈建议艾娃把她的毛绒玩具带到学校去。 stops阻止；advises建议；allows允许；invites邀请。根据“Ava loves the idea”可知，妈妈给了艾娃一个想法，此处指建议艾娃带毛绒玩具，故选B。 53．句意：艾娃喜欢这个主意，很快找到了她最喜欢的毛绒熊泰迪。 hardly几乎不；suddenly突然；quickly快速地；recently最近。根据“Ava loves the idea”可知，艾娃很认可这个主意，会快速去找毛绒熊，故选C。 54．句意：开学第一天，艾娃带着泰迪在书包里去上学。 for为了；about关于；from从；with带着。根据“Ava goes to school...Teddy in her schoolbag”可知，此处指艾娃随身带着泰迪，with表伴随，故选D。 55．句意：在走进教室之前，她有点紧张。 angry生气的；bored无聊的；relaxed放松的；nervous紧张的。根据“Ava is worried about going back to school.”可知，艾娃本就担心返校，走进教室前会感到紧张，故选D。 56．句意：然后她想到了泰迪。 hears听见；talks谈论；thinks想到；dreams梦想。根据“She takes it out”可知，艾娃想起了书包里的泰迪，think of意为“想到”，故选C。 57．句意：她把它拿出来并抱住了它。 hits击打；hugs拥抱；throws扔；washes洗。根据“The soft feeling makes her feel...”可知，毛绒熊的柔软带来慰藉，此处指艾娃抱住毛绒熊，故选B。 58．句意：柔软的触感让她感觉好多了。 better更好的；worse更糟的；sadder更难过的；quieter更安静的。根据前文她感到紧张，结合毛绒熊带来的柔软触感，可知此处指感觉变好，故选A。 59．句意：休息时，艾娃看到一个叫卢卡斯的男孩在玩一只毛绒狗。 eating吃；playing玩；sleeping睡觉；reading阅读。根据“with a stuffed dog”可知，此处指男孩玩毛绒狗，play with意为“玩……”，故选B。 60．句意：卢卡斯说宾果让他在学校感到安心。 safe安心的；busy忙碌的；funny有趣的；lucky幸运的。根据后文艾娃和卢卡斯有共同之处，艾娃因毛绒熊感到安心，可知此处指卢卡斯因毛绒狗感到安心，故选A。 61．句意：艾娃知道他们有一些共同之处。 nothing没有什么；everything一切；anything任何事物；something某事、某物。根据前文二人都有毛绒玩具且因毛绒玩具获得慰藉，可知此处指有一些共同之处，something in common意为“共同之处”，故选D。 62．句意：艾娃和卢卡斯决定在学校创办毛绒动物俱乐部。 warn警告；refuse拒绝；decide决定；forget忘记。根据“They take their stuffed animals to school every day. Many other children join the club.”可知，二人开启了俱乐部的相关活动，此处指决定创办俱乐部，故选C。 63．句意：现在大约有三十名成员。 members成员；teachers老师；parents父母；visitors参观者。根据“Many other children join the club.”可知，此处指俱乐部的成员数量，故选A。 64．句意：他们计划下周把毛绒玩具捐赠给医院里的孩子们。 give away捐赠；give up放弃；take off脱下、起飞；put on穿上。根据“Ava and Lucas want to help more kids.”可知，二人想帮助更多孩子，此处指捐赠毛绒玩具，故选A。 65．句意：他们很高兴做有意义的事情。 careful小心的；useless无用的；meaningful有意义的；endless无尽的。根据前文捐赠毛绒玩具帮助医院的孩子，可知这是有意义的事，故选C。 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或词组或括号内单词的正确形式。 Many people don’t realize it, but keeping a home comfortable takes a lot of work. It’s not just about cleaning—it’s all the little things we do every day, like taking out the rubbish, 66 (sort) toys and clothes into boxes, and watering the plants. People call these things “invisible (隐形的) chores”. No one notices them 67 someone forgets to do them. Sam Kelly, a mum of three, 68 (have) a smart way to teach her kids about these invisible jobs. She uses a “Notice and Do” list. Instead of 69 (give) her children a chore list, the wise mother teaches them to look around and see what needs doing. “First you notice it, and then you do it,” she tells them. Sam used to remind the kids 70 (do) the housework. However, the kids sometimes did the chores 71 (careless). Now they’re learning to do the housework on their own carefully. This helps them become 72 (help) family members. Sam makes sure her son and daughters all do the chores. “Chores aren’t just 73 girls,” she says. “Everyone should help make our home nice.” The “Notice and Do” list teaches kids some important life 74 (skill). When they learn to do chores without others reminding them, they’re learning how to take care of 75 (them) and others, so they can live more independently (独立地). 【答案】 66．sorting 67．until 68．has 69．giving 70．to do 71．carelessly 72．helpful 73．for 74．skills 75．themselves 【导语】本文主要介绍了“隐形家务”的概念，以及Sam Kelly教孩子做隐形家务的方法和意义。 66．句意：它不只是打扫卫生——而是我们每天做的所有小事，比如倒垃圾、把玩具和衣服分类放进箱子里，还有浇花。根据“like taking out the rubbish, … (sort) toys and clothes into boxes”可知，此处和“taking”和“watering”并列，需用sort的动名词形式sorting。故填sorting。 67．句意：没人会注意到这些家务，直到有人忘记做它们。根据“No one notices them…someone forgets to do them”可知，“not…until…”是固定结构表示“直到……才……”。故填until。 68．句意：三个孩子的妈妈Sam Kelly有一个聪明的方法教她的孩子了解这些隐形的家务。根据“Sam Kelly, a mum of three, … (have) a smart way”可知，主语是第三人称单数，句子是一般现在时，have的第三人称单数形式是has。故填has。 69．句意：她用“注意并行动”清单，而不是给孩子列家务清单。根据“Instead of… (give) her children a chore list”可知，“instead of”后接动名词，give的动名词形式是giving。故填giving。 70．句意：Sam过去常提醒孩子们做家务。根据“Sam used to remind the kids… (do) the housework”可知，“remind sb. to do sth.”是固定搭配表示“提醒某人做某事”。故填to do。 71．句意：然而，孩子们有时做家务很粗心。根据“the kids sometimes did the chores … (careless)”可知，此处修饰动词“did”，需用careless的副词形式carelessly。故填carelessly。 72．句意：这帮助他们成为有用的家庭成员。根据“This helps them become… (help) family members”可知，此处作定语修饰“family members”，需用help的形容词形式helpful。故填helpful。 73．句意：“家务不只是给女孩做的，”她说。根据“Chores aren’t just … girls”可知，“for”表示“给；为了”，符合“家务不是只为女孩做”的语境。故填for。 74．句意：“注意并行动”清单教给孩子们一些重要的生活技能。根据“some important life … (skill)”可知，“some”后接可数名词复数，skill的复数形式是skills。故填skills。 75．句意：当他们学会不用别人提醒就做家务时，他们也在学习如何照顾自己和他人，这样就能更独立地生活。根据“how to take care of…(them) and others”可知，此处表示“照顾自己”，需用them的反身代词形式themselves。故填themselves。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76． A: Who did Ella go to the park with last weekend? B: 77． A: B: Sorry, I have to make the bed. 78． A: What should we do with the tomatoes? B: 79． A: What does Steve want to be when he grows up? B: 80． A: B: There will be more people in cities in the future. 【答案】76．She went to the park/there with her grandparents. 77．Could you (please) sweep the floor?/Can you (help) sweep the floor? 78．We should cut (up) the tomatoes./We should cut them into pieces. 79．He wants to be a fireman (when he grows up). 80．What will the future be like?/What will cities be like?/What is your prediction about the future? 【解析】76．根据图片和“Who did Ella go to the park with last weekend?”可知，应回答“她和爷爷奶奶去的公园。”句子应用一般过去时。“和某人去公园”表达为“go to the park with sb.”，“她的爷爷奶奶”表达为“her grandparents”，主语用She，谓语用动词go的过去式went。句中也可用地点副词there代替to the park。故填She went to the park/there with her grandparents. 77．根据图片和“Sorry, I have to make the bed.”可知，问句应为“你能扫下地吗？”或“你能帮忙扫地吗？”Could you (please) do sth.?或Can you (help) do sth.?用于表示请求，“扫地”表达为“sweep the floor”。故填Could you (please) sweep the floor?/Can you (help) sweep the floor? 78．根据图片和“What should we do with the tomatoes?”可知，应回答“我们应该切（碎）西红柿。”或“我们应该把它们切成小块。”主语为We；“应该”表达为“should”，后加动词原形；“切西红柿”表达为“cut the tomatoes”，“切碎”表达为“cut up”，“把它们切成小块”表达为“cut them into pieces”。故填We should cut (up) the tomatoes./We should cut them into pieces. 79．根据图片和“What does Steve want to be when he grows up?”可知，应回答“他（长大后）想成为一名消防员。”句子应用一般现在时。主语为He；“想要成为”表达为“want to be”，谓语want用动词第三人称单数形式wants，“一名消防员”表达为“a fireman”，“他长大后”表达为“when he grows up”。故填He wants to be a fireman (when he grows up). 80．根据图片和“There will be more people in cities in the future.”可知，问句应为“未来会是什么样子的？”、“城市会是什么样子的？”或“你对未来有什么预测？”句型为：What will sth. be like?“某物会是什么样子的？”，What is your prediction about sth.?“你对某物有什么预测？”“未来”表达为“the future”，“城市”表达为“cities”。故填What will the future be like?/What will cities be like?/What is your prediction about the future? 第二节 作文（满分25分） 81．同学们，未来的生活总是充满无限遐想与美好憧憬。本次的写作任务是以“Future”为主题，写一篇英语文章。请你从以下两个方面选择一个，根据写作要求，简单描述人类的未来生活或者是你自己的未来生活，认真完成写作任务。 选择1： ●What will the environment be like? (better, more trees...) ●What activities will people be able to do in their free time? (travel, study, robot...) ●How can we prepare for the future? (keep learning, work hard...) 选择2： ●What will you be? (artist/ teacher/ lawyer...) ●What will your life be like? (live in, family, have fun...) ●How are you going to make your dreams come true? (practice, improve skills, study hard...) 要求： 1. 短文内容应包含题目要求所给的全部提示信息，选择使用参考词汇，可适当发挥； 2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整； 3. 短文中不得出现你的任何真实信息 (姓名、校名等)。若文中出现人名，请选择使用：Mr. Liu/Ms. Wang /Fu Xiang /Teng Fei。 4. 词数：不少于70。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Future I believe the future will be wonderful. I choose to write about my own future life. In the future, I will be a teacher like Ms. Wang. I will live in a city with my family. We will have a smart home with robots helping us. In my free time, I will travel to the moon with my friends for fun. To make my dream come true, I need to prepare now. I will study hard at all subjects to improve my study skills. I will also practice speaking in public. I believe if I keep learning and working hard, my dream will come true one day. 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇记叙文，为材料作业； ②时态：时态主要为“一般将来时”； ③提示：选择第二个主题，描述未来职业、生活及实现梦想的方式。 [写作步骤] 第一步，点明对未来的美好期许，确定写作主题为自身未来生活； 第二步，描述未来的职业、生活环境与休闲计划，具体勾勒未来生活图景； 第三步，说明实现未来梦想的当下准备与努力方向，表达实现梦想的决心。 [亮点词汇] ①in one’s free time在某人的空闲时间 ②come true实现 ③in public在公共场合 [高分句型] ①To make my dream come true, I need to prepare now. (不定式短语作目的状语) ②I believe if I keep learning and working hard, my dream will come true one day.  (宾语从句、if引导的条件状语从句) 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。Is tom taller or shorter than Allen? Is tom taller or shorter than Allen? Listen to the next question. Shall we go to see the new film tonight? Shall we go to see the new film tonight? Listen to the next question. what is the table made of? What is the table made of? Listen to the next question. I like running . very much. I like running very much. Listen to the next question. What do you want to be when you grow up? What do you want to be when you grow up? Listen to the next question. How do you like your national day holiday? ema? Pretty good. I stayed in the city library and read lots of books. How do you like your national day holiday? ema? Pretty good. I stayed in the city library and read lots of books. Listen to the next question ban. Do you often do tours at home? Yes, I am busy with my homework on weekdays, but I often help out with chores on weekends. Then do you often do chores at home? Yes, I am . busy with my homework on weekdays, but I often help out with chores on weekends. Listen to the next question. Where shall we spend this summer vacation at the beach or in the mountains? neither. We will go to visit fujin. Too low. Where shall we spend this summer vacation at the beach or in the . mountains? neither. We will go to visit food, jane. Too low. Listen to the next question. Hey, Matthew, what are you looking at through the telescope? I'm looking at the stars. They are so amazing. Hey, Matthew, what are you looking at through the . telescope? I'm looking at the stars. They are so amazing. Listen to the next . question. Can you help us decorate . our room on? Sure, I can help paint the wall. Can you help us decorate our room? don? sure. I can help paint the wall. Listen to the next . question. Hi, alex. Are you all right? Yeah, Helen, i'm really excited. Mike, bob and I are going to camp this saturday. We will make a camp fire. IT all sounds . fantastic. Did my kid bob actually say they're excited? Not yet, but we all love IT. Wait, you don't like the plan, do you? Well. to be honest, i'm not sure. But my birthday party is on saturday. remember? Oh, I totally forgot. No worries. Will camp next weekend. I, your text, mike and bomb. Now. really, you don't mind. Of course not. There's no way we are missing your party. Thanks, alex. Party does that for my mom says she's going to make beef and cheese pizza. Sounds great. And i'll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. cool. I'll prepare some soft drinks. wonderful. See you on saturday. Hi, alex. Are you all right? Yeah, Helen, i'm really excited. Mike, bob and I are going to camp this saturday. We will make a campfire at all songs. fantastic. Did my and bob actually see they're excited? Not yet, but we all love IT. Wait, you don't like the plan, do you? Well, to be honest, i'm not sure. But my birthday party . is on saturday, remember? Oh, I totally forgot. No worries. Will camp next weekend. Are your text mike and bomb now . really you don't mind? Of course not. There's no way we are missing your party. Thanks, alex. Party does at for my mom says she's going to make beef and cheese . pizza sounds great. And i'll bring a strawberry cake with twelve candles on top. cool. I'll prepare some soft drinks. wonderful. See you on saturday. Listen to the next . question. One day, David saw a sad boy the playground. After talking with him, he knew that the boy felt newly in the school. David remembered seeing some other students who felt lonely, too. This made David come up with an idea. He wanted to give something special to everyone in the school to let them know that everyone was important, and they should give more care and kindness. Ss, to people around. With the help of David's parents, teachers and classmates, he decided in buttons. David printed the buttons with the sentence you belong here. Then he and his classmates gave the buttons to each student in the school. David hoped that the buttons would help the students remember that they all belonged. He also hoped the students could make friends actively. Now almost all the students in the school are wearing the buttons, and they spend more time with each other than before. David is very happy because he knows that he has really made a difference. One day, David saw a sad boy on the playground. After talking with him, he knew that the boy felt nony in the school, David remembered seeing some other students who felt no need too. This made David come up with an idea. He wanted to give something special to everyone in the school to let them know that everyone was important, and they should give more care and kindness to people around. With the help of David, parents, teachers and classmate, he decided on buttons. David printed the buttons with the sentence you belong here. Then he and his classmates gave the buttons to each student in the school. David hoped that the buttons would help the students remember that they all belonged here. He also hoped the students could make friends actively. Now almost all the students in the school are wearing the buttons, and they spend more time with each other than before. David is very happy because he knows that he has really made a difference. 听力部分到此结束。 （山东济南卷）2025-2026学年八年级英语下学期 开学提分卷 人教版 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4. 难度系数：0.65。 5．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1．A．Yes, he is. B．He is taller. C．He is smarter. 2．A．I’d love to. B．You’re welcome. C．You’re right. 3．A．Green and yellow. B．Wood and plastic. C．Meat and vegetables. 4．A．I don’t think so. B．The same to you. C．Me too. 5． A．A doctor. B．In Beijing. C．For 10 years. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6．Where did Emma stay during the National Day holiday? A．At home. B．At school. C．In the city library. 7．When does Ben often do chores? A．On Monday. B．On Friday. C．On Sunday. 8．Where will they visit during the summer vacation? A．The beach. B．Fujian Tulou. C．The mountains. 9．What is the man looking at through the telescope? A．Mars. B．The stars. C．The Moon. 10．What does the woman want to do? A．Build a wall. B．Decorate the room. C．Share a room with John. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．Whose birthday is on Saturday? A．Helen’s. B．Mike’s. C．Bob’s. 12．Why is Helen worried at first? A．She doesn’t like going camping. B．She forgot to invite Mike and Bob. C．Alex might miss her birthday party. 13．When will Alex’s camping trip finally happen? A．This Saturday. B．Next weekend. C．Never. 14．What will Helen’s mum prepare for the party? A．Beef and cheese pizzas. B．A strawberry cake. C．Some soft drinks. 15．What can we know about Helen? A．She is Alex’s sister. B．She is turning twelve. C．She is as tall as Alex. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 16．How was the boy that David saw on the playground? A．Bored. B．Sad. C．Angry. 17．Why did David want to give something special to everyone in the school? A．Because he wanted everyone in the school to help each other. B．Because everyone in the school needed David’s help. C．Because David was a helpful teacher in the school. 18．Who helped David to make his idea come true? A．His brothers, classmates and friends. B．His parents, teachers and classmates. C．His friends, teachers and classmates. 19．What’s on the buttons (徽章)? A．A sentence. B．A picture. C．A flower. 20．What is the ending (结局) of the story? A．David became the most famous student in the school. B．David made everyone the school feel happy. C．David made a big difference to his school. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Chimelong Safari Park It is one of the biggest nature parks in China and is home to about 20,000 animals, including pandas, tigers and birds. It is the first park in China to introduce a self-drive tour. Tourists can watch wild animals while driving in the special area around the park. Opening Hours:9:30 a.m.~6:00 p.m. (Monday to Friday) 9:30 a.m.~6:30 p.m. (Saturday to Sunday)Rules for Tourists: Don’t get off in the self-drive area. Drive slowly and stop to take photos of the animals. Tourists can have meals at restaurants in the park if they are hungry. Don’t bring any food into the park except the food for babies.Ticket Information: 300 yuan/an adult (成人) 280 yuan/a student 245 yuan/a child (1.0~1.5 meters tall) It’s free for children shorter than 1 meter.Address: No. 299, Hanxi Avenue, Panyu District, GuangzhouHow to Get There: 1. By bus: Take Bus No. 304 or 562 and get off at Hanxi Changlong Station. 2. By underground: Take Guangzhou Metro Line 3 to Hanxi Changlong Station. 21．What is special about Chimelong Safari Park according to the passage? A．It only has pandas and tigers. B．It is the biggest park in China. C．Tourists can not eat in the park. D．Tourists can drive to see animals. 22．When can people visit Chimelong Safari Park? A．At 6:30 p.m. on Friday. B．At 8:30 a.m. on Tuesday. C．At 10:00 a.m. on Saturday. D．At 9:00 p.m. on Sunday. 23．What can people do when visiting the park? A．Bring baby food into the park. B．Get off the car to feed animals. C．Drive fast to watch more animals. D．Drive quickly and stop to take photos of the animals. 24．How much should Jason pay if he goes to the park with his 1.3-meter-tall daughter? A．245 yuan. B．280 yuan. C．300 yuan. D．545 yuan. 25．Where is this passage most probably from? A．A music book. B．A travel guide. C．A science fiction. D．A health magazine. B Huangmei Opera is a famous type of traditional Chinese opera from Huangmei County in Anhui Province. It first appeared during the mid-Qing Dynasty and now stands as one of China’s most important local operas. People in Anhui and Hubei provinces first enjoyed this opera. Audiences (观众) , especially in the Jianghuai area, love its beautiful and easy-to-remember music, its simple acting, and its easy-to-understand language. This opera began as folk singing. People called its early form the “Huangmei tune (曲调) ,” which is simple and traditional. Over hundreds of years, it developed by learning from other opera styles. Today, performers use unusual music, acting methods, and stage skills that give Huangmei Opera its special style. The music in Huangmei Opera has clear, lively, and moving tunes. It builds on the old Huangmei tune and helps express the characters’ feelings, pulling the audience into the story. Its performance style seems more simple and natural than that of other Chinese operas. Actors use real and honest expressions so that everyone can understand the story and connect with the characters. Performers usually sing and speak in the local languages of Anhui or Hubei. This makes the opera feel close and friendly to common people, and more and more people like it. Huangmei Opera strongly influences Chinese culture. In the mid-20th century, it reached more people through movies. The famous film The Fairy Couple especially helped people all over China and the world know about this beautiful art form. Today, Huangmei Opera is still an important part of Chinese tradition, and it keeps getting more fans from all over the world. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 26．When did Huangmei Opera first appear? A．In the mid-20th century. B．During the mid-Qing Dynasty. C．During the late Qing Dynasty. D．During Anhui Province’s founding period. 27．What’s the main purpose of the second paragraph? A．To tell us why people love Huangmei Opera today. B．To list all the places where Huangmei Opera is popular. C．To compare Huangmei Opera with other kinds of music. D．To show how Huangmei Opera started and changed over time. 28．What does the underlined word “that” refer to in Paragraph 3? A．The audience. B．Huangmei Opera. C．Performance style. D．The music of Huangmei Opera. 29．Why can audiences easily connect with Huangmei Opera performances? A．Because it uses very old and formal language. B．Because the actors wear very colorful clothes. C．Because the stories are always about modern life. D．Because the actors use natural expressions and local language. 30．What is the main idea of the passage? A．Huangmei Opera is no longer popular in China today. B．Huangmei Opera is a popular local opera with special artistic styles. C．The film The Fairy Couple is the only reason Huangmei Opera is famous. D．Huangmei Opera started as a folk tune and has become a popular and influential Chinese opera. C When I was 10, my grandmother came to stay with us in our village home. For the first few months, grandma seemed lonely and out of place. She wasn’t used to the traffic noises and missed the peace and quiet of life in the country. However, she slowly accepted that she would spend the rest of her life with us in a little house far from her childhood (童年) farm. When the warm spring winds began to blow, grandma told us that she was going to plant a small garden. “But there is no need to do that,” father said. “I know, we can buy the food, but I need a garden. And I’m going to plant one here,” replied grandmother. She asked me if I would help her prepare the land for planting and I happily agreed. In early spring, we put cabbages, corn, and tomatoes in the little pots. I carefully watered them every day. Soon, little green shoots appeared. When the days were warm enough, we moved the young plants into neat (整齐的) rows in the small garden. When everything was planted, we stood and looked at the newly planted garden proudly. “In a month, we will have cabbages to eat,” said grandmother happily. “And a few weeks after that, we will have plenty of fresh vegetables for our supper table.” I am so glad to spend those days looking after our plants in the summer heat. When autumn arrived, we harvested (收获) the food. Grandmother made sure we always had something fresh on the table. Now that I’m older and living on my own, I still remember those wonderful meals with an old lady’s love. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 31．What made grandma out of place at the beginning of the story? A．She didn’t like the food there. B．She hated the heavy traffic. C．She missed the life in the country. D．She thought the weather was too cold. 32．What’s the meaning of the underlined word “shoots” in Paragraph 5? A．根 B．花朵 C．嫩芽 D．果实 33．What would they eat first from the garden, according to grandmother? A． B． C． D． 34．How did grandma’s feelings change according to the story? A．sad-angry-proud B．lonely-excited-moved C．lonely-proud-happy D．sad-excited-moved 35．What’s the best title of the passage? A．Life in the village home. B．Fresh vegetables on the table. C．How to plant a garden. D．Grandma’s garden of love. D Here is the car of the future! This car is very different from today’s cars. It is quiet and clean. Today’s cars have wheels, but this one does not. It moves like a snail (蜗牛), but is much faster than a snail! This car will use electricity (电). People can make it full of electricity very quickly. It will also be very easy to drive. In fact, you don’t need to drive it because it will drive itself. You will just need to tell the computer “Go to …” and then the car will take you there. Also, it will reach the place very quickly, much faster than today’s cars. It will also be very safe and comfortable. A lot of technology has already appeared, but it is at the experimental stage (试验阶段). Fifty years from now, maybe sooner, some new roads will have solar panels and some cars will be able to use them. However, you may not be able to drive a “snail car”, even if you’re only under 20 today. Maybe this is the car of the year 2100, and your grandchildren may drive it. No pollution, no traffic jams, no stress. Scientists have lots of ideas about the car of the future. It will be interesting to see what ideas they come up with many years from now. 36．What can we know about the car of the future according to Paragraphs 1 and 2? A．The car won’t be easy to drive. B．The car moves as quickly as today’s cars. C．The car has wheels. D．The car will be silent and clean. 37．What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 3 mean? A．Snails. B．Solar panels. C．Snail cars. D．Cars of the future. 38．What can we infer (推断) according to the last paragraph? A．Driving will be difficult in the 22nd century. B．Driving will be nice in the 22nd century. C．Driving will be worrying in the 22nd century. D．Driving will be tiring in the 22nd century. 39．What’s the advantage (优点) of the car of the future? A．It will be able to drive itself. B．The car will not use electricity. C．There will be a robot to drive it. D．When driving it, people don’t need to tell the computer what to do. 40．What’s the best title for the passage? A．The Solar Energy B．Important Energy C．The Future Cars D．Some Interesting Experiments 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） How to Get a “Yes” for Your Trip Do you want to go on a fun trip with your friends? But are you worried your parents will say no? Don’t worry! 41 Let your parents know your friends well. Invite your friends to your house a few times. When your parents see that your friends are nice and responsible (负责任的), they will feel better about the trip. 42 Don’t start the conversation suddenly. Ask your parents, “Can we talk about something important?” and choose a time when everyone is free and happy. Tell your parents why this trip is important for you. Explain how it can help you learn new things, see new places, and become more independent. Please don’t just say you want to go for parties or fun. 43 Show them your plan. Parents love to see a clear plan. Prepare a simple list of where you will go, where you will stay, and what you will do each day. 44 This shows you are serious and responsible. Ask your parents what they think. Listen to their questions and worries carefully. 45 Then, show them your new plan and make sure they are happy with it. This is called a compromise (妥协). If you follow these steps, your parents will see that you have thought about everything. They will know you are ready for this adventure. Good luck. A．Find a good time to talk. B．Promise you will call them every day. C．Maybe you need to change your plan a little. D．Show them this is a good learning experience. E．Let them know your friends’ parents also agreed. F．Also, tell them about how much money the trip will cost. G．Here is a plan to help you talk to them and get their “yes”. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Amy: Hi, Ken. Our community will hold an activity to clean up the park this Saturday. Ken: Yes, I did. How about you? Amy: Me too. I’m just thinking about what to prepare. Do you have any advice? Ken: Well, we might need gloves and rubbish bags. Amy: Good idea. Let’s take some from home. Ken: OK. Amy: Oh, I’d love to. Ken: Great! It’s green and healthy. Amy: Right. By the way, I also plan to plant a tree there if possible. Ken: It’s meaningful to make our neighborhood greener. Amy: Will you bring your younger sister with you? Ken: Yeah, she wants to come. Amy: Great! Let’s meet at the park gate at 9 a.m. 46．A．Did you hear about it? B．What time will it start? C．Are you going to join? D．Can you help organize it? 47．A．Where did you buy them? B．How many do we need? C．Why don’t we bring them? D．Who can help us get some? 48．A．How will you go there? B．Can you give me a lift? C．What would you like to be? D．Shall we go there by bike? 49．A．Good for you! B．Nothing serious. C．I don’t agree. D．Sounds tiring. 50．A．She’s too young to join us. B．She likes nature a lot. C．She is busy this weekend. D．She dislikes getting dirty. 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 Ava is worried about going back to school. She has been out of school for several weeks. She is 51 of learning new things and making new friends again. Her mother 52 Ava to take her stuffed (毛绒的) toy to school. Ava loves the idea and 53 finds her favourite stuffed bear, Teddy. On the first day of school, Ava goes to school 54 Teddy in her schoolbag. Before walking into the classroom, she is a little 55 . Then she 56 of Teddy. She takes it out and 57 it. The soft feeling makes her feel 58 . At break time, Ava sees a boy called Lucas 59 with a stuffed dog. She walks to Lucas and asks about the stuffed dog. Lucas says Bingo makes him feel 60 at school. Ava knows they have 61 in common. After that, they often play together, and soon become good friends. Ava and Lucas 62 to start the Stuffed Animal Club at school. They take their stuffed animals to school every day. Many other children join the club. There are about thirty 63 now. They meet on Mondays and Thursdays. In the club, they share stories and play different games together. It’s so much fun! Because of the club, many other children like Ava and Lucas have new friends and feel safe at school. Ava and Lucas want to help more kids. They plan to 64 stuffed animals to the kids in hospital next week. The idea makes all the club members excited. They’re happy to do 65 things. The club becomes a warm place for every member. 51．A．tired B．careful C．afraid D．proud 52．A．stops B．advises C．allows D．invites 53．A．hardly B．suddenly C．quickly D．recently 54．A．for B．about C．from D．with 55．A．angry B．bored C．relaxed D．nervous 56．A．hears B．talks C．thinks D．dreams 57．A．hits B．hugs C．throws D．washes 58．A．better B．worse C．sadder D．quieter 59．A．eating B．playing C．sleeping D．reading 60．A．safe B．busy C．funny D．lucky 61．A．nothing B．everything C．anything D．something 62．A．warn B．refuse C．decide D．forget 63．A．members B．teachers C．parents D．visitors 64．A．give away B．give up C．take off D．put on 65．A．careful B．useless C．meaningful D．endless 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或词组或括号内单词的正确形式。 Many people don’t realize it, but keeping a home comfortable takes a lot of work. It’s not just about cleaning—it’s all the little things we do every day, like taking out the rubbish, 66 (sort) toys and clothes into boxes, and watering the plants. People call these things “invisible (隐形的) chores”. No one notices them 67 someone forgets to do them. Sam Kelly, a mum of three, 68 (have) a smart way to teach her kids about these invisible jobs. She uses a “Notice and Do” list. Instead of 69 (give) her children a chore list, the wise mother teaches them to look around and see what needs doing. “First you notice it, and then you do it,” she tells them. Sam used to remind the kids 70 (do) the housework. However, the kids sometimes did the chores 71 (careless). Now they’re learning to do the housework on their own carefully. This helps them become 72 (help) family members. Sam makes sure her son and daughters all do the chores. “Chores aren’t just 73 girls,” she says. “Everyone should help make our home nice.” The “Notice and Do” list teaches kids some important life 74 (skill). When they learn to do chores without others reminding them, they’re learning how to take care of 75 (them) and others, so they can live more independently (独立地). 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76． A: Who did Ella go to the park with last weekend? B: 77． A: B: Sorry, I have to make the bed. 78． A: What should we do with the tomatoes? B: 79． A: What does Steve want to be when he grows up? B: 80． A: B: There will be more people in cities in the future. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 81．同学们，未来的生活总是充满无限遐想与美好憧憬。本次的写作任务是以“Future”为主题，写一篇英语文章。请你从以下两个方面选择一个，根据写作要求，简单描述人类的未来生活或者是你自己的未来生活，认真完成写作任务。 选择1： ●What will the environment be like? (better, more trees...) ●What activities will people be able to do in their free time? (travel, study, robot...) ●How can we prepare for the future? (keep learning, work hard...) 选择2： ●What will you be? (artist/ teacher/ lawyer...) ●What will your life be like? (live in, family, have fun...) ●How are you going to make your dreams come true? (practice, improve skills, study hard...) 要求： 1. 短文内容应包含题目要求所给的全部提示信息，选择使用参考词汇，可适当发挥； 2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整； 3. 短文中不得出现你的任何真实信息 (姓名、校名等)。若文中出现人名，请选择使用：Mr. Liu/Ms. Wang /Fu Xiang /Teng Fei。 4. 词数：不少于70。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $