广西钦州市2025-2026学年秋季学期高二年级期末教学质量监测英语试卷

钦州市2025年秋季学期高二年级期末教学质量监测 英语 （试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 4.本卷主要命题范围：外研版选择性必修第一册~选择性必修第二册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a ticket office. B. In a library. C. In a bank. 2. How does the man sound? A. Upset. B. Sympathetic. C. Apologetic. 3. What will the speakers do next? A. Go to a store. B. Pick up Millie. C. Visit a friend. 4. Which gate should the woman go to? A Gate 20. B. Gate 25. C. Gate 30. 5. What do the speakers have in common? A. They like walking dogs with others. B. They own the same kind of dog. C. They have the same job. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why did the man stay in the campsite? A. The hotel was fully booked. B. The hotel was expensive at that time. C. He wanted to get close to the nature. 7. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Some photos. B. A camera. C. A village. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday? A. Betty’s. B. Dora’s. C. Kate’s. 9. What will the girl probably do on Friday? A. Watch a basketball game. B. Go shopping. C. See a movie. 10. Why does the girl want her father to buy a new backpack for her? A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is full of books. C. Her backpack is broken. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What is Miss White’s job? A. She’s a judge. B. She’s a lawyer. C. She’s a secretary. 12. Why is Miss White so upset? A. She cannot access the Internet. B. She will be taken to prison. C. She can’t speak well. 13. What colour should the light on the black box be? A. Yellow. B. Red. C. Green. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Workmates. C. Host and guest. 15. Which kind of banana is most popular in Australia? A. Williams. B. Cavendish. C. Lady Finger. 16. Why does Alan speak of China? A. To explain the Australian bananas’ history. B. To describe how to plant bananas. C. To talk about Chinese migrants. 17. What might Rose research into? A. Plants. B. Animals. C. Clothes. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Where did John Green’s family eventually settle in? A. Michigan. B. Orlando. C. Indianapolis. 19. Which of John Green’s books is one of the best-selling books of all time? A. The Fault in Our Stars. B. Three Holiday Romance. C. Let It Snow. 20. What inspired John Green to write Looking for Alaska? A. His brother’s life story. B. His YouTube ventures. C. His experiences in a boarding school. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Teachers’ Day is a special occasion to honour the dedication(奉献)of educators who shape future generations. Although the dates and traditions vary around the world, the spirit of gratitude is universal. Oct 5 has been designated by UNESCO as World Teachers’ Day, celebrated annually since 1994. On this day, schools and educational institutions host events to highlight the vital role of teachers. India India marks Teachers’ Day on Sept 5, honouring the birth anniversary of Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, an admired philosopher and the country’s second president. Since 1962, the day has been celebrated with cultural activities in schools and recognition of outstanding educators. It also features role-reversal activities where students teach the classes. Mexico Mexico celebrates Teachers’ Day on May 15, a tradition established in 1918. On this day, schools hold special events where students show appreciation through performances, songs and small gifts such as flowers or cards. While not a public holiday, the day is widely observed across the country. Vietnam Vietnamese Teachers’ Day, officially established by the government in 1982, is celebrated on Nov 20. Common traditions include students presenting flowers and gifts, organizing school ceremonies, and former students returning to pay respects to their teachers. Malaysia Malaysia observes Teachers’ Day on May 16, commemorating（纪念）the adoption of the Razak Report in 1956, which laid the foundation of the nation’s national education system. On this day, schools hold celebrations where students and communities express gratitude with cards, small gifts, flowers or symbols of appreciation. 1. What is special about Teachers’ Day in India? A. Former students return to their schools. B. Students give lessons at school. C. It honours the nation’s first president. D. It started to be celebrated in 1918. 2. What do Teachers’ Day in Mexico and that in Malaysia have in common? A. They are established by the government in 1962. B. They celebrate the release of a report. C. They are public holidays for all people. D. They are in May with gift-giving traditions. 3. What is the purpose of the text? A. To introduce Teachers’ Day in different countries. B. To explain why we celebrate World Teachers’ Day. C. To tell us the history of UNESCO’s special day. D. To describe students’ activities on Teachers’ Day. B I never realised how much public speaking would be part of a writer’s life. After my first three books were published, no one asked me to give a speech, which suited me perfectly — I had always been terrified of speaking in front of others. Then, just before the release of my fourth book, an invitation arrived for a literary festival. I assumed it would be a comfortable on-stage interview, discussing my writing process. Though still uneasy, I agreed. The night before my session, an organiser walked me through the venue — a small tent set up in the town square. Another author was speaking, and I saw in horror that there was no interviewer, no table. Just one person standing alone, holding the attention of about eighty people, “How long does each talk last?” I managed to ask. “Around fifty minutes,” the organiser replied cheerfully. “We like to leave time for questions.” My mind switched into survival mode. In just a few hours, I’d be pushed out of a plane — it was time to build a parachute (降落伞). Back in my hotel room, I pieced together a talk from old anecdotes (趣闻轶事), recent embarrassments, and excerpts from the book I was promoting. With my heart pounding like a trapped bird, I walked toward the tent, repeating my lines under my breath... and sent up a silent prayer that my voice wouldn’t fail me when the moment came. As I walked off the stage, the wave of nervous energy finally disappearing, I realised I had survived. My final conclusion: it had gone... okay. There were moments of laughter, moments of awkward silence. But the tent didn’t collapse, and I didn’t run offstage. There’s no secret to overcoming the fear of public speaking. You just have to do it — accept that you won’t be great at first, and trust that you’ll improve. After that festival, I had a basic speech structure, which I refined over time. The dread I once felt slowly transformed into a nervous energy that felt almost like excitement. Now, given the choice between a moderated (有主持人引导的)interview and speaking solo for fifty minutes, I’d choose the latter. That way, I’m in control — not just of the words, but of the rhythm, the pauses, the connection. And that kind of control is a kind of freedom. 4. How did the author initially feel about public speaking? A. He was terrified of it. B. He got used to it. C. He was happy to do it. D. He was curious about it. 5. Why did the author agree to attend the literary festival at first? A. He began to love public speaking in front of many people. B. He wanted to promote his fourth book actively. C. He thought the on-stage interview would be relaxing. D. He was invited by many readers of his books. 6. What does Paragraph 6 mainly talk about? A. The time of the author’s talk. B. The venue of the literary festival. C. The author’s fear of public speaking. D. The author’s preparation and pre-speech nerves. 7. What does freedom mean according to the author? A. A good performance in public speaking. B. A sense of control over what you do. C. Having no nervous energy in speech. D. Choosing moderated interview every time. C Telemedicine is the name for when doctors give advice to patients by telephone or the Internet, or when health care providers in rural areas connect with specialists in big cities. Telemedicine has existed for a long time, but the rise of smart phones, tablets and webcam-equipped computers is raising telemedicine to new levels. Some health care systems in the United States now offer Virtual Urgent Care, patients see a doctor by video chat without having to leave home. Diana Rae recently demonstrated how Virtual Urgent Care works. She used an iPad tablet and Skype — the video chat service. Doctor Green first has the patient describe her symptoms (症状). Then the doctor performs a physical exam by demonstrating what he wants her to do. Doctor Green decides that the problem is an infection and gives her some penicillin for medicine. He says about 3 out of 4 patients who have health problems can be treated like this — through Virtual Urgent Care, which means a video chat could substitute a visit to the doctor’s office. Franciscan charges $35 for this kind of virtual house call, that is much less than the cost of going to an emergency room, a doctor’s office or an urgent care clinic. After trying the video conference, Diana Rae says she would be happy to pay the 35 dollars, when she was recently home with a bad cold. “I would have paid twice that for the convenience of getting taken care of without having to sit in a waiting room, wait, and get exposed to everyone else’s germs (病菌).” Rae said. But a company official says state rules have not kept progress with development in telemedicine. The workers who provide Virtual Urgent Care must be licensed separately in each state where the company does business. For now, that means Franciscan doctors can treat patients in Washington state and California, for example, but not in neighbouring Oregon or Idaho. 8. What is helping telemedicine to rise to new stages? A. Specialists working in rural areas. B. The development of new medical drugs. C. More patients needing urgent care at home. D. The rise of smartphones tablets and computers. 9. What does the underlined word “substitute” in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Replace. B. Adjust. C. Seek. D. Expand. 10. Why would Diana Rae be happy to pay Virtual Urgent Care even more? A. The doctor gave her effective penicillin medicine. B. She doesn’t need to wait or get exposed to germs. C. Virtual care treats 3/4 of all health problems. D. It is safe, free and convenient. 11. Why can’t Virtual Urgent Care develop fast now? A. Doctors are not good at telemedicine skills. B. Few patients need Virtual Urgent Care service. C. State rules don’t match telemedicine development. D. Companies lack money to run telemedicine business. D Every third Friday of May, we pause to recognize the fragile (易损的) existence of endangered species. We share the planet with countless animals, plants, and insects. Yet, many of them are disappearing right before our eyes. National Endangered Species Day urges us to take action before it’s too late. The day was established in 2006 by the US Congress to raise awareness about species in danger of dying out. But the issue goes back decades. Laws to protect endangered species have been around for over 40 years. Today, the urgency remains the same. Species are still disappearing, and their habitats are under threat. When the last of a species disappears, it’s gone forever. Endangered species are dangerously close to that fate (命运). Their numbers are so low that every birth counts, every death matters. Some remain in the thousands, others in the hundreds, and a few are down to mere tens. When a species disappears, it doesn’t go quietly. The loss greatly affects ecosystems. When a species disappears, its prey (被捕食者) populations explode. Plants die off, and animals lose their food source. The web of life is fragile, and every species has a role. Take pollinators (昆虫授粉), for instance. Bees, butterflies, and bats help plants reproduce. If they disappear, crops fail, and food chains fall apart. National Endangered Species Day reminds us that time is running out for many species. But the fate of these animals, plants, and insects isn’t set in stone. Organizations like the World Wildlife Federation and the Jane Goodall Institute work tirelessly to protect endangered species. They fund anti-poaching efforts, save injured animals, and restore habitats. Individuals can help too. Donate to wildlife organizations. Volunteer at local conservation centres. adopt sustainable habits such as using less plastic. Every choice, no matter how small, can make a difference. Saving endangered species isn’t just about protecting animals. It’s about preserving ecosystems, supporting biodiversity, and ensuring a balanced, healthy planet for future generations. And that future starts with us. 12. What do we know about National Endangered Species Day? A. It was set up by US Congress in 2006. B. It started to protect habitats 40 years ago. C. It is on the first Friday of every May. D. It makes species stop disappearing. 13. What does Paragraph 4 focus on? A. Why pollinators are important to plants. B. How species loss harms ecosystems. C. What causes species to disappear quickly. D. Which animals help plants reproduce. 14. What can we infer from the text? A. Small choices have no influence on species. B. Only organizations can protect endangered species. C. Saving species helps keep the planet healthy. D. Endangered species’ fate can’t be changed. 15. What is the best title for the text? A. Endangered Species: Disappearing Quickly B. National Endangered Species Day: Act Now C. How to Protect Endangered Species Well D. Why So Many Species Are in Danger 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Stay Calm No matter Who Pushes Your Buttons Have you ever felt like some people exist just to test your patience? The slow walkers, the loud eaters, the overly dramatic ones — yes, them. But guess what? ____16____. The following are some suggestions on becoming untouchable mentally, emotionally, and psychologically. ____17____ The first rule of never getting angry: realize that most people aren’t worth the energy it takes to get upset. Think about it—when someone cuts you off in traffic or deliberately tries to provoke (挑衅) you, what do you gain by reacting? Anger only exhausts you, while the other person moves on without caring. Choose whose voice you hear ____18____. Here’s your new motto (座右铭): Not everyone’s opinion matters. Say it. Believe it. Live it. Unless someone is supporting you, feeding you, or holds a legal agreement with you, their opinions hold no real power. Expect people to be inconsiderate Accept this difficult truth: many people simply lack basic life awareness. ____19____, but about not realizing how their actions affect others. They will cut you off in traffic. They will reply with one-word texts. They will talk during movies. So change your approach: when someone says something rude, laugh. Not a forced, polite laugh — but a genuine, amused chuckle (轻声笑). It throws people off. After all, they expect anger, rather than amusement. Build a high-tolerance mindset Here’s the final step: train yourself to be unshakable, How? Practise. Stand in long lines without sighing or complaining. Scroll (滚动) through social media without reacting to every annoying post. Let someone cut you off in traffic and simply nod. The more you experience annoyances without reacting, the calmer you will become. ____20____. Master these strategies, and you’ll walk through life with the calm of a Zen master and the confidence of a leader. A. Find supportive friends or workmates B. Stop letting other people’s opinions occupy space in your mind C. They wanted to express themselves D. Master the power of not caring E. This isn’t about lacking intelligence F. You don’t have to let such people bother you G. Eventually, nothing will drive you mad 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 People say home is where the heart is. However, when the home you’re living in isn’t safe, the heartache can be a real headache. That was the case for one Nova Scotia family until neighbours stepped in to help them ____21____the difficulties. When Alvero Wiggins was diagnosed with kidney failure, it ____22____ a lasting effect on the family. That meant spending about nine hours a day on the treatment. And that also meant knocking off work. ____23____to earn a living, Wiggins, his wife, and their three children were forced to move into a ____24____. The terrible conditions they ____25____led to a tough adjustment for Wiggins’s family. Fortunately, Alvero Wiggins had developed ____26____ ties with his community. Before his illness, he was an active ____27____ in two local youth-related organizations. So many people in the neighbourhood were ____28____ to offer a helping hand. Sarah MacLaren, one of his neighbours, had worked alongside him for years. And she ____29____ how much Wiggins invested in the pursuit of helping others. So she thought he deserved to get something back. Getting his family a better place to live in became the most important ____30____ for her. MacLaren was in charge of a local housing initiative — A Home For Everyone. For the past 15 years, she and her peers have raised ____31____ for various housing-related charities. Along with her ____32____ board, the decision was made that this year’s earnings would go toward helping the Wiggins family find a new place called home. With their efforts, a four-bedroom townhouse near a park and a swimming pool would be the home of the family. “It means a lot to us to have a ____33____,” Wiggins told CBC with excitement. “I don’t even know how to find the words to thank everybody who has ____34____ me. I believe everything will turn around ____35____.” 21. A. bring forth B. think of C. get through D. work out 22. A. created B. reduced C. desired D. noticed 23. A. Excited B. Easy C. Dangerous D. Unable 24. A. shelter B. school C. factory D. neighbourhood 25. A. observed B. faced C. admired D. emphasized 26. A. unknown B. new C. formal D. strong 27. A. volunteer B. politician C. officer D. patient 28. A. lucky B. hesitant C. willing D. fit 29. A. fought B. knew C. worked D. studied 30. A. surgery B. impression C. innovation D. mission 31. A. funds B. understanding C. awareness D. standards 32. A. small B. lower C. charitable D. independent 33. A. room B. pool C. park D. home 34. A. supported B. reminded C. restricted D. convinced 35. A. suddenly B. gradually C. hardly D. amusingly 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 “The Beauty of Books in China” design competition in Shanghai on Sunday showcased 25 books from 11 provinces, municipalities and autonomous (自治的) ____36____ (region) nationwide. Since its ____37____ (establish) in 2003, the event is one of the most significant book design competitions in the country. It has successfully held 23 editions, with 521 works selected, 25 of ____38____ have been recognized at the annual “Best Book Design from all over the World” competition in Leipzig, Germany. The call for entries for the 2025 competition ____39____ (begin) in July, with submissions (提交的作品) accepted through self-recommendation by designers and nominations by publishers. A total of 304 books were submitted, ____40____ (cover) content in literature, art, science, education, history, lifestyle, ____41____ children’s books. The evaluation advocates for the close integration of “design, reading, aesthetics, and life”, emphasizing that book design should return to the essence of reading and serve ____42____ wide audience. Excellent book designs create appropriate environments for readers by awakening ____43____ (emotion) connections through details and aesthetics to ____44____ (natural) immerse themselves as they turn the pages, fostering a lasting and focused experience. The ____45____ (choose) 25 books will compete in the “Best Book Design From All Over the World” event in Leipzig. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你参加了全市中学生（高中组）主题为“亲近自然”的摄影比赛，并获得了一等奖。请你给英国朋友George写一封邮件分享这一消息，内容包括： 1.介绍你的作品； 2.说明拍摄的理由。 参考词汇：亲近自然 Get Close to Nature 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear George, __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On that cool autumn afternoon in the supermarket, the lights gave out a cold and lifeless light on the people there. My mind was full of the math problems I had to finish that evening, so I pushed a shopping cart and put daily food into it mechanically (机械地): pasta, a jar of tomato sauce, two apples, a piece of cheddar cheese, a cheap chicken breast (my mum told me to buy it specially), and my sister’s favourite yogurt. At the checkout counter, the cashier — a woman with tired eyes — scanned the items quickly, just like she had done hundreds of times before. The beeping noise kept ringing in my ears. “That’ll be $128.75,” she said in a flat voice. I took out my wallet, but I felt deeply embarrassed when I found I was $12 short. My face turned red immediately. “I... I’m so sorry,” I stammered, not daring to look at her. I could feel the impatient stares from the people waiting in line behind me. “I thought I had more money. I’ll just... I can take the cheese back.” Just as I started taking things out of the cart, a calm and gentle voice came from behind: “Wait.” I turned around and saw a man about 50 years old standing in line. He had kind eyes and a soft smile, and he didn’t look annoyed at all — instead, he looked understanding. “Please don’t take it back,” he said, holding out a $20 bill to the cashier. “It’s not a big deal at all.” “No, really, I can’t accept this,” I said firmly. I felt more hurt to my pride than embarrassed. “It’s my mistake. Thank you, but I’ll manage.” The man smiled more warmly. “Young man, we’ve all been in this kind of situation. Honestly, it’s just a few dollars. Just help someone else in need when you get the chance later.” His voice was so sincere that I couldn’t refuse anymore. I saw no pity in his eyes, only simple kindness between people. “Let me tell you a story,” he said. “My mum is fighting cancer at City Hospital,” his voice was calm but with a small, hard to-notice shake. “I always bring her fresh roses every day when I visit — they’re her favourite. But this morning, she got angry and refused to take my flowers, no matter what I said. She told me I should use the money to help people who really need it,” he paused and looked at me seriously. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 My eyes were filled with tears when I accepted his kindness ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I resolved to figure out how to put promises into action. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 钦州市2025年秋季学期高二年级期末教学质量监测 英语 （试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 4.本卷主要命题范围：外研版选择性必修第一册~选择性必修第二册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a ticket office. B. In a library. C. In a bank. 2. How does the man sound? A. Upset. B. Sympathetic. C. Apologetic. 3. What will the speakers do next? A. Go to a store. B. Pick up Millie. C. Visit a friend. 4. Which gate should the woman go to? A. Gate 20. B. Gate 25. C. Gate 30. 5. What do the speakers have in common? A. They like walking dogs with others. B They own the same kind of dog. C. They have the same job. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why did the man stay in the campsite? A. The hotel was fully booked. B. The hotel was expensive at that time. C. He wanted to get close to the nature. 7. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Some photos. B. A camera. C. A village. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday? A. Betty’s. B. Dora’s. C. Kate’s. 9. What will the girl probably do on Friday? A. Watch a basketball game. B. Go shopping. C. See a movie. 10. Why does the girl want her father to buy a new backpack for her? A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is full of books. C. Her backpack is broken. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11 What is Miss White’s job? A. She’s a judge. B. She’s a lawyer. C. She’s a secretary. 12. Why is Miss White so upset? A. She cannot access the Internet. B. She will be taken to prison. C. She can’t speak well. 13. What colour should the light on the black box be? A. Yellow. B. Red. C. Green. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Workmates. C. Host and guest. 15. Which kind of banana is most popular in Australia? A. Williams. B. Cavendish. C. Lady Finger. 16. Why does Alan speak of China? A. To explain the Australian bananas’ history. B. To describe how to plant bananas. C. To talk about Chinese migrants. 17. What might Rose research into? A. Plants. B. Animals. C. Clothes. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Where did John Green’s family eventually settle in? A. Michigan. B. Orlando. C. Indianapolis. 19. Which of John Green’s books is one of the best-selling books of all time? A. The Fault in Our Stars. B. Three Holiday Romance. C. Let It Snow. 20. What inspired John Green to write Looking for Alaska? A. His brother’s life story. B. His YouTube ventures. C. His experiences in a boarding school. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. D 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. B 14. C 15. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16 F 17. D 18. B 19. E 20. G 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. regions 37. establishment 38. which 39. began 40. covering 41. and 42. a 43. emotional 44. naturally 45. chosen 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear George, I’m writing to share exciting news — I won first prize in the city’s high school students’ photography contest themed “Get Close to Nature”! My winning work shows a quiet morning in the suburban forest: dewdrops on green leaves and birds perching on branches, all bathed in soft sunrise light. I took this photo because I want to record nature’s beauty. Nowadays, we teenagers are often busy with studies and ignore the charm around us. I hope my work can encourage more people to get close to nature. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 My eyes were filled with tears when I accepted his kindness. I choked out my thanks, my face still warm with emotion. The man patted my arm softly, repeating, “Pass the kindness on.” Watching him leave the supermarket, the cold lights no longer felt lifeless. The people behind me nodded gently, and the cashier’s tired eyes softened. I clutched the cheese, knowing his mother’s love and his goodness had warmed this autumn afternoon deeply. His words stayed in my heart, a promise I was determined to keep. I resolved to figure out how to put promises into action. Every weekend, I saved a little pocket money and volunteered at a community food bank. Once, I helped a kid who couldn’t afford his favorite snacks, just like the man helped me. When he thanked me, I smiled and said, “Help someone else in need later.” Bit by bit, I passed on that warmth. I realized kindness isn’t big gestures, but small acts that connect hearts, just as the man and his mother taught me. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $